CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which of the following best describes data that is currently being processed by an application, thereby making it active in a system's memory?
Data in transit
Data at rest
Data in use
Archived data
Answer Description
'Data in use' refers to data actively processed within system memory (RAM) by applications or services. It is typically in a decrypted state and therefore vulnerable to exploitation, such as malware or unauthorized access. Security strategies must be tailored to address these risks, differing from those for 'Data at rest' or 'Data in transit'.
Ask Bash
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What does 'data in use' mean in the context of cybersecurity?
Why is data in use more vulnerable than data at rest or in transit?
What strategies can be implemented to secure data in use?
Which of the following types of tests best describes a scenario where participants walk through the steps of various disaster recovery procedures without actually performing any recovery operations?
Failover
Tabletop exercise
Parallel processing
Simulation
Answer Description
A tabletop exercise is a type of test where participants verbally walk through the steps of various emergency scenarios and disaster recovery procedures. It is designed to test the theoretical response to a disaster, ensuring that all individuals know their roles and responsibilities, without actually performing any recovery operations or disrupting the current operations. Other options, such as simulation and failover, involve more active engagement with systems or demonstration of the disaster recovery process.
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What exactly is a tabletop exercise?
What are some benefits of conducting a tabletop exercise?
How does a tabletop exercise differ from a simulation?
An organization needs to guarantee that employees cannot deny sending electronic documents they have authored. Which of the following technologies BEST fulfills this requirement?
Implementing digital signatures
Applying hashing algorithms to documents
Encrypting documents with a symmetric key
Requiring strong authentication methods
Answer Description
Digital signatures use asymmetric encryption to associate a sender's identity with a document uniquely. This provides non-repudiation by ensuring that the sender cannot deny authoring the document, and the recipient can verify its authenticity. Strong authentication verifies user identities but does not prevent users from denying their actions. Hashing ensures data integrity but does not link actions to specific users. Encryption protects data confidentiality but does not provide proof of the sender's identity.
Ask Bash
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What are digital signatures and how do they work?
What is non-repudiation and why is it important in electronic communications?
How do digital signatures differ from traditional handwritten signatures?
An organization is planning to deploy a web application that expects high volumes of traffic. To ensure that client requests are handled efficiently and to prevent any single server from being overwhelmed, which device should be implemented at the front-end of the server farm to distribute incoming network traffic?
Load balancer
Jump server
Proxy server
Firewall
Intrusion detection system (IDS)
Answer Description
A load balancer is used to spread requests across multiple servers to optimize resource use, maximize throughput, reduce response time, and avoid overload on any single server. By distributing the load, the load balancer helps ensure that the web application remains highly available and reliable to users. While a jump server provides secure administrative access to servers from a single point, an intrusion detection system monitors network traffic for malicious activities, a firewall controls incoming and outgoing traffic based on security rules, and a proxy server acts as an intermediary for requests. None of these devices specifically distribute network traffic among multiple servers like a load balancer does.
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What are the different types of load balancers?
How does a load balancer improve web application performance?
What other devices can work together with load balancers?
During an authorized penetration test, you uncovered a server susceptible to an injection attack. To proceed according to best practices, what step should be taken before attempting to exploit this vulnerability?
Review the rules of engagement and testing scope to ensure that exploitation of the vulnerability does not exceed authorized activities.
Immediately exploit the vulnerability to determine the impact without altering any data on the server.
Inform the organization's IT department about the vulnerability, requesting permission to exploit it.
Document the vulnerability in detail and continue testing other areas, leaving exploitation for the final phase.
Answer Description
Before proceeding with exploitation, it is crucial to review the agreed-upon rules of engagement and scope of work. This ensures that actions taken during a penetration test are within legal and authorized boundaries, safeguarding the tester from legal repercussions and the target system from unauthorized modification or damage.
Ask Bash
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What are rules of engagement in penetration testing?
What is a penetration test and why is it important?
What is an injection attack and how can it be tested for?
A corporation with a large number of Internet of Things (IoT) devices deployed across multiple office locations is reviewing its security architecture to address concerns regarding the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data collected by these devices. Which of the following security approaches would BEST mitigate this risk?
Enable full disk encryption on all IoT devices to protect data at rest.
Implement network segmentation to restrict IoT traffic to a dedicated portion of the network.
Enable a host-based firewall on each IoT device to prevent unauthorized access.
Require multi-factor authentication for all users accessing the IoT devices.
Answer Description
Implementing network segmentation would be the most effective at mitigating the risk as it restricts the traffic between the IoT devices and the rest of the network, reducing the potential attack surface and the chance of an attacker reaching sensitive data if the IoT devices are compromised. While full disk encryption is important for data at rest, it doesn't address the transmission or collection of data. Enabling a host-based firewall on IoT devices may not be feasible due to their limited computing resources and wouldn't protect against attacks exploiting the IoT network itself. Requiring multi-factor authentication (MFA) improves the security of user accounts, but it does not specifically address the issue of securing sensitive data collected by IoT devices from network-based threats.
Ask Bash
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What is network segmentation and how does it improve security?
Why is full disk encryption not sufficient for securing IoT devices?
What are the limitations of using host-based firewalls on IoT devices?
During a post-incident review meeting, a security analyst is tasked with improving the incident response process based on recent events. Which of the following actions would BEST ensure a positive impact on future incident response capabilities?
Conducting a review of historical incident trends without making changes to existing procedures.
Updating the Incident Response Plan with specific improvements identified from the incident.
Revising all security training materials without assessing their relevance to the incident.
Deciding that the existing Incident Response Plan is sufficient since the incident was eventually contained.
Answer Description
The correct answer involves updating the Incident Response Plan with improvements identified during the review of a recent incident. This is the best choice because it directly applies feedback from actual incidents to enhance procedures and readiness for future events. Simply reviewing historical trends or concluding that the existing plan is sufficient does not provide the iterative improvement needed for effective incident response. Updating training materials without specific reference to the improvements identified may not address the issues encountered during the incident.
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What is an Incident Response Plan (IRP)?
What are some specific improvements that can be made to an Incident Response Plan?
Why is iterative improvement important in incident response?
A company is revising its strategic plan and wants to balance its growth objectives with its information security risks. The company seeks neither to aggressively pursue risk for potential gains nor to minimize risk at the expense of new opportunities. Which of the following best describes the company's risk strategy?
The company strictly minimizes any potential security risks, even if it means passing on potentially lucrative opportunities.
The company is adopting a neutral risk strategy to support steady growth while efficiently managing security risks.
The company assesses security risks on a case-by-case basis, with no predefined strategy towards risk.
The company is aggressively expanding into new markets, often prioritizing potential gains over the strict management of information security risks.
Answer Description
An organization with a neutral risk appetite is one that seeks to maintain a balance between accepting some levels of risk and pursuing new opportunities, without skewing too far towards either risk aversion or risk seeking. Choice A best aligns with this balanced approach, whereas the other options suggest either a greater willingness to take on risk (expansionary) or a more conservative stance (conservative) that minimizes risk exposure.
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What does a neutral risk strategy entail?
What are the implications of having a neutral risk appetite?
How does a neutral risk strategy differ from risk aversion and risk seeking?
A large multinational corporation is experiencing a persistent wave of cyber-attacks characterized by website defacements and data leaks. These incidents are accompanied by messages expressing opposition to the corporation's involvement in various international projects. What type of threat actor is most likely responsible for these activities?
Insider threat
Hacktivist
Nation-state
Organized crime
Answer Description
The correct answer is Hacktivist. Hacktivists are often motivated by philosophical or political beliefs, which lead them to target organizations or governments that they perceive as acting against their values or agendas. The nature of these attacks, including website defacements and public message spreads, are typical of hacktivist groups that aim to broadcast a political message or to create awareness about their cause. The other options listed do not align as closely with the details given.
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What motivates hacktivists to carry out cyber-attacks?
What are some common tactics used by hacktivists?
How do hacktivists differ from other threat actors like organized crime and nation-states?
Which of the following best describes how a modern software supply chain attack typically gains initial access to its victims?
Launching a direct distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack against the organization's public web servers.
Physically stealing network switches from the data center to intercept traffic.
Exploiting a critical vulnerability in internally developed source code after breaching the organization's perimeter firewall.
Compromising a trusted third-party vendor or service provider so that malicious code is distributed to downstream customers.
Answer Description
Supply chain attacks usually start by breaching a trusted third-party vendor or service provider and inserting malicious code or components into software or updates that are then distributed to downstream customers. Because the update appears to originate from a legitimate, trusted source, traditional perimeter and host defenses inside the customer's environment often fail to detect the compromise. Attacks that target only an organization's internally developed code, physical theft of hardware, or direct DDoS assaults do not fit the definition of a supply chain attack.
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What are supply chain attacks?
Why do attackers target third-party vendors?
What can organizations do to mitigate supply chain risks?
A company is implementing a web content filtering solution to prevent employees from accessing undesirable websites during work hours. What is the BEST approach that the company should employ to ensure maximum effectiveness of the filtering solution?
Depending on employees to self-categorize and avoid undesired content
Using a localized hosts file on each computer to block specific website IPs
Distributing client-side browser extensions to categorize and block content
Implementing a centralized proxy for content categorization and filtering
Answer Description
The correct answer is Implementing a centralized proxy for content categorization and filtering. This method is most effective as it centralizes the control over internet traffic, allowing the organization to maintain comprehensive oversight over web content access. A centralized proxy can analyze and categorize content dynamically, applying company-wide controls and filters based on the established policy. Other methods, like client-side scripting or relying solely on client configurations, do not offer the same level of centralized control and may be bypassed or require extensive individual configuration management.
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Why is a centralized proxy more effective than client-side browser extensions?
What are the benefits of content categorization in a centralized proxy?
How can a company enforce internet usage policies effectively with a centralized proxy?
During an incident response, an organization has identified an infected workstation that is part of a botnet and is communicating with external command and control servers. What is the BEST immediate action to contain this threat?
Change access controls on the infected workstation
Perform a vulnerability scan to identify the infected workstation
Isolate the infected workstation from the network
Capture network traffic to analyze the communication with the command and control servers
Answer Description
Isolating the workstation from the network is the BEST immediate action to thwart the ongoing threat, as it prevents the infected system from communicating with the command and control servers and stops further spread of the infection. Changing access controls might not be effective if the infection is propagating in other ways, and conducting a vulnerability scan or capturing network traffic does not immediately contain the threat.
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What is a botnet?
What are command and control servers?
Why is isolating the infected workstation the best option?
A healthcare company needs to ensure the privacy of its patients' health records. When considering the deployment of a new online patient portal, which measure is most effective for protecting the privacy of health records that are accessed and transmitted through the portal?
Encrypting data in transit
Applying data masking techniques to the records before storage
Requiring multi-factor authentication for user access to the portal
Implementing geographic restrictions on where the health records can be accessed
Answer Description
Encrypting data in transit is the most effective measure for protecting the privacy of health records as it prevents unauthorized parties from intercepting and reading the information as it travels over the network. While data masking and geographic restrictions are also security measures, they address different aspects of data protection and do not offer comprehensive protection for data in transit like encryption does. Multi-factor authentication is crucial for verifying user identity but does not protect the privacy of data as it is transmitted.
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What is data encryption in transit?
What are some common encryption protocols used for securing data in transit?
Why are geographic restrictions not sufficient for data privacy?
An employee's workstation is exhibiting abnormal behavior, including slow system performance and excessive network traffic. A thorough analysis reveals software that is covertly monitoring user activities and transmitting data to an external entity. Which of the following BEST describes the software's classification?
Antivirus software
Trojan
Adware
Spyware
Answer Description
The software described is classified as spyware because it monitors user activities and sends the information to an external source without the user's consent. This type of malware often leads to the symptoms mentioned, such as degraded system performance and unusual network traffic. Antivirus software typically protects against malware in general, which is not as specific as the correct answer. Adware is meant to serve ads to the user instead of monitoring behavior, while a Trojan is a type of malware that is disguised as legitimate software but performs malicious activities and does not specifically refer to the surveillance component that is central to spyware.
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What exactly does spyware do?
How does spyware differ from other types of malware?
What can be done to protect against spyware?
An employee receives a phone call from an individual claiming to be a member of the IT department's security audit team. The caller explains that due to a recent security incident, they are verifying all user credentials. The caller uses a professional tone, refers to a non-existent ticket number, and asks the employee to provide their username and password for verification. Which social engineering technique does this scenario BEST describe?
Pretexting
Watering hole
Smishing
Phishing
Answer Description
This scenario is a classic example of pretexting. Pretexting involves an attacker creating a believable, fabricated scenario (the pretext) to manipulate a victim into providing sensitive information. In this case, the pretext is a security audit by a fake IT department member. Phishing is incorrect as it typically refers to attacks via email. Smishing is incorrect as it involves attacks via SMS text messages. A watering hole attack is incorrect as it involves compromising a website that targets are known to frequent.
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What are some common examples of pretexting?
How can individuals protect themselves against pretexting?
What techniques do attackers use in pretexting?
An organization wishes to scrutinize network traffic to detect anomalies, like substantial data transfers during off-peak hours. Which solution is most fitting for generating insights into such network traffic behaviors?
Antivirus software, designed to detect, prevent, and remove malware,
NetFlow, a network protocol for collecting IP traffic information and monitoring network flow,
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution, a comprehensive approach to security management that aggregates and analyzes security events,
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps, a protocol used for managing network equipment and handling event notifications,
Answer Description
The best solution for generating insights into network traffic patterns is NetFlow, because it collects detailed information about the data flows within the network, including source, destination, and volume of data, which is key for detecting irregular large data transfers occurring after standard operational hours. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps are typically used for real-time event notification and not for in-depth traffic analysis. A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution centralizes security alerts and logs but does not inherently provide the detailed network flow analysis characteristic of NetFlow. While antivirus software protects against malware, it does not offer network traffic pattern analysis and therefore would not be an effective tool for this particular requirement.
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What is NetFlow and how does it work?
How does NetFlow differ from SNMP?
What types of insights can be gained from analyzing NetFlow data?
Which of the following measures is MOST effective in preventing vehicular access to a facility’s entrances?
Access control vestibule
Fencing
Bollards
Security guard
Answer Description
Bollards are designed to stop vehicles from entering restricted or sensitive areas, providing a high level of security against vehicular threats. They are often used at the perimeter of sensitive buildings to prevent potential attacks from vehicles. Fencing can deter or delay intruders but is less effective at stopping vehicles. Access control vestibules are more about managing individual access and less about vehicular threats. Security guards can be effective but may not be able to physically stop a vehicle without additional barriers like bollards.
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What are bollards and how do they work?
What situations are bollards most useful in?
How do bollards compare to other security measures like fencing or security guards?
What is the primary purpose of maintaining evidence from internal audits within a company's security governance framework?
To serve as a replacement for annual external audits by providing a sufficient level of assurance
To increase transparency with external stakeholders and the public regarding internal security practices
To document findings and actions taken, which supports the accountability and effectiveness of the audits
To advertise the company's security posture and capabilities to potential clients and customers
Answer Description
Maintaining evidence from internal audits serves to verify that audits were conducted properly and to ensure accountability. It also provides a historical record that can be used for future reference or legal purposes. Documentation supports the findings and actions taken and is essential for demonstrating compliance with regulatory standards.
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Why is accountability important in the context of internal audits?
What are some regulatory standards that necessitate maintaining evidence from internal audits?
How can internal audit evidence support a company during legal proceedings?
An organization needs to securely establish encryption keys with external partners over the internet without any prior shared secrets. Which cryptographic method BEST facilitates this secure key establishment?
Diffie-Hellman algorithm
MD5 hashing algorithm
Symmetric key distribution
RSA digital signatures
Answer Description
The Diffie-Hellman algorithm is specifically designed for secure key exchange over insecure channels without requiring prior shared secrets. It enables two parties to independently generate a shared secret key, which can then be used for symmetric encryption. Symmetric key distribution assumes that keys are already shared or delivered securely, which doesn't address the need to establish keys without prior arrangement. RSA digital signatures provide authentication and integrity but are not primarily used for key establishment. MD5 is a hashing algorithm used for data integrity verification, not for key exchange or encryption key establishment.
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How does the Diffie-Hellman algorithm actually work?
What is the difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption?
Why are RSA digital signatures not suitable for key exchange?
As a security analyst in a large organization, you are responsible for establishing a secure baseline configuration for new Windows and Linux servers being deployed in the data center. What is the primary reason for creating this secure baseline?
To provide a guide for troubleshooting server issues by the technical support team.
To allow easy identification of servers in the network diagram and asset management database.
To ensure that all systems start from a known state of security and configurations that address security concerns.
To document the standard administrative practices and server maintenance procedures.
Answer Description
The primary reason for establishing a secure baseline configuration is to ensure that all systems start from a known state of security, with a consistent set of configurations that address security concerns. This makes it easier to manage, automate, and enforce security settings across multiple systems, reducing the likelihood of misconfigurations that could lead to vulnerabilities.
Ask Bash
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What are the key components of a secure baseline configuration?
How do you document and maintain a secure baseline?
What are the risks of not having a secure baseline configuration?
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