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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A security analyst is concerned about the risk of VM escape attacks in the company's virtualized datacenter. Which of the following strategies provides the most comprehensive mitigation against this type of vulnerability?

  • Deploying host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) on all guest virtual machines.

  • Encrypting all data-at-rest on the virtual machines' storage volumes.

  • Exclusively using process isolation to separate the guest VM from the host's kernel.

  • A defense-in-depth approach, including keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched, implementing strict access controls, and network segmentation.

Question 2 of 20

During a quarterly risk assessment, the IT manager notes that several web servers are regularly exposed to unauthorized traffic in the DMZ. She recommends deploying a next-generation firewall that will block malicious packets before they reach the servers. This firewall is an example of which type of security control?

  • A control that identifies and responds to security incidents after they have occurred.

  • A control that stops a security incident or attack from happening before it can cause harm.

  • A control that substitutes for a primary control when it is not feasible or practical to implement.

  • A control that directs the actions of individuals or systems to maintain security.

Question 3 of 20

An organization's IT security team needs to roll out a significant software update across all employee workstations. To reduce the impact on daily operations, they want to implement the update during a period of low user activity. Which component of the change management process should they refer to for scheduling this update?

  • Test results

  • Backout plan

  • Maintenance window

  • Impact analysis

Question 4 of 20

A corporation is formalizing a partnership with an external vendor to detail the expected quality and delivery of IT services, which includes commitments on uptime and the promptness of customer support. Which agreement explicitly defines these expectations and associated performance metrics?

  • Master Service Agreement

  • Memorandum of Agreement

  • Non-Disclosure Agreement

  • Memorandum of Understanding

  • Service-Level Agreement

  • Business Partners Agreement

Question 5 of 20

What type of security exercise involves a discussion-based activity where team members analyze and resolve hypothetical scenarios to enhance cybersecurity preparedness?

  • Tabletop exercise

  • Simulation

  • Fire drill

  • Automated report training

Question 6 of 20

The security team at a multinational corporation has been alerted to a potential vulnerability that affects multiple operating systems. This vulnerability allows remote attackers to execute arbitrary code on affected systems. To address this concern swiftly, the team must reference a categorized list of known vulnerabilities. Which resource should they use to find the detailed information about this vulnerability?

  • CERT Coordination Center

  • National Vulnerability Database (NVD)

  • Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

  • Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP)

Question 7 of 20

Which feature of an Intrusion Detection/Prevention System (IDS/IPS) is leveraged to provide up-to-date capabilities in detecting and preventing the latest known attack vectors?

  • Configuration changes

  • Rule adjustments

  • Novel software updates

  • Signature updates

Question 8 of 20

Which of the following best defines the role of an owner within the context of systems and data governance?

  • Personnel who physically interact with the data on a daily basis, ensuring its accuracy and integrity.

  • An individual or entity that has approved management responsibility for controlling the production, development, maintenance, use, and security of assets.

  • Third-party service providers who process data on behalf of the data owner or controller.

  • Teams responsible for performing regular audits and compliance checks on data management practices.

Question 9 of 20

What term is used to define the legal concept that data is governed by the laws of the nation in which it is stored?

  • Data custodianship

  • Data sovereignty

  • Data retention

  • Data governance

Question 10 of 20

An organization intends to deploy an appliance capable of enhancing its telecommuting capabilities. The device must be adept at managing a large number of secure, authenticated connections, ensuring data integrity and confidentiality. Which network appliance should be implemented to meet these demands most efficiently?

  • Load Balancer

  • Remote Access Server (RAS)

  • Content Filtering Appliance

  • Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)

Question 11 of 20

A security analyst is tasked with implementing a solution to receive timely data on emerging malware, malicious IP addresses, and known vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST fulfill this requirement?

  • A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system

  • A security baseline

  • A threat feed

  • A vulnerability scanner

Question 12 of 20

An organization must transmit sensitive payroll data over the public Internet to a cloud-based payroll service. Because a dedicated private circuit is not financially possible, the security team looks for another measure that will still ensure confidentiality and integrity of the data in transit. Which of the following BEST fits the definition of a compensating control in this situation?

  • Require administrators to complete additional security-awareness training

  • Review firewall and application logs on a daily basis

  • Establish an IPsec-based VPN tunnel for the transmission

  • Schedule quarterly external penetration tests

Question 13 of 20

Within an organization's information security governance framework, what is the primary responsibility of a security or risk committee?

  • To perform vulnerability assessments, penetration tests, and corrective remediation

  • To set information security strategy, endorse policies, and provide ongoing oversight of the program

  • To draft detailed runbooks and standard operating procedures for configuring security devices

  • To staff the security operations center and handle real-time alert triage

Question 14 of 20

During the analysis phase after a vulnerability scan, a security administrator is preparing a report for the management team. Which element would BEST assist in the risk prioritization of the findings?

  • Categorize the vulnerabilities based on the part of the network infrastructure they affect.

  • Present the findings using a standardized severity rating to assess the risk level of the vulnerabilities.

  • Focus on vulnerabilities that have been exploited in the wild and which could lead to potential data loss.

  • Group vulnerabilities by the operating system of the affected devices for clarity.

Question 15 of 20

During a recent change management meeting, it was determined that a critical software update needs to be deployed to address a known vulnerability. What step should be taken first to ensure the update aligns with the organization's security policies and operational integrity?

  • Consult the stakeholders

  • Conduct an impact analysis

  • Review the backout plan

  • Update the security policies/procedures

Question 16 of 20

Which of the following best describes the concept of availability in the context of high availability systems?

  • The capability of a system to facilitate the immediate processing of data inputs and outputs

  • The ability of a system to quickly restore operations and functionality following an outage

  • The assurance that systems and services are reliable and can operate without excessive downtime

  • A security measure that involves ensuring a computer or network is physically isolated from other networks

Question 17 of 20

An employee in the finance department of a multinational corporation has just resigned after being passed over for a promotion. The next day, the company's network experiences an unauthorized transfer of proprietary financial data to an external server. Which motivation is most likely to be the cause behind this incident?

  • Financial gain

  • Espionage

  • Philosophical/political beliefs

  • Revenge

Question 18 of 20

Which network appliance is primarily used to balance traffic among multiple servers to enhance performance and scalability?

  • Jump server

  • Proxy server

  • Load balancer

  • Intrusion prevention system (IPS)/intrusion detection system (IDS)

Question 19 of 20

A developer is writing code for a new application and wants to implement controls to prevent buffer overflow attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the role of input validation in this context?

  • It is primarily used to prevent SQL injection and is not an effective control for buffer overflows.

  • It is only effective for client-side protection and cannot prevent server-side buffer overflow attacks.

  • It completely mitigates the risk of buffer overflow vulnerabilities, making other protections redundant.

  • It is a primary defense mechanism but should be combined with other techniques like bounds checking and runtime protections for comprehensive security.

Question 20 of 20

Which factor is a direct financial consideration when assessing the implementation of a new security control within an organization?

  • Total cost of ownership

  • Time to remediate vulnerabilities

  • Time-to-market

  • Number of users supported