CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A security analyst is concerned about the risk of VM escape attacks in the company's virtualized datacenter. Which of the following strategies provides the most comprehensive mitigation against this type of vulnerability?
Deploying host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) on all guest virtual machines.
Encrypting all data-at-rest on the virtual machines' storage volumes.
Exclusively using process isolation to separate the guest VM from the host's kernel.
A defense-in-depth approach, including keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched, implementing strict access controls, and network segmentation.
Answer Description
While process isolation is the fundamental mechanism that prevents VM escape, it is not foolproof, as vulnerabilities in the hypervisor can still be exploited. A comprehensive, defense-in-depth strategy is the most effective approach. This includes keeping both the hypervisor and guest operating systems fully patched, using network segmentation to limit an attacker's reach, and applying the principle of least privilege through strict access controls. HIDS on guest VMs and data encryption are valuable security layers, but they do not directly prevent the hypervisor compromise that enables a VM escape.
Ask Bash
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What is VM escape?
Why is keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched critical to prevent VM escape?
How does network segmentation help mitigate VM escape risks?
During a quarterly risk assessment, the IT manager notes that several web servers are regularly exposed to unauthorized traffic in the DMZ. She recommends deploying a next-generation firewall that will block malicious packets before they reach the servers. This firewall is an example of which type of security control?
A control that identifies and responds to security incidents after they have occurred.
A control that stops a security incident or attack from happening before it can cause harm.
A control that substitutes for a primary control when it is not feasible or practical to implement.
A control that directs the actions of individuals or systems to maintain security.
Answer Description
Deploying a firewall to block unwanted traffic is preventive because it acts before an attack succeeds. Preventive controls reduce the likelihood of an incident by denying, restricting, or filtering actions up front. Detective controls only discover an event that has already happened, directive controls provide guidance, and compensating controls are alternatives when a primary safeguard is impractical.
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What is a next-generation firewall (NGFW)?
What is a DMZ and why is it used in networking?
What are the key differences between preventive, detective, directive, and compensating controls?
An organization's IT security team needs to roll out a significant software update across all employee workstations. To reduce the impact on daily operations, they want to implement the update during a period of low user activity. Which component of the change management process should they refer to for scheduling this update?
Test results
Backout plan
Maintenance window
Impact analysis
Answer Description
The maintenance window is the specified time frame designated for implementing changes and updates with minimal disruption to users. By referring to the maintenance window, the IT team can schedule the software update during a period when system usage is low. The backout plan outlines steps to reverse a change if issues arise, impact analysis assesses the potential effects of the change on the organization, and test results provide information on the outcomes of testing but do not assist in scheduling.
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What is a maintenance window?
Why is it important to schedule changes during low user activity?
How is a maintenance window determined in an organization?
A corporation is formalizing a partnership with an external vendor to detail the expected quality and delivery of IT services, which includes commitments on uptime and the promptness of customer support. Which agreement explicitly defines these expectations and associated performance metrics?
Master Service Agreement
Memorandum of Agreement
Non-Disclosure Agreement
Memorandum of Understanding
Service-Level Agreement
Business Partners Agreement
Answer Description
The correct answer is the Service-Level Agreement. A Service-Level Agreement is a formal document that outlines the expected level of service provided by a vendor, including measurable performance metrics like uptime and response times. Memoranda of Agreement and Memoranda of Understanding typically document more general cooperation or mutual intent between parties without delving into specific service metrics. A Master Service Agreement establishes a contractual framework that might not detail service metrics, which are often found in subsequent work orders or statements of work. A Non-Disclosure Agreement is focused on confidentiality of information and does not relate to service performance criteria. A Business Partners Agreement is similar in some respects but is not primarily concerned with specific service delivery metrics like response times or system availability.
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What are the key components of an SLA?
How does an SLA differ from a Master Service Agreement (MSA)?
How can organizations ensure SLAs are being met?
What type of security exercise involves a discussion-based activity where team members analyze and resolve hypothetical scenarios to enhance cybersecurity preparedness?
Tabletop exercise
Simulation
Fire drill
Automated report training
Answer Description
A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based activity where members of an organization, including IT and management teams, analyze and resolve hypothetical situations. This type of training is valuable as it allows team members to think through the policies, procedures, and roles they would play during a real event without the pressure of an actual emergency. Such exercises are critical for improving an organization's incident response and establishing a culture of security awareness. They differ from simulations, which are hands-on practices that often involve the actual use of technology to respond to a mock incident, and from fire drills, which are physical evacuation practices.
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Why are tabletop exercises important for cybersecurity preparedness?
How does a tabletop exercise differ from a simulation in cybersecurity training?
What key roles should participate in a cybersecurity tabletop exercise?
The security team at a multinational corporation has been alerted to a potential vulnerability that affects multiple operating systems. This vulnerability allows remote attackers to execute arbitrary code on affected systems. To address this concern swiftly, the team must reference a categorized list of known vulnerabilities. Which resource should they use to find the detailed information about this vulnerability?
CERT Coordination Center
National Vulnerability Database (NVD)
Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP)
Answer Description
The correct answer is the National Vulnerability Database (NVD) because it is a comprehensive database where CVE details are cataloged and can be searched. The CVE identifier would provide a standardized reference for the vulnerability in question, allowing the security team to access the details they need to begin assessing the impact and planning their response. The CERT Coordination Center deals with coordinating responses to security incidents, not cataloging CVEs. The Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) focuses on improving software security, specifically for web applications, and does not serve as a database for CVEs. The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) develops and promotes voluntary internet standards and protocols, but does not manage a database of vulnerabilities.
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What is the National Vulnerability Database (NVD)?
What is a CVE, and why is it important?
How does the NVD help organizations prioritize responses to vulnerabilities?
Which feature of an Intrusion Detection/Prevention System (IDS/IPS) is leveraged to provide up-to-date capabilities in detecting and preventing the latest known attack vectors?
Configuration changes
Rule adjustments
Novel software updates
Signature updates
Answer Description
Signature updates in an IDS/IPS are vital to maintain the system's effectiveness against new threats. As attack methodologies evolve, the system must be updated with information about these new threats to accurately detect and potentially prevent them. Novel software updates would pertain to general software enhancements rather than threat intelligence. Configuration changes may improve system performance but do not directly relate to new threat intelligence. Rule adjustments generally involve customizing how the system responds to detected threats, not updating its threat detection capabilities.
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What is the role of signature updates in an IDS/IPS?
How do signature updates differ from software or patch updates?
What happens if signature updates are delayed in an IDS/IPS?
Which of the following best defines the role of an owner within the context of systems and data governance?
Personnel who physically interact with the data on a daily basis, ensuring its accuracy and integrity.
An individual or entity that has approved management responsibility for controlling the production, development, maintenance, use, and security of assets.
Third-party service providers who process data on behalf of the data owner or controller.
Teams responsible for performing regular audits and compliance checks on data management practices.
Answer Description
An owner is an individual or entity that has approved management responsibility for controlling the production, development, maintenance, use, and security of the assets. This includes ensuring appropriate access controls are in place and the integrity and security of the asset are maintained.
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What is the difference between a data owner and a data custodian?
What access control responsibilities does a data owner have?
How does the data owner’s role align with compliance and regulatory requirements?
What term is used to define the legal concept that data is governed by the laws of the nation in which it is stored?
Data custodianship
Data sovereignty
Data retention
Data governance
Answer Description
Data sovereignty is correct because it specifically refers to the notion that data is subject to the legal requirements and regulations of the country in which it physically resides. Compliance with data sovereignty is critical when operating in multiple jurisdictions, as failure to adhere to local data laws can result in significant legal and financial penalties.
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What are some examples of data sovereignty laws in different countries?
How does data sovereignty differ from data residency?
What challenges do organizations face when complying with data sovereignty?
An organization intends to deploy an appliance capable of enhancing its telecommuting capabilities. The device must be adept at managing a large number of secure, authenticated connections, ensuring data integrity and confidentiality. Which network appliance should be implemented to meet these demands most efficiently?
Load Balancer
Remote Access Server (RAS)
Content Filtering Appliance
Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS)
Answer Description
A Remote Access Server (RAS) is specifically designed to handle a significant number of secure, authenticated connections, which typically involve telecommuting scenarios. It provides a centralized solution for remote workers to access the corporate network, offering encryption and authentication to maintain data integrity and confidentiality. Despite being capable of various security functions, an Intrusion Detection and Prevention System (IDPS) primarily focuses on identifying and mitigating potential threats and breaches, rather than facilitating remote access. A Load Balancer excels at distributing networking or application traffic across multiple servers but does not inherently provide connectivity solutions for remote workers. 'Content Filtering Appliance' might seem like a viable option because it implies data protection, but it serves a different role — typically screening incoming web content for malware or policy violations — rather than enabling secure remote access.
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What is a Remote Access Server (RAS)?
How does a RAS ensure data integrity and confidentiality?
How is a RAS different from an IDPS (Intrusion Detection and Prevention System)?
A security analyst is tasked with implementing a solution to receive timely data on emerging malware, malicious IP addresses, and known vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST fulfill this requirement?
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system
A security baseline
A threat feed
A vulnerability scanner
Answer Description
The correct answer is a threat feed. A threat feed is a real-time or near-real-time stream of data providing information on current and potential cyber threats, including indicators of compromise like malicious IPs, URLs, and malware signatures. A security baseline defines a standard state for a system, a SIEM is used to aggregate and analyze log data from internal sources, and a vulnerability scanner actively probes systems for weaknesses rather than providing a continuous external data stream.
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What is a threat feed and how does it work?
How does a threat feed differ from a SIEM system?
What types of information are typically included in a threat feed?
An organization must transmit sensitive payroll data over the public Internet to a cloud-based payroll service. Because a dedicated private circuit is not financially possible, the security team looks for another measure that will still ensure confidentiality and integrity of the data in transit. Which of the following BEST fits the definition of a compensating control in this situation?
Require administrators to complete additional security-awareness training
Review firewall and application logs on a daily basis
Establish an IPsec-based VPN tunnel for the transmission
Schedule quarterly external penetration tests
Answer Description
Creating an IPsec VPN (or other strong encryption such as TLS 1.3) establishes an encrypted tunnel that offsets the risk of sending data across an untrusted network when the preferred primary control-a private, physically isolated link-cannot be used. That encrypted tunnel therefore serves as a compensating control. Daily log reviews, quarterly penetration tests, and additional awareness training are useful but do not directly provide equivalent protection for the specific gap (lack of a secure transmission channel).
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What is IPsec?
What is a compensating control?
How does an IPsec VPN ensure confidentiality and integrity?
Within an organization's information security governance framework, what is the primary responsibility of a security or risk committee?
To perform vulnerability assessments, penetration tests, and corrective remediation
To set information security strategy, endorse policies, and provide ongoing oversight of the program
To draft detailed runbooks and standard operating procedures for configuring security devices
To staff the security operations center and handle real-time alert triage
Answer Description
Governance committees (often called security or cybersecurity steering committees) exist to set the information-security strategy, approve or endorse policies, and provide ongoing oversight and guidance to ensure the program aligns with business objectives and risk appetite. They do not perform hands-on technical work such as configuring devices, staffing the SOC, or running vulnerability scans; those tasks belong to operational teams.
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What is the role of a security or risk committee in an organization's governance framework?
Why doesn't a security or risk committee handle technical tasks like vulnerability scans?
How does a security or risk committee align their responsibilities with an organization's risk appetite?
During the analysis phase after a vulnerability scan, a security administrator is preparing a report for the management team. Which element would BEST assist in the risk prioritization of the findings?
Categorize the vulnerabilities based on the part of the network infrastructure they affect.
Present the findings using a standardized severity rating to assess the risk level of the vulnerabilities.
Focus on vulnerabilities that have been exploited in the wild and which could lead to potential data loss.
Group vulnerabilities by the operating system of the affected devices for clarity.
Answer Description
Presenting the information that applies a recognized scoring system to assess the severity of the vulnerabilities is correct, as it gives an objective measure of risk. This enables management to make informed decisions on which vulnerabilities to address first based on the potential impact. While identification by category, operating system, or the potential for data loss can provide important context, they do not inherently offer a mechanism for prioritization. Therefore, the key to an effective report is not only identifying the vulnerabilities but also clearly indicating which ones pose the greatest risk based on a standardized severity rating.
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What is a standardized severity rating in vulnerability assessment?
Why is CVSS widely used for risk prioritization?
How does focusing on exploited vulnerabilities differ from using a severity rating?
During a recent change management meeting, it was determined that a critical software update needs to be deployed to address a known vulnerability. What step should be taken first to ensure the update aligns with the organization's security policies and operational integrity?
Consult the stakeholders
Conduct an impact analysis
Review the backout plan
Update the security policies/procedures
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Conduct an impact analysis' because it is a practice that helps determine the potential implications of the change on the organization's systems and security posture. An impact analysis will review how the proposed update will interact with existing systems, identify any potential risks or conflicts, and help plan to mitigate them before the change is implemented. 'Reviewing the backout plan' is performed later and is associated with preparation for potential rollback in case the update causes issues. 'Consulting the stakeholders' is important but not the first step, as they would require the impact analysis to assess the change effectively. 'Updating policies/procedures' is premature at this stage, since it's necessary first to understand the effects of the changes on the current policies and procedures.
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Why is conducting an impact analysis the first step?
What does an impact analysis typically involve?
What happens after the impact analysis is completed?
Which of the following best describes the concept of availability in the context of high availability systems?
The capability of a system to facilitate the immediate processing of data inputs and outputs
The ability of a system to quickly restore operations and functionality following an outage
The assurance that systems and services are reliable and can operate without excessive downtime
A security measure that involves ensuring a computer or network is physically isolated from other networks
Answer Description
Availability refers to the concept that systems, functions, or data should be accessible when required by the user. High availability systems are designed to be operational and available for use a very high percentage of the time, often through redundant or fault-tolerant components. An 'Air-gapped network' refers to a security measure to physically isolate a computer or network from other networks, including the internet, which doesn't directly pertain to its ability to be available. 'Ease of recovery' is associated with the ability to restore system capabilities or access to data after a disruption, not the continuous availability. 'Real-time processing' refers to the capability of systems to process data as it comes in without delay, which is not exclusively about the system’s ability to be continuously operational and available.
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How do high availability systems achieve continuous uptime?
What is the difference between high availability and disaster recovery?
What is an air-gapped network, and how does it differ from high availability?
An employee in the finance department of a multinational corporation has just resigned after being passed over for a promotion. The next day, the company's network experiences an unauthorized transfer of proprietary financial data to an external server. Which motivation is most likely to be the cause behind this incident?
Financial gain
Espionage
Philosophical/political beliefs
Revenge
Answer Description
Revenge is often a motivation for employees who feel wronged or slighted by their organization. In this scenario, the employee's resignation following a missed promotion and the immediate subsequent data exfiltration suggest a revenge-motivated insider threat. Other motivations like financial gain or data exfiltration for espionage purposes are less direct in linking the disgruntled employee's actions to the incident. Philosophical/political beliefs is unlikely the motive in this context, as the act of retaliation is personal rather than ideological.
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What is an insider threat?
How can organizations prevent revenge-motivated insider threats?
What is data exfiltration, and why is it a concern?
Which network appliance is primarily used to balance traffic among multiple servers to enhance performance and scalability?
Jump server
Proxy server
Load balancer
Intrusion prevention system (IPS)/intrusion detection system (IDS)
Answer Description
A load balancer is used to distribute network or application traffic across multiple servers, which improves responsiveness and increases availability of applications. It is designed to prevent any one server from becoming overloaded with too much traffic, which can degrade performance or cause outages. Proxies may balance requests but are not primarily designed for load balancing, while an IPS/IDS focuses on monitoring and analyzing network traffic for any malicious activity. Jump servers are utilized to manage access to devices within a security zone.
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How does a load balancer enhance network performance?
What is the difference between a load balancer and an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?
Can a proxy server be used as a load balancer?
A developer is writing code for a new application and wants to implement controls to prevent buffer overflow attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the role of input validation in this context?
It is primarily used to prevent SQL injection and is not an effective control for buffer overflows.
It is only effective for client-side protection and cannot prevent server-side buffer overflow attacks.
It completely mitigates the risk of buffer overflow vulnerabilities, making other protections redundant.
It is a primary defense mechanism but should be combined with other techniques like bounds checking and runtime protections for comprehensive security.
Answer Description
Input validation is a crucial first line of defense against many types of attacks, including buffer overflows. By checking that input conforms to expected length, type, and format, it can prevent many overflow attempts. However, it is not a foolproof solution on its own and can be bypassed or implemented improperly. For comprehensive protection, input validation must be part of a defense-in-depth strategy that also includes other secure coding practices (like bounds checking), using memory-safe languages and functions where possible, and enabling runtime protections such as Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR) and Data Execution Prevention (DEP).
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What is buffer overflow?
How does input validation prevent buffer overflow?
What are runtime protections like ASLR and DEP?
Which factor is a direct financial consideration when assessing the implementation of a new security control within an organization?
Total cost of ownership
Time to remediate vulnerabilities
Time-to-market
Number of users supported
Answer Description
Total cost of ownership includes the direct and indirect costs incurred throughout the life cycle of a security control, encompassing purchase price, maintenance fees, operational costs, and potential training expenses. This is critical as it reflects the overall investment needed and impacts the budgeting and financial planning of an organization's security strategy. Other options, like the time-to-market or the number of users, may indirectly influence costs but are not direct financial considerations on their own. The time to remediate vulnerabilities focuses on the duration of the response rather than on financial implications.
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What is Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)?
How does TCO differ from initial purchase cost?
Why is TCO important for security planning?
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