CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which password policy most effectively enhances security by ensuring passwords are difficult to guess or crack?
Encouraging users to create passwords using easily memorable phrases.
Implementing a maximum password age of 90 days to ensure regular password changes.
Allowing users to reuse their previous six passwords to simplify password management.
Enforcing passwords to be at least 12 characters long and include uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters.
Answer Description
Requiring passwords to be long and include a combination of uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters significantly increases their complexity, making them harder to guess or crack. Allowing password reuse or limiting password age does not directly enhance password strength and can lead to weaker security practices.
Ask Bash
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Why is a longer password more secure?
What are the best practices for creating complex passwords?
What are the risks of allowing password reuse?
During a penetration test, what term best describes an environment where the tester has no prior knowledge of the target system or network?
Partially Known Environment
White Box Environment
Reconnaissance Environment
Unknown Environment
Answer Description
An 'Unknown Environment' refers to a scenario in a penetration testing context where the tester has not been provided with any prior information regarding the target system or network. This approach aims to simulate an attacker who has no insider knowledge and must start discovering vulnerabilities from scratch.
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What is the purpose of a penetration test?
What are the different types of environments in penetration testing?
How do penetration testers usually gather information in an Unknown Environment?
Which of the following statements BEST describes who is responsible for securing the application layer (for example, patching application code and mitigating application-level vulnerabilities) under the cloud shared-responsibility model?
The customer is always responsible, regardless of the service model.
Responsibility shifts by service model: customers secure the application layer in IaaS (and generally in PaaS), but the provider secures it in SaaS.
In IaaS the provider secures applications, whereas in SaaS the customer does.
The cloud service provider is always responsible, no matter which service model is used.
Answer Description
Under the shared-responsibility model, duties move up the stack as you transition from IaaS to SaaS:
- IaaS: The customer controls and secures the guest OS and anything above it, including the application code.
- PaaS: The provider secures the underlying OS and runtime, but the customer still secures any applications they develop and deploy on the platform.
- SaaS: The provider operates and patches the application itself, while the customer focuses on data protection, identity, and configuration. Therefore, the most accurate statement is that responsibility varies by service model: the customer handles the application layer in IaaS and usually in PaaS, whereas the provider handles it in SaaS.
Ask Bash
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What are the different cloud service models, and how do they differ in terms of security responsibilities?
What is a shared responsibility model in cloud security?
Why is it important for customers to understand their responsibilities in cloud security?
Which of the following BEST minimizes the attack surface of a server deployed in a public cloud environment?
Performing a weekly vulnerability scan to identify potential security weaknesses
Implementing strong encryption for data transmitted to and from the server
Regularly applying all available security patches to the operating system and applications
Limiting the number of running services on the server to only those necessary for its function
Answer Description
Limiting the number of running services to only those that are essential for the server's operation significantly reduces the available entry points for an attacker, thus minimizing the attack surface. Unnecessary services can introduce vulnerabilities or become potential targets. Other options, like applying security patches or conducting a vulnerability scan, are important for maintaining security but do not directly minimize the attack surface. The use of strong encryption is essential for protecting the confidentiality of data in transit, but it does not impact the number of attack vectors.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important to limit the number of running services on a server?
What are examples of unnecessary services that could be disabled on a server?
What are some other methods to further secure a server in a public cloud environment?
This email protocol provides a mechanism for email senders and receivers to determine whether or not a given message is legitimately from the sender, and what to do if it isn't. It relies on the results of checking the messages against the policies defined in the Sender Policy Framework and DomainKeys Identified Mail records.
Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance (DMARC)
Security Policy Framework (SPF)
DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)
Protected Domain Marks Recording (PDMR)
Answer Description
Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance (DMARC) is designed to give email domain owners the ability to protect their domain from unauthorized messages, such as email spoofing. The protocol relies on the results of checking the messages against the policies defined in the Sender Policy Framework (SPF) and DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) records. If the validation fails, the email can be quarantined or rejected based on the policies set by the domain owner. It's crucial to understand that DMARC doesn't directly prevent phishing but makes it harder for attackers to spoof email addresses from the protected domain, thus indirectly guarding against phishing attempts that rely on domain spoofing.
Ask Bash
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What are SPF and DKIM in relation to DMARC?
How does DMARC help prevent phishing?
What is email spoofing and how does DMARC address it?
Which term describes the requirement to control access to data based on the physical location of the user accessing the data or the location of the data processing?
Data sovereignty
Geolocation restrictions
Data classification
Data residency
Answer Description
Geolocation restrictions are security controls that limit access to data based on the geographical location from where the data access attempt is made or where the data processing takes place. This ensures that data remains within legal or regulatory boundaries and that an organization maintains compliance with local laws.
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What are geolocation restrictions and how are they implemented?
What is the difference between data sovereignty and geolocation restrictions?
Can you explain data residency and how it relates to geolocation restrictions?
Which of the following BEST describes a security group in an environment using a centralized user login systems such as Active Directory?
A list of recommended security settings that can be applied to a system or software.
A protocol used for encrypting traffic between a client and a server.
A collection of user accounts that can be used to assign permissions for accessing resources.
A virtual firewall that controls the inbound and outbound traffic to and from cloud resources.
Answer Description
Security groups are a way to efficiently manage access to resources on a network. They group users, computers, or other groups together and assign permissions to the group as a whole, rather than to each individual member. This simplifies administration and ensures that only authorized users have access to specific resources. For example, you could create a security group for all members of the marketing department and grant that group permission to access a shared folder containing marketing materials.
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What is Active Directory and how does it work with security groups?
What types of permissions can be assigned to a security group?
How do security groups differ from distribution groups in Active Directory?
A company wants to reduce the number of login IDs and passwords their employees need to remember to access various company resources. Which authentication scheme should a security administrator recommend to achieve this?
SSO
TACACS+
802.1X
RADIUS
Answer Description
Single sign-on (SSO) is an authentication scheme that allows a user to use a single set of credentials (like a username and password) to access multiple different applications and resources. This directly addresses the company's goal of reducing the number of logins employees must manage.
- RADIUS and TACACS+ are AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) protocols, primarily used for centralizing authentication for network access (like Wi-Fi or VPNs) or network device administration, respectively. They do not provide the seamless single-login experience across various applications that SSO offers.
- 802.1X is a port-based network access control (PNAC) standard used to authenticate devices before they are allowed to connect to a network. It is not used for authenticating users to applications.
Ask Bash
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What are the main benefits of using SSO?
How does SSO enhance security compared to traditional login methods?
What is the difference between SSO and other authentication methods like TACACS+ and RADIUS?
As a system administrator for a medium-sized corporation, you notice an unusual email being circulated within the company. The email in question appears to be from the CEO requesting urgent wire transfers to a new vendor due to an alleged internal system audit. What immediate action should you take to mitigate the risks?
Reply to the email asking for more details about the vendor and the audit.
Comply with the email directives and perform the wire transfer to the new vendor.
Verify the request via a direct phone call to the CEO and alert the IT security team.
Forward the email to other department heads to quickly fulfill the CEO's request.
Answer Description
This type of scenario is indicative of a Business Email Compromise (BEC) attack where an attacker impersonates a high-level executive to deceive company employees into transferring funds or revealing sensitive information. The immediate action should involve verifying the request's authenticity directly with the CEO through a known, separate communication channel (like a direct phone call), and not via a reply to the suspicious email. It's important to educate users that legitimate requests for transferring funds are not normally processed through email directives without standard verification processes.
Ask Bash
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What is a Business Email Compromise (BEC) attack?
Why is it important to verify requests made via email, especially for financial transactions?
What steps should organizations take to prevent Business Email Compromise attacks?
Which of the following best describes the concept of high availability in the context of security architecture?
The ability of a system to handle increased loads by distributing tasks across multiple servers
Ensuring operational performance for a higher than normal period by means of redundancy and failover mechanisms
Designing systems in a way that reduces their energy consumption to ensure longer operating times
The duplication of critical components of a system with the intention of increasing reliability of the system
Answer Description
High availability refers to a system's design that aims to ensure an agreed level of operational performance, typically uptime, for a higher than normal period. This is achieved through redundancy and failover mechanisms that allow a system to remain functional even if some of its components fail. Scalability refers to the ability of a system to handle growth, which is important but doesn't specifically relate to uptime. Redundancy is the duplication of components and is part of achieving high availability, but on its own, it does not describe the entire concept. Power efficiency is related to energy consumption and not directly to maintaining uptime.
Ask Bash
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What are redundancy and failover mechanisms?
Why is high availability important in security architecture?
How does high availability differ from scalability?
A freshly recruited member of a marketing firm is in the orientation phase and requires guidance on the organization's expectations regarding the use of digital assets and communications networks. To communicate the rules of engagement and the potential sanctions for contravention, which document should be introduced to the recruit?
Document emphasizing guidelines for digital resource usage
Guidelines for resuming operations after an unplanned event
Response protocol for security breaches
Organizational roadmap for general security management
Answer Description
The document commonly known as the Acceptable Use Policy specifies the rules regarding the usage of a company's digital assets and communication networks. It instructs workers on what behaviors are sanctioned and those that are not, as well as detailing what disciplinary measures could be faced for non-adherence. The Business Continuity and Incident Response plans are focused on organizational measures for business stability and reacting to security events, respectively, and do not directly address individual user responsibilities and rules of use for digital assets.
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What is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)?
What are the consequences of violating an Acceptable Use Policy?
Why are guidelines for digital asset usage important?
Which of the following practices enhances the security of user accounts?
Setting passwords to expire every 90 days
Using complex passwords that mix case, numbers, and special characters
Allowing users to choose simple passwords for ease of remembering
Using the same password across multiple systems for consistency
Answer Description
Using complex passwords that include a mix of upper-case letters, lower-case letters, numbers, and special characters makes it harder for attackers to guess or crack the password. Simple passwords or those that use dictionary words can be easily compromised using brute force or dictionary attacks.
Ask Bash
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Why are complex passwords more secure than simple passwords?
What are brute force and dictionary attacks?
How often should passwords be changed, and why?
A security analyst discovers a minor, non-critical vulnerability in a production web application's login form. The development team has already created a patch to fix the issue. According to security best practices, what is the MOST appropriate next step for deploying this patch?
Submit the patch for review, testing, and approval through the formal change management process.
Activate the incident response plan because a security vulnerability was discovered.
Initiate a new Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) to manage the patch development and deployment.
Deploy the patch directly to the production server to resolve the vulnerability immediately.
Answer Description
The correct procedure is to submit the patch to the organization's formal change management process. This ensures the change is properly documented, tested, approved, and scheduled for deployment in a controlled manner, minimizing the risk of introducing new issues or causing an outage. Deploying directly to production is risky and bypasses critical security checks. While the issue is a vulnerability, initiating a full incident response plan is typically reserved for active breaches or more critical threats, not for the standard deployment of a patch for a minor flaw. Starting a completely new SDLC is unnecessary overhead for a patch, as patching is part of the maintenance phase of the existing lifecycle and is governed by change control.
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What are change management procedures?
Why is it important to maintain the integrity of a deployed system?
What happens if change management procedures are not followed?
When managing operations across multiple countries, each with their own unique privacy and data handling laws, what is the BEST approach a company can adopt to ensure ongoing compliance in its handling of personal customer data?
Enhancing employee awareness through training programs
Adopting a comprehensive data inventory and retention policy
Regularly engaging with third-party auditors for compliance checks
Establishing generic organizational policies for data handling
Answer Description
The most effective approach to ensure compliance with different countries' privacy and data laws is to adopt a robust data inventory and retention policy. This policy allows the company to keep a clear record of what data it has, where it is stored, and how long it should be retained according to each jurisdiction's legal requirements. By systematically categorizing data and its lifecycles, the company can tailor its compliance strategy region by region, adequately addressing the nuances of local privacy laws. Though establishing organizational policies and awareness training are beneficial, they are supplementary measures and don't directly manage data handling practices as per legal requirements. Similarly, engaging with third-party auditors can identify risks but doesn't inherently maintain compliance with varying international regulations.
Ask Bash
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What are data inventory and retention policies?
Why is it important to comply with varying privacy laws in different countries?
What are some common international privacy laws companies should know about?
Which type of network attack involves overwhelming a target service with excessive traffic to the point where the service is unable to respond to legitimate requests?
Domain Name System (DNS) attack
Brute force
Credential replay
Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS)
Answer Description
In a Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack, multiple systems usually infected with a Trojan are used to target a single system causing a Denial of Service (DoS) attack. Victims of a DDoS attack consist of both the end targeted system and all systems maliciously used and controlled by the hacker in the distributed attack. Unlike a Denial of Service (DoS) attack, which uses one Internet-connected device to flood a target with fake traffic, a DDoS attack uses multiple devices, often compromised by the attacker.
Ask Bash
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What is a Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack?
How does a distributed network of compromised devices work in a DDoS attack?
What measures can organizations use to mitigate DDoS attacks?
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