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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

During a routine assessment, a security analyst is tasked with using OSINT to identify potential vulnerabilities that could affect their organization’s network infrastructure. Which of the following methods would BEST support this activity?

  • Attending industry conferences to gather insights on common network infrastructure issues

  • Analyzing social media profiles of the organization’s IT staff for potential leads on system flaws

  • Using search engines to discover discussions and reports on new vulnerabilities affecting similar network infrastructure

  • Reviewing the organization’s website source code on the production server for misconfigurations

Question 2 of 20

You are the system administrator for your company. You notice that a large number of accounts have been locked out due to incorrect password entries. This is most likely an indicator of which type of malicious attack?

  • Keylogger

  • Trojan

  • Brute force

  • Ransomware

Question 3 of 20

An organization has implemented an aggressive patch-management program and deploys vendor updates within 24 hours of release. Which statement best describes the level of protection this practice provides against malware?

  • It significantly reduces exposure to malware that exploit known flaws, but additional controls are still needed to defend against zero-day and social-engineering attacks.

  • It completely eliminates the risk posed by all malware, including those that exploit zero-day vulnerabilities.

  • It makes endpoint detection and response (EDR) tools unnecessary because patched systems cannot execute malicious code.

  • It automatically blocks malicious email attachments because the operating system files are up to date.

Question 4 of 20

Which of the following types of tests best describes a scenario where participants walk through the steps of various disaster recovery procedures without actually performing any recovery operations?

  • Parallel processing

  • Failover

  • Simulation

  • Tabletop exercise

Question 5 of 20

Data stored on a SAN and not being processed is in which state?

  • Data in transit

  • Data in motion

  • Data in use

  • Data at rest

Question 6 of 20

During a review of authentication methods, a security engineer proposes adding fingerprint scanning as a second authentication step when administrators log in to the server management console. Fingerprint data would be compared locally by the reader before access is granted. Which multi-factor authentication factor does this fingerprint scan represent?

  • Something you have

  • Something you are

  • Something you know

  • Somewhere you are

Question 7 of 20

What process converts plaintext into a coded format to prevent unauthorized access?

  • Tokenization

  • Hashing

  • Obfuscation

  • Encryption

Question 8 of 20

As a security consultant evaluating an organization's data management practices, you determine that there is a need to appoint an individual responsible for making decisions about the data, establishing control mechanisms, and determining data classification levels. Which role is best suited for these responsibilities?

  • Processor

  • Controller

  • Custodian/Steward

  • Owner

Question 9 of 20

Which of the following is the BEST deployment option for a company looking to enhance the security of their web applications by monitoring and potentially blocking SQL injection attacks and cross-site scripting attempts?

  • Implement a network-based firewall at the network perimeter.

  • Deploy a specialized Web application firewall in front of the web server environment.

  • Block port HTTP/80 to ensure traffic is encrypted over HTTPS/443 and immune to SQL injections.

  • Install a host-based firewall on the web application server.

Question 10 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of automated compliance-monitoring tools in an organization's security-governance program?

  • They increase efficiency but still require human judgment and verification to validate findings and provide context.

  • They are useful only for technical controls and should never be applied to administrative controls.

  • They are prohibited by most regulatory frameworks because they lack the independence required for audits.

  • They completely eliminate the need for periodic manual control assessments once deployed.

Question 11 of 20

A security team is evaluating new perimeter security solutions to replace their traditional firewall. The primary goal is to gain visibility into and control over the specific web applications being used (e.g., social media, streaming services) and to block threats that leverage application-layer protocols. Which of the following firewall types is specifically designed to meet these requirements?

  • Stateful inspection firewall

  • Stateless packet-filtering firewall

  • Next-generation firewall (NGFW)

  • Circuit-level gateway

Question 12 of 20

During a quarterly review, the chief risk officer at a financial institution instructs each department to assign a dedicated risk owner for potential breaches of sensitive customer account data. Which role should assume accountability for identifying, assessing, and accepting risk associated with that financial data?

  • The Chief Information Officer (CIO)

  • The Security Analyst

  • The IT Support Staff

  • The Data Owner

Question 13 of 20

An organization wants to conceal sensitive data within a non-sensitive file to prevent detection by unauthorized users. Which method should they use?

  • Steganography

  • Data Masking

  • Encryption

  • Hashing

Question 14 of 20

A company's IT department recently received complaints from several employees that they have been contacted by 'tech support' via phone call, requesting their login credentials to resolve a supposed network issue. Which of the following best describes this type of security threat?

  • Vishing

  • Email phishing

  • Smishing

  • Pretexting

Question 15 of 20

A security administrator is implementing hardening measures on a critical server to reduce the risk of compromise. The administrator's primary concern is preventing an attacker who has successfully phished a user's password from gaining administrative access. Which of the following controls would be the MOST effective mitigation for this specific threat?

  • Applying the latest security patches to the operating system

  • Enforcing a strong password complexity and rotation policy

  • Implementing a host-based firewall to restrict network traffic

  • Enforcing multifactor authentication (MFA) on all administrative accounts

Question 16 of 20

The IT security team of a mid-sized organization has recorded several recent incidents in which employees receive convincing emails that install malware after the embedded links are clicked. Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate this threat in the future?

  • Educating users on how to identify and report phishing emails

  • Implementing email filtering to block malicious messages

  • Enforcing strict password policies

  • Deploying anti-malware software on all devices

Question 17 of 20

A security administrator is tasked with ensuring that all new servers in the organization adhere to a standardized and secure configuration. This standard has been defined by the organization's security team based on industry best practices. Which of the following should the administrator use to meet this requirement most effectively?

  • A Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) tool

  • An Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

  • Security benchmarks

  • A strict password policy

Question 18 of 20

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of directive controls in a security context?

  • To detect and respond to security incidents after they occur

  • To implement and manage security technologies

  • To discourage potential attackers from targeting the organization

  • To provide guidance and instructions on maintaining security

Question 19 of 20

A security administrator is reviewing access rights for a new accounts payable clerk. The clerk needs to enter invoices and run monthly payment reports but must not create new vendors or approve payments. Which access-control principle should the administrator apply when configuring the clerk's account to ensure that only the minimal permissions required for these tasks are granted, thereby reducing potential misuse or compromise?

  • Separation of duties

  • Mandatory access control

  • Need-to-know

  • Least privilege

Question 20 of 20

When a hypervisor reallocates previously used memory pages or disk blocks to a different virtual machine without securely wiping them first, which specific security risk does this resource-reuse vulnerability create?

  • Denial-of-service caused by excessive CPU scheduling of VMs

  • Privilege escalation from the guest VM to the host hypervisor

  • Data remanence that could expose residual information to another VM

  • Bypass of network segmentation through a virtual-switch flaw