00:20:00

CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

Which of the following best describes data that is currently being processed by an application, thereby making it active in a system's memory?

  • Data in transit

  • Data at rest

  • Data in use

  • Archived data

Question 2 of 20

Which of the following types of tests best describes a scenario where participants walk through the steps of various disaster recovery procedures without actually performing any recovery operations?

  • Failover

  • Tabletop exercise

  • Parallel processing

  • Simulation

Question 3 of 20

An organization needs to guarantee that employees cannot deny sending electronic documents they have authored. Which of the following technologies BEST fulfills this requirement?

  • Implementing digital signatures

  • Applying hashing algorithms to documents

  • Encrypting documents with a symmetric key

  • Requiring strong authentication methods

Question 4 of 20

An organization is planning to deploy a web application that expects high volumes of traffic. To ensure that client requests are handled efficiently and to prevent any single server from being overwhelmed, which device should be implemented at the front-end of the server farm to distribute incoming network traffic?

  • Load balancer

  • Jump server

  • Proxy server

  • Firewall

  • Intrusion detection system (IDS)

Question 5 of 20

During an authorized penetration test, you uncovered a server susceptible to an injection attack. To proceed according to best practices, what step should be taken before attempting to exploit this vulnerability?

  • Review the rules of engagement and testing scope to ensure that exploitation of the vulnerability does not exceed authorized activities.

  • Immediately exploit the vulnerability to determine the impact without altering any data on the server.

  • Inform the organization's IT department about the vulnerability, requesting permission to exploit it.

  • Document the vulnerability in detail and continue testing other areas, leaving exploitation for the final phase.

Question 6 of 20

A corporation with a large number of Internet of Things (IoT) devices deployed across multiple office locations is reviewing its security architecture to address concerns regarding the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data collected by these devices. Which of the following security approaches would BEST mitigate this risk?

  • Enable full disk encryption on all IoT devices to protect data at rest.

  • Implement network segmentation to restrict IoT traffic to a dedicated portion of the network.

  • Enable a host-based firewall on each IoT device to prevent unauthorized access.

  • Require multi-factor authentication for all users accessing the IoT devices.

Question 7 of 20

During a post-incident review meeting, a security analyst is tasked with improving the incident response process based on recent events. Which of the following actions would BEST ensure a positive impact on future incident response capabilities?

  • Conducting a review of historical incident trends without making changes to existing procedures.

  • Updating the Incident Response Plan with specific improvements identified from the incident.

  • Revising all security training materials without assessing their relevance to the incident.

  • Deciding that the existing Incident Response Plan is sufficient since the incident was eventually contained.

Question 8 of 20

A company is revising its strategic plan and wants to balance its growth objectives with its information security risks. The company seeks neither to aggressively pursue risk for potential gains nor to minimize risk at the expense of new opportunities. Which of the following best describes the company's risk strategy?

  • The company strictly minimizes any potential security risks, even if it means passing on potentially lucrative opportunities.

  • The company is adopting a neutral risk strategy to support steady growth while efficiently managing security risks.

  • The company assesses security risks on a case-by-case basis, with no predefined strategy towards risk.

  • The company is aggressively expanding into new markets, often prioritizing potential gains over the strict management of information security risks.

Question 9 of 20

A large multinational corporation is experiencing a persistent wave of cyber-attacks characterized by website defacements and data leaks. These incidents are accompanied by messages expressing opposition to the corporation's involvement in various international projects. What type of threat actor is most likely responsible for these activities?

  • Insider threat

  • Hacktivist

  • Nation-state

  • Organized crime

Question 10 of 20

Which of the following best describes how a modern software supply chain attack typically gains initial access to its victims?

  • Launching a direct distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack against the organization's public web servers.

  • Physically stealing network switches from the data center to intercept traffic.

  • Exploiting a critical vulnerability in internally developed source code after breaching the organization's perimeter firewall.

  • Compromising a trusted third-party vendor or service provider so that malicious code is distributed to downstream customers.

Question 11 of 20

A company is implementing a web content filtering solution to prevent employees from accessing undesirable websites during work hours. What is the BEST approach that the company should employ to ensure maximum effectiveness of the filtering solution?

  • Depending on employees to self-categorize and avoid undesired content

  • Using a localized hosts file on each computer to block specific website IPs

  • Distributing client-side browser extensions to categorize and block content

  • Implementing a centralized proxy for content categorization and filtering

Question 12 of 20

During an incident response, an organization has identified an infected workstation that is part of a botnet and is communicating with external command and control servers. What is the BEST immediate action to contain this threat?

  • Change access controls on the infected workstation

  • Perform a vulnerability scan to identify the infected workstation

  • Isolate the infected workstation from the network

  • Capture network traffic to analyze the communication with the command and control servers

Question 13 of 20

A healthcare company needs to ensure the privacy of its patients' health records. When considering the deployment of a new online patient portal, which measure is most effective for protecting the privacy of health records that are accessed and transmitted through the portal?

  • Encrypting data in transit

  • Applying data masking techniques to the records before storage

  • Requiring multi-factor authentication for user access to the portal

  • Implementing geographic restrictions on where the health records can be accessed

Question 14 of 20

An employee's workstation is exhibiting abnormal behavior, including slow system performance and excessive network traffic. A thorough analysis reveals software that is covertly monitoring user activities and transmitting data to an external entity. Which of the following BEST describes the software's classification?

  • Antivirus software

  • Trojan

  • Adware

  • Spyware

Question 15 of 20

An employee receives a phone call from an individual claiming to be a member of the IT department's security audit team. The caller explains that due to a recent security incident, they are verifying all user credentials. The caller uses a professional tone, refers to a non-existent ticket number, and asks the employee to provide their username and password for verification. Which social engineering technique does this scenario BEST describe?

  • Pretexting

  • Watering hole

  • Smishing

  • Phishing

Question 16 of 20

An organization wishes to scrutinize network traffic to detect anomalies, like substantial data transfers during off-peak hours. Which solution is most fitting for generating insights into such network traffic behaviors?

  • Antivirus software, designed to detect, prevent, and remove malware,

  • NetFlow, a network protocol for collecting IP traffic information and monitoring network flow,

  • Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution, a comprehensive approach to security management that aggregates and analyzes security events,

  • Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps, a protocol used for managing network equipment and handling event notifications,

Question 17 of 20

Which of the following measures is MOST effective in preventing vehicular access to a facility’s entrances?

  • Access control vestibule

  • Fencing

  • Bollards

  • Security guard

Question 18 of 20

What is the primary purpose of maintaining evidence from internal audits within a company's security governance framework?

  • To serve as a replacement for annual external audits by providing a sufficient level of assurance

  • To increase transparency with external stakeholders and the public regarding internal security practices

  • To document findings and actions taken, which supports the accountability and effectiveness of the audits

  • To advertise the company's security posture and capabilities to potential clients and customers

Question 19 of 20

An organization needs to securely establish encryption keys with external partners over the internet without any prior shared secrets. Which cryptographic method BEST facilitates this secure key establishment?

  • Diffie-Hellman algorithm

  • MD5 hashing algorithm

  • Symmetric key distribution

  • RSA digital signatures

Question 20 of 20

As a security analyst in a large organization, you are responsible for establishing a secure baseline configuration for new Windows and Linux servers being deployed in the data center. What is the primary reason for creating this secure baseline?

  • To provide a guide for troubleshooting server issues by the technical support team.

  • To allow easy identification of servers in the network diagram and asset management database.

  • To ensure that all systems start from a known state of security and configurations that address security concerns.

  • To document the standard administrative practices and server maintenance procedures.