CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A company has recently deployed a new IoT device in their network. During the security assessment, it was found that the device is still using default credentials. Which of the following actions is the BEST immediate step to mitigate the potential exploitation of this device?
Disable remote management features on the IoT device to limit network-based attacks.
Update the IoT device firmware to the latest version available from the manufacturer.
Change the default username and password to a complex, unique credential set.
Conduct a thorough vulnerability scan of the device to find potential weaknesses.
Answer Description
Changing default credentials is an essential security measure to prevent unauthorized access, as many attack vectors involve using known defaults to gain control over systems. Attackers often rely on databases of default usernames and passwords-such as those exploited by the Mirai botnet-to compromise devices that have not had their credentials changed from the manufacturer's defaults. Regularly updating device passwords to complex, unique values greatly reduces this risk. Conducting a vulnerability scan or updating firmware, while important, would not address the immediate exposure created by default credentials. Disabling remote management could limit some attack vectors but still leaves the device vulnerable if the credentials remain unchanged.
Ask Bash
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Why is changing default credentials the best immediate step to secure IoT devices?
What is the Mirai botnet and how does it exploit IoT devices with default credentials?
Why are actions like updating firmware or disabling remote management less effective for immediate mitigation?
Which of these is a primary benefit of implementing automation in secure operations?
Efficiency/time saving
Reduction of complexity
Guaranteed cost reduction
Standardized risk spread throughout the organization
Answer Description
Efficiency/time saving is a primary benefit of automation because it allows for quicker execution of repetitive tasks, reduces the potential for human error, and frees up personnel to focus on more complex tasks that cannot be automated. In contrast, complexity, cost reduction, and risk spread by automation are effects or considerations that can be associated with automation, but they are not universally accepted as primary benefits. Complexity actually refers to the potential increase in system complexity due to automation. Cost can sometimes be reduced by automation due to labor savings, but this isn't a guaranteed benefit because initial setup and maintenance can be costly. Risk spread is not a term commonly associated with the benefits of automation in secure operations.
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What types of tasks are typically automated in secure operations?
How does automation reduce human error in secure operations?
Are there any challenges associated with implementing automation in secure operations?
Which of the following BEST explains why an organization with a highly skilled IT department should STILL establish an information security steering committee?
It provides cross-functional oversight that aligns security objectives with business strategy and regulatory obligations beyond daily IT operations.
It eliminates the need for separate risk assessments because skilled IT staff can handle all security risks alone.
It allows IT personnel to make all security decisions without executive involvement, speeding technical implementation.
It restricts input from non-technical stakeholders to prevent delays caused by business considerations.
Answer Description
A security steering committee provides cross-functional governance that aligns security policy, risk management, and regulatory requirements with overall business objectives. Unlike an IT department that focuses on day-to-day technical operations, the committee brings together executives, legal, HR, and other stakeholders to set strategy, allocate resources, and resolve enterprise-wide security issues. The other options incorrectly assert that the committee removes executive oversight, eliminates risk-management needs, or limits business input-none of which are goals of effective governance.
Ask Bash
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Why is cross-functional oversight important in an information security steering committee?
What is the role of non-technical stakeholders in an information security steering committee?
How does an information security steering committee differ from the IT department?
What describes an environment where the cloud provider dynamically manages the allocation of machine resources?
Applications are constructed as a suite of small, independent services that perform specific business functions
A system where applications, dependencies, and systems are packaged together in a computing environment
The cloud provider's automatic management of resource allocation for executing code without requiring the user to manage infrastructure
Users manually scale and manage virtual machine instances to meet the application's workload
Answer Description
A serverless architecture refers to a cloud computing model in which the cloud provider automatically provisions, scales, and manages the infrastructure required to run code. Developers can write and deploy code without worrying about the underlying infrastructure. Traditional cloud services typically require users to manage and scale virtual machine instances, whereas microservices are a design approach to build a single application as a suite of small services, and containers provide a standard way to package code and its dependencies.
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What are the key benefits of serverless architecture?
How does serverless compare to traditional virtual machines in resource management?
What is the difference between serverless and container-based architectures?
What cryptographic technique involves adding random data to a message before hashing to make it more resistant to rainbow table attacks?
Digital signatures
Key stretching
Blockchain
Salting
Answer Description
Salting is the correct answer because it involves adding random data (salt) to a message before hashing. This makes the resulting hash value unique, even for identical messages, which helps prevent rainbow table attacks. Rainbow tables are precomputed tables of hash values that can be used to quickly reverse hashes and obtain the original message. By adding a unique salt to each message before hashing, the resulting hash values will be different, rendering rainbow tables ineffective.
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What are rainbow table attacks?
How does salting improve hashing security?
What is the difference between salting and key stretching?
During an authorized security assessment, the security team at XYZ Corp is tasked with identifying potential vulnerabilities without alerting the target systems. Which of the following options best describes a method that the security team should employ to gather intelligence without raising suspicion?
Running an automated crawler on the company's public website
Performing passive DNS analysis
Engaging in social engineering calls to the employees
Executing a full network scan to map out live hosts
Answer Description
Performing passive DNS analysis is a passive reconnaissance method used to gather historical DNS data for a domain without directly interacting with the target's systems. This technique helps in mapping the target's infrastructure without triggering alerts. In contrast, a full network scan and running an automated website crawler are forms of active reconnaissance, as they involve sending packets and requests directly to the target's network and can be detected. Similarly, making social engineering calls is an active method that involves direct interaction with the company's employees.
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What is passive DNS analysis?
How does passive DNS analysis differ from active reconnaissance methods?
What are some tools or platforms commonly used for passive DNS analysis?
An organization wants to reduce the likelihood that employees will reach spoofed login pages that harvest credentials. Which of the following controls would BEST achieve this goal by automatically blocking requests for domains that appear on threat-intelligence blocklists?
Implement a DNS/domain-filtering service that blocks look-ups for known malicious domains.
Require multifactor authentication for all user logins.
Enforce complex passwords that must be changed every 90 days.
Deploy data loss prevention (DLP) to inspect outbound network traffic.
Answer Description
Deploying a DNS or domain-filtering service stops browsers from resolving the hostnames of known malicious or suspicious sites, so users never reach the credential-harvesting page. While strong password policies, DLP, and MFA are valuable security measures, they do not directly prevent a user's web request from reaching a phishing site. DNS/domain filtering therefore provides the most effective and immediate protection in this scenario.
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What is a DNS/domain-filtering service?
How does threat intelligence contribute to domain-filtering services?
Why are password policies or MFA not enough to block spoofed login pages?
Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of automated compliance-monitoring tools in an organization's security-governance program?
They are prohibited by most regulatory frameworks because they lack the independence required for audits.
They are useful only for technical controls and should never be applied to administrative controls.
They completely eliminate the need for periodic manual control assessments once deployed.
They increase efficiency but still require human judgment and verification to validate findings and provide context.
Answer Description
Automated compliance-monitoring tools can continuously collect evidence, check configurations, and raise alerts more quickly than manual methods. However, they still require human review to interpret nuanced legal requirements, investigate false positives or negatives, and decide on appropriate remediation. NIST SP 800-137 notes that efficient monitoring cannot rely solely on manual or automated methods; both are necessary to achieve comprehensive coverage and sound risk decisions.
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What is the purpose of automated compliance-monitoring tools in security governance?
What role does NIST SP 800-137 play in compliance monitoring?
Why can't automated compliance tools replace human judgment completely?
Your employer is planning to place wireless devices at the entrance of their retail locations. The devices will use WiFi to connect to the store's wireless network and use beams of light to detect when someone enters through the entrance. Other than WiFi, what type of wireless communication is being used?
Bluetooth
NFC
802.11
Infrared
Answer Description
Infrared is the only option that uses light as a communication medium. 802.11 (the standard for WLAN), Near Field Communication (NFC) & Bluetooth all use Radio Frequencies. Infrared is best for the type of device in the question as it requires line of sight to operate. When LOS is broken the device will register a person in the entrance.
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What is Line of Sight (LOS) in infrared communication?
Why can't WiFi, NFC, or Bluetooth replace infrared in the described scenario?
Where else is infrared communication commonly used?
An organization has noticed an unusual amount of traffic to a legacy server. Upon investigation, it was discovered that a service account has been used to elevate permissions and install unauthorized software. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in the incident response process to handle this situation?
Preparation
Eradication
Containment
Recovery
Answer Description
Containment is the appropriate initial step following detection in an incident response process when the incident has already occurred and there's a need to prevent further damage or unauthorized activity. In this scenario, containing the threat by stopping the service account's actions is the priority to prevent further unauthorized activities, such as data exfiltration or lateral movement within the network. Preparation' is the process of getting ready for an incident before it occurs. 'Eradication' is performed after containment and involves removing the components of the incident, such as unauthorized software. 'Recovery' is the process of restoring systems to normal operation after the threat has been eradicated.
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Why is containment the first step after an incident is detected?
What methods can be used to contain an incident effectively?
How does containment differ from eradication in the incident response process?
A network administrator is configuring a new firewall. To prioritize security, the firewall is set up to block all network traffic if the device experiences a critical error or power loss. This configuration is an example of which concept?
Fail-on
Fail-safe
Fail-open
Fail-closed
Answer Description
When a system is configured to be fail-closed, also known as fail-secure, it defaults to a secure state upon failure. In this state, it will deny access or block all traffic to prevent potential security breaches. This contrasts with a fail-open system, which would allow traffic to pass through, prioritizing availability over security.
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What does 'fail-closed' mean in networking?
How does a 'fail-open' configuration differ from 'fail-closed'?
When should a 'fail-closed' configuration be used?
An organization is decommissioning several servers containing a mix of hard disk drives (HDDs) and solid-state drives (SSDs). According to security policy, all data on the drives must be rendered completely unrecoverable before the drives are repurposed for a non-sensitive project. Which of the following processes BEST achieves this goal for both types of drives?
Encryption
Formatting
Sanitization
Degaussing
Answer Description
Sanitization is the process of permanently and irreversibly removing or destroying data on a storage device to make it unrecoverable. This is the correct overarching process that applies to both HDDs and SSDs, using methods like overwriting for HDDs and Secure Erase commands for SSDs. Degaussing uses a powerful magnetic field to destroy data, but it is only effective on magnetic media like HDDs and is not effective on SSDs. Encryption renders data unreadable without the key, but it does not remove the data; a separate process called cryptographic erase (destroying the key) is a form of sanitization, but 'encryption' alone is not the answer. Formatting a drive typically only removes pointers to the data, leaving the actual data recoverable with forensic tools, and is not a secure method of disposal.
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What is the difference between sanitization and degaussing?
How does cryptographic erasure work as part of sanitization?
Why is sanitization important for maintaining data confidentiality?
Which technology should an organization implement to provide its mobile workforce with the most secure method of accessing the internal network, ensuring data is encrypted while traversing public networks?
Implement Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) on all services accessed by the workforce.
Enforce Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) across all remote user connections.
Use Transport Layer Security (TLS) to secure all data being sent to the internal network.
Deploy a Virtual Private Network (VPN) with strong encryption standards.
Answer Description
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is the most suitable option for securely accessing the internal network because it creates an encrypted tunnel for data traffic between the remote user and the organization's network, protecting sensitive information while traversing public networks. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) only encrypts data for specific sessions, which might not encompass all the sensitive traffic. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) is a security protocol designed to secure wireless networks, not to protect data in transit over public networks between a remote user and an internal network. Lastly, Transport Layer Security (TLS) provides encryption for data-in-transit but typically secures data between web browsers and servers, rather than providing full network access like a VPN.
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What makes a VPN more secure than SSL or TLS for remote access?
How does WPA2 differ from a VPN in terms of securing connections?
What is 'strong encryption' in the context of VPNs?
A security team is performing a penetration test and gathers information about the target organization by researching publicly available data without directly interacting with the organization's systems. What type of reconnaissance are they conducting?
Social engineering
Vulnerability scanning
Active reconnaissance
Passive reconnaissance
Answer Description
Passive reconnaissance involves collecting information without direct interaction with the target's systems, typically using publicly available resources. This method reduces the risk of detection compared to active reconnaissance, which involves direct engagement with the target.
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What is passive reconnaissance in cybersecurity?
How does passive reconnaissance differ from active reconnaissance?
What tools are commonly used for passive reconnaissance?
A technology company is planning to outsource its customer data management to a third-party vendor. Before sharing any sensitive information, the company wants to ensure that the vendor is legally obligated to maintain the confidentiality of the data. Which document should the company require the vendor to sign?
NDA
SLA
MSA
MOU
Answer Description
A Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) is specifically designed to legally bind parties to keep shared sensitive information confidential. While other agreements like Service-Level Agreements (SLA), Master Service Agreements (MSA), and Memorandums of Understanding (MOU) address different aspects of vendor relationships, the NDA focuses on confidentiality.
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What is an NDA and how does it ensure confidentiality?
How is an NDA different from an SLA?
When should a company use an NDA versus an MOU?
A company's web application includes user input in web pages without proper validation or encoding. Attackers inject code that runs in the browsers of other users, potentially stealing session tokens and personal data. Which vulnerability is being exploited by attackers?
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
Remote file inclusion
SQL injection
Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)
Answer Description
Cross-site scripting (XSS) is the vulnerability exploited when attackers inject malicious code into a web application, which is then executed by other users' browsers. This happens when user input is not properly validated or encoded before being included in web pages. XSS can lead to theft of session tokens, personal data, and other malicious activities.
Cross-site request forgery (CSRF) involves tricking authenticated users into performing unwanted actions without their consent but does not involve injecting code into users' browsers. SQL injection targets the database by injecting malicious SQL queries, not code executed in users' browsers. Remote file inclusion allows an attacker to include a remote file on the web server, which is different from injecting code that runs in client browsers.
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What are the main types of Cross-site Scripting (XSS)?
How can developers prevent Cross-site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities?
What damages can Cross-site Scripting (XSS) attacks cause to users and organizations?
A company is deploying laptops for its field technicians who will have access to sensitive customer data. To ensure the data remains protected in case of device theft or loss, which is the BEST solution to secure the data?
File-level encryption for each customer data file
Database encryption for the customer information database application
Partition encryption on the customer data directory
Full-Disk Encryption (FDE)
Answer Description
The correct answer is Full-Disk Encryption (FDE) because it encrypts the entire hard drive of the laptop, including the operating system, and ensures that all data on the device is protected. This is most effective for devices like laptops that can easily be stolen or misplaced, protecting against unauthorized access even if the laptop is turned off.
Partition encryption would only encrypt a specific partition of the hard drive, which means sensitive data stored outside of this partition would not be protected. File-level encryption would protect individual files, but it would not necessarily secure system files or temporary files that could contain sensitive data. Database encryption focuses on protecting data within a database and is not typically applied to the entire storage system of a laptop.
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What is Full-Disk Encryption (FDE) and how does it work?
How is FDE different from file-level or partition encryption?
What are the hardware and software requirements for implementing FDE?
What is the primary security purpose of regularly applying updates to software and operating systems?
To expand compatibility with third-party applications and services
To enhance the user interface design and experience
To increase system performance and efficiency
To resolve vulnerabilities and prevent security breaches
Answer Description
Applying updates, or 'patching', is essential because it resolves vulnerabilities that could be exploited by threat actors. Ignoring updates leaves systems susceptible to attacks that target these known weaknesses. Other options such as 'increasing system performance' or 'enhancing user interface' might be secondary benefits of some updates but are not the primary security purpose. 'Expanding compatibility' is usually not related to the security aspect of patching.
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What is a vulnerability in the context of cybersecurity?
How do threat actors exploit unpatched vulnerabilities?
What is the difference between a patch and a full software update?
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) in an organization?
To outline acceptable and unacceptable use of the organization's information systems and resources.
To document the steps required to restore business operations after a disaster.
To mandate minimum encryption key lengths for all stored data.
To define the specific disciplinary actions that will be taken for any security violation.
Answer Description
An Acceptable Use Policy establishes what users are permitted and prohibited from doing when using organizational information systems and resources. While it may reference penalties for violations, its core function is to define acceptable and unacceptable behavior, thereby reducing security and legal risk.
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What is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)?
Why is an AUP important for organizational security?
How does an AUP relate to penalties for misuse?
Which statement BEST describes the overall scope of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)?
To ensure all critical business functions can continue operating during and after a disruption.
To manage the process of relocating business operations to an alternate facility.
To create a communication strategy for notifying stakeholders during a crisis.
To restore an organization's IT systems and data after a disaster.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that a BCP's scope is to ensure all critical business functions can continue operating during and after a disruption. A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is a comprehensive strategy that encompasses all aspects of a business to maintain critical functions. This is distinct from a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP), which is a component of a BCP focused specifically on restoring IT systems and data. While communication strategies and relocation plans are important parts of a BCP, they are components within the broader objective of maintaining overall business operations.
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What is the difference between a BCP and a DRP?
Why is communication considered a component of a BCP and not its primary focus?
How does a BCP address the issue of relocating operations?
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