00:20:00

CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A company has recently deployed a new IoT device in their network. During the security assessment, it was found that the device is still using default credentials. Which of the following actions is the BEST immediate step to mitigate the potential exploitation of this device?

  • Disable remote management features on the IoT device to limit network-based attacks.

  • Update the IoT device firmware to the latest version available from the manufacturer.

  • Change the default username and password to a complex, unique credential set.

  • Conduct a thorough vulnerability scan of the device to find potential weaknesses.

Question 2 of 20

Which of these is a primary benefit of implementing automation in secure operations?

  • Efficiency/time saving

  • Reduction of complexity

  • Guaranteed cost reduction

  • Standardized risk spread throughout the organization

Question 3 of 20

Which of the following BEST explains why an organization with a highly skilled IT department should STILL establish an information security steering committee?

  • It provides cross-functional oversight that aligns security objectives with business strategy and regulatory obligations beyond daily IT operations.

  • It eliminates the need for separate risk assessments because skilled IT staff can handle all security risks alone.

  • It allows IT personnel to make all security decisions without executive involvement, speeding technical implementation.

  • It restricts input from non-technical stakeholders to prevent delays caused by business considerations.

Question 4 of 20

What describes an environment where the cloud provider dynamically manages the allocation of machine resources?

  • Applications are constructed as a suite of small, independent services that perform specific business functions

  • A system where applications, dependencies, and systems are packaged together in a computing environment

  • The cloud provider's automatic management of resource allocation for executing code without requiring the user to manage infrastructure

  • Users manually scale and manage virtual machine instances to meet the application's workload

Question 5 of 20

What cryptographic technique involves adding random data to a message before hashing to make it more resistant to rainbow table attacks?

  • Digital signatures

  • Key stretching

  • Blockchain

  • Salting

Question 6 of 20

During an authorized security assessment, the security team at XYZ Corp is tasked with identifying potential vulnerabilities without alerting the target systems. Which of the following options best describes a method that the security team should employ to gather intelligence without raising suspicion?

  • Running an automated crawler on the company's public website

  • Performing passive DNS analysis

  • Engaging in social engineering calls to the employees

  • Executing a full network scan to map out live hosts

Question 7 of 20

An organization wants to reduce the likelihood that employees will reach spoofed login pages that harvest credentials. Which of the following controls would BEST achieve this goal by automatically blocking requests for domains that appear on threat-intelligence blocklists?

  • Implement a DNS/domain-filtering service that blocks look-ups for known malicious domains.

  • Require multifactor authentication for all user logins.

  • Enforce complex passwords that must be changed every 90 days.

  • Deploy data loss prevention (DLP) to inspect outbound network traffic.

Question 8 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of automated compliance-monitoring tools in an organization's security-governance program?

  • They are prohibited by most regulatory frameworks because they lack the independence required for audits.

  • They are useful only for technical controls and should never be applied to administrative controls.

  • They completely eliminate the need for periodic manual control assessments once deployed.

  • They increase efficiency but still require human judgment and verification to validate findings and provide context.

Question 9 of 20

Your employer is planning to place wireless devices at the entrance of their retail locations. The devices will use WiFi to connect to the store's wireless network and use beams of light to detect when someone enters through the entrance. Other than WiFi, what type of wireless communication is being used?

  • Bluetooth

  • NFC

  • 802.11

  • Infrared

Question 10 of 20

An organization has noticed an unusual amount of traffic to a legacy server. Upon investigation, it was discovered that a service account has been used to elevate permissions and install unauthorized software. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in the incident response process to handle this situation?

  • Preparation

  • Eradication

  • Containment

  • Recovery

Question 11 of 20

A network administrator is configuring a new firewall. To prioritize security, the firewall is set up to block all network traffic if the device experiences a critical error or power loss. This configuration is an example of which concept?

  • Fail-on

  • Fail-safe

  • Fail-open

  • Fail-closed

Question 12 of 20

An organization is decommissioning several servers containing a mix of hard disk drives (HDDs) and solid-state drives (SSDs). According to security policy, all data on the drives must be rendered completely unrecoverable before the drives are repurposed for a non-sensitive project. Which of the following processes BEST achieves this goal for both types of drives?

  • Encryption

  • Formatting

  • Sanitization

  • Degaussing

Question 13 of 20

Which technology should an organization implement to provide its mobile workforce with the most secure method of accessing the internal network, ensuring data is encrypted while traversing public networks?

  • Implement Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) on all services accessed by the workforce.

  • Enforce Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) across all remote user connections.

  • Use Transport Layer Security (TLS) to secure all data being sent to the internal network.

  • Deploy a Virtual Private Network (VPN) with strong encryption standards.

Question 14 of 20

A security team is performing a penetration test and gathers information about the target organization by researching publicly available data without directly interacting with the organization's systems. What type of reconnaissance are they conducting?

  • Social engineering

  • Vulnerability scanning

  • Active reconnaissance

  • Passive reconnaissance

Question 15 of 20

A technology company is planning to outsource its customer data management to a third-party vendor. Before sharing any sensitive information, the company wants to ensure that the vendor is legally obligated to maintain the confidentiality of the data. Which document should the company require the vendor to sign?

  • NDA

  • SLA

  • MSA

  • MOU

Question 16 of 20

A company's web application includes user input in web pages without proper validation or encoding. Attackers inject code that runs in the browsers of other users, potentially stealing session tokens and personal data. Which vulnerability is being exploited by attackers?

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)

  • Remote file inclusion

  • SQL injection

  • Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)

Question 17 of 20

A company is deploying laptops for its field technicians who will have access to sensitive customer data. To ensure the data remains protected in case of device theft or loss, which is the BEST solution to secure the data?

  • File-level encryption for each customer data file

  • Database encryption for the customer information database application

  • Partition encryption on the customer data directory

  • Full-Disk Encryption (FDE)

Question 18 of 20

What is the primary security purpose of regularly applying updates to software and operating systems?

  • To expand compatibility with third-party applications and services

  • To enhance the user interface design and experience

  • To increase system performance and efficiency

  • To resolve vulnerabilities and prevent security breaches

Question 19 of 20

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) in an organization?

  • To outline acceptable and unacceptable use of the organization's information systems and resources.

  • To document the steps required to restore business operations after a disaster.

  • To mandate minimum encryption key lengths for all stored data.

  • To define the specific disciplinary actions that will be taken for any security violation.

Question 20 of 20

Which statement BEST describes the overall scope of a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)?

  • To ensure all critical business functions can continue operating during and after a disruption.

  • To manage the process of relocating business operations to an alternate facility.

  • To create a communication strategy for notifying stakeholders during a crisis.

  • To restore an organization's IT systems and data after a disaster.