00:20:00

CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

In the context of cybersecurity, what does the concept of 'Threat Scope Reduction' primarily involve?

  • Utilizing a security model that trusts all internal systems and requires strict verification for external entities only.

  • Responding to security incidents after they occur by developing a comprehensive incident response plan.

  • Encrypting all data in transit and at rest to ensure confidentiality and integrity.

  • Minimizing the number of potential threats to an information system by limiting the attack surface and properly segmenting the network.

Question 2 of 20

When allowing internal clients to browse external web sites, an administrator creates an outbound rule on a stateful firewall permitting TCP traffic to destination port 80. Which of the following best describes what must be configured to allow the return traffic from the web servers?

  • Open an inbound rule for the client's ephemeral port range to permit the returning packets.

  • Create a matching inbound rule on TCP port 80 so that responses from the web server are permitted.

  • No additional inbound rule is required; the firewall tracks the session and automatically allows the return traffic.

  • An inbound rule is only required if the connection uses UDP instead of TCP.

Question 3 of 20

What is the purpose of a security key in multifactor authentication?

  • An application on a user's device that sends a verification code via SMS messages.

  • A physical device that, when presented, serves as a second factor by verifying the user's possession.

  • An algorithm embedded within the user's computer that generates one-time passwords.

  • A software tool that records the keystroke dynamics of a user for continuous authentication.

Question 4 of 20

Which of the following BEST describes how an organization should manage security risk associated with a third-party vendor after the contract has been signed?

  • Rely solely on service-level agreements and accept residual risk without further monitoring.

  • Perform the due-diligence review only at onboarding; reassess the vendor again only if a security incident occurs.

  • Delegate all risk monitoring to the vendor's internal audit function and review their reports annually without independent verification.

  • Conduct an initial due-diligence review, then implement ongoing monitoring and periodic reassessments throughout the relationship.

Question 5 of 20

To comply with a new security policy, an organization must guarantee that only explicitly approved software can execute on its high-value database servers. The security team configures the host operating systems so that every process is blocked by default unless the executable appears on a predefined list of trusted applications. Which type of control does this configuration implement?

  • Discretionary access control (DAC)

  • Role-based access control (RBAC)

  • Allow list (application allowlisting)

  • Deny list (application denylisting)

Question 6 of 20

During a quarterly audit, a company's technology oversight committee uncovers that certain staff members have been utilizing a third-party cloud storage service to share large project files, bypassing the established enterprise content management system due to its upload limitations. This third-party service was not evaluated or sanctioned by the company's technology governance policies. What does this scenario primarily illustrate?

  • External cloud service compromise

  • Unauthorized access

  • Policy violation

  • Shadow IT

Question 7 of 20

A corporation is implementing a system that necessitates a secure method for numerous users to encrypt and decrypt documents using a common key. It is imperative that the method ensures the safety of the key even when dispersed amongst an extensive user base. Which encryption approach is the most suitable for this situation?

  • Deploying symmetric encryption with a singular shared secret key.

  • Applying a one-way cryptographic hash function to encrypt data.

  • Using a Key Agreement Protocol to establish a shared secret key among users.

  • Implementing asymmetric encryption utilizing distinct and separate keys.

  • Utilizing a dedicated encryption device for generating and storing keys.

Question 8 of 20

As the security analyst for a financial institution, you uncover repeated failed login attempts against a user account during off-hours. The source addresses resolve to a country where the company has no employees or offices. Based on the threat-actor attribute of location, which type of actor is most likely responsible?

  • An unskilled attacker (script kiddie) located on the internal network

  • Shadow IT personnel using unapproved cloud services

  • An external threat actor operating outside the organization

  • An insider threat from a current employee with authorized access

Question 9 of 20

During a routine update, an IT administrator accidentally overwrites crucial configuration files, causing incorrect data to be displayed to users. Which fundamental security principle is most impacted by this incident?

  • Authentication

  • Availability

  • Confidentiality

  • Integrity

Question 10 of 20

A company wants to limit access to its systems to users connecting from certain countries to comply with regional regulations. Which of the following methods would BEST achieve this?

  • Enforcing strong authentication protocols

  • Deploying endpoint security software

  • Implementing geolocation-based access controls

  • Utilizing encryption for all data in transit

Question 11 of 20

A company with operations in multiple countries is developing its security policies. Which of the following should it consider to ensure compliance across all its international locations?

  • Using a one-size-fits-all security approach

  • Centralizing all security decisions at headquarters

  • Implementing region-specific security policies

  • Ignoring local regulations in favor of national laws

Question 12 of 20

A development team seeks a method to deploy applications in a lightweight, portable manner that ensures consistency across multiple environments. Which of the following technologies allows them to package applications with their dependencies in isolated environments?

  • Serverless computing

  • Virtualization

  • Containerization

  • Microservices

Question 13 of 20

A system administrator has deployed a new tool to monitor system files for unauthorized changes on a set of critical servers. After configuring the tool, the administrator needs to determine the optimal strategy for maintaining system integrity. Which of the following approaches would be most effective in meeting this goal?

  • Configure the monitoring tool to rely on user reports of unauthorized file changes.

  • Implement automatic comparisons of file states against a trusted baseline at regular intervals.

  • Set up alerts to notify the administrator of any changes in the size of the monitored files only.

  • Set up the tool to allow only manual integrity checks during scheduled maintenance windows.

Question 14 of 20

In the process of updating the contingency plans to address potential infrastructure failures, what should management prioritize to ensure essential system functions are restored within an optimal timeframe after an unforeseen outage occurs?

  • Keeping a detailed record of equipment and software versions.

  • Harmonizing the procedural manual with the prevalent statutory requirements.

  • Setting specific deadlines for restoring vital operations.

  • Creating a schedule for regular data archiving and retrieval tests.

Question 15 of 20

During business continuity planning, an organization decides it needs an alternate facility that can assume full production processing within minutes of a disaster because it is already equipped with compatible hardware, software, network connectivity, and up-to-date data. Which type of disaster-recovery site best satisfies this requirement?

  • Mobile site

  • Hot site

  • Cold site

  • Warm site

Question 16 of 20

Which role is primarily responsible for determining the classifications of data and ensuring that it is handled in accordance with organizational policies?

  • Owner

  • Controller

  • Custodian

  • Processor

Question 17 of 20

During a penetration test, what term best describes an environment where the tester has no prior knowledge of the target system or network?

  • Unknown Environment

  • White Box Environment

  • Reconnaissance Environment

  • Partially Known Environment

Question 18 of 20

A system administrator has been tasked with securing data at rest for a company's document storage server, ensuring maximum confidentiality. Which of the following solutions would be the MOST appropriate to accomplish this task?

  • Utilize a VPN with robust encryption for accessing documents remotely.

  • Ensure Secure Socket Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS) is enabled on the server.

  • Encrypt each document individually with a unique key.

  • Implement full disk encryption on the document storage server drive.

Question 19 of 20

Which statement about using standardized vulnerability severity scores (for example, the CVSS Base score) to determine patch-remediation priority is MOST accurate for an organization?

  • Combining the score with an up-to-date asset inventory is always enough; additional threat-intelligence data is unnecessary.

  • The score is a useful starting point, but asset criticality, exploit likelihood, and business impact must also be assessed before setting priorities.

  • Relying only on the standardized numerical score is sufficient; patches should be applied strictly in descending score order.

  • The score can be ignored entirely; patch priority should be based only on how recently the vendor released the patch.

Question 20 of 20

A domain's DNS includes the record 'v=spf1 -all', suggesting that emails can originate from any mail server, and thus, messages should be assumed legitimate regardless of the originating mail server.

  • True

  • False