CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
During a routine assessment, a security analyst is tasked with using OSINT to identify potential vulnerabilities that could affect their organization’s network infrastructure. Which of the following methods would BEST support this activity?
Attending industry conferences to gather insights on common network infrastructure issues
Analyzing social media profiles of the organization’s IT staff for potential leads on system flaws
Using search engines to discover discussions and reports on new vulnerabilities affecting similar network infrastructure
Reviewing the organization’s website source code on the production server for misconfigurations
Answer Description
Utilizing search engines to find information on disclosed vulnerabilities pertaining to the organization's network infrastructure directly aligns with the practice of OSINT. It involves using publicly available resources to uncover potential risks that need to be addressed. Social media profiles tend not to reveal technical vulnerabilities of network infrastructure components. Reviewing the organization’s own website source code can be part of a security review, but it does not encompass the collection of OSINT. Attending industry conferences is a good practice for professional development and networking, but it may not specifically yield the actionable vulnerability data that can be found through targeted online searches.
Ask Bash
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What is OSINT in cybersecurity?
Why are search engines effective for discovering vulnerabilities?
What are some limitations of OSINT for vulnerability assessment?
You are the system administrator for your company. You notice that a large number of accounts have been locked out due to incorrect password entries. This is most likely an indicator of which type of malicious attack?
Keylogger
Trojan
Brute force
Ransomware
Answer Description
A brute force attack involves trying many different password combinations on user accounts in an attempt to gain unauthorized access. If an organization has an account lockout policy, a large number of lockouts is a strong indicator of a brute force attack in progress. The other options are incorrect. A keylogger is malware that records a user's keystrokes. Ransomware is malware that encrypts files and demands payment for their release. A trojan is a type of malware that disguises itself as legitimate software to gain access to a system.
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What is a brute force attack?
How can account lockout policies prevent brute force attacks?
What tools do attackers use for brute force attacks?
An organization has implemented an aggressive patch-management program and deploys vendor updates within 24 hours of release. Which statement best describes the level of protection this practice provides against malware?
It significantly reduces exposure to malware that exploit known flaws, but additional controls are still needed to defend against zero-day and social-engineering attacks.
It completely eliminates the risk posed by all malware, including those that exploit zero-day vulnerabilities.
It makes endpoint detection and response (EDR) tools unnecessary because patched systems cannot execute malicious code.
It automatically blocks malicious email attachments because the operating system files are up to date.
Answer Description
Applying patches quickly closes known software vulnerabilities and therefore blocks many exploits used by commodity malware. It does not guarantee immunity from new or zero-day threats, nor does it stop malware delivered through phishing, malicious macros, or other techniques that do not rely on an unpatched vulnerability. A layered defense that includes security awareness, EDR, email filtering, and least-privilege controls is still required.
Ask Bash
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What are zero-day vulnerabilities, and why do patches not protect against them?
Why is a layered defense important even when patches are deployed quickly?
How do social-engineering attacks bypass patched systems?
Which of the following types of tests best describes a scenario where participants walk through the steps of various disaster recovery procedures without actually performing any recovery operations?
Parallel processing
Failover
Simulation
Tabletop exercise
Answer Description
A tabletop exercise is a type of test where participants verbally walk through the steps of various emergency scenarios and disaster recovery procedures. It is designed to test the theoretical response to a disaster, ensuring that all individuals know their roles and responsibilities, without actually performing any recovery operations or disrupting the current operations. Other options, such as simulation and failover, involve more active engagement with systems or demonstration of the disaster recovery process.
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What is the purpose of a tabletop exercise?
How is a tabletop exercise different from a simulation?
What are some key benefits of conducting tabletop exercises?
Data stored on a SAN and not being processed is in which state?
Data in transit
Data in motion
Data in use
Data at rest
Answer Description
Data that isn’t active and is on a storage media is considered data at rest.
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What is the difference between data at rest and data in transit?
What are common security measures to protect data at rest?
What is a SAN and why is it important for storing data at rest?
During a review of authentication methods, a security engineer proposes adding fingerprint scanning as a second authentication step when administrators log in to the server management console. Fingerprint data would be compared locally by the reader before access is granted. Which multi-factor authentication factor does this fingerprint scan represent?
Something you have
Something you are
Something you know
Somewhere you are
Answer Description
Fingerprints, along with other physiological or behavioral biometrics such as iris or facial recognition, are unique physical characteristics tied to the user. Because these traits identify who the person is rather than what they know or possess, they fall under the MFA category of "something you are." The other options describe knowledge-based, possession-based, or location-based factors, none of which apply to biometric traits.
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What are examples of biometric authentication methods?
Why are biometrics considered more secure compared to other authentication factors?
What are some challenges or risks associated with using biometrics?
What process converts plaintext into a coded format to prevent unauthorized access?
Tokenization
Hashing
Obfuscation
Encryption
Answer Description
Encryption is the process of converting plaintext into a coded format known as ciphertext, which can only be read by authorized parties who have the decryption key. This process uses an algorithm and a key to transform the readable data into an unreadable format, thereby protecting the data from unauthorized access or eavesdropping.
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What is the difference between encryption and hashing?
What is the role of encryption keys in the encryption process?
What are symmetric and asymmetric encryption, and how do they differ?
As a security consultant evaluating an organization's data management practices, you determine that there is a need to appoint an individual responsible for making decisions about the data, establishing control mechanisms, and determining data classification levels. Which role is best suited for these responsibilities?
Processor
Controller
Custodian/Steward
Owner
Answer Description
The Owner of the data is responsible for making decisions about the data, establishing control mechanisms, and determining data classification levels. They are accountable for ensuring that the data is properly protected and used in compliance with legal and organizational requirements. The Processor is responsible for processing data on behalf of the Controller as per their instructions. The Custodian (also known as the Steward) is responsible for maintaining and protecting the data assets on a day-to-day basis. The Controller determines the purposes for which and the means by which personal data is processed but may not own the data or the process.
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What is the role of a Data Owner in an organization?
How does the role of a Data Custodian differ from a Data Owner?
What is the role of a Data Processor in data management?
Which of the following is the BEST deployment option for a company looking to enhance the security of their web applications by monitoring and potentially blocking SQL injection attacks and cross-site scripting attempts?
Implement a network-based firewall at the network perimeter.
Deploy a specialized Web application firewall in front of the web server environment.
Block port HTTP/80 to ensure traffic is encrypted over HTTPS/443 and immune to SQL injections.
Install a host-based firewall on the web application server.
Answer Description
A web application firewall (WAF) is designed to sit in front of web servers and inspect HTTP/HTTPS traffic, blocking malicious requests such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting. Traditional network or host firewalls focus on ports, protocols, and IP addresses, so they cannot parse the application payload to stop these attacks. Simply forcing traffic over HTTPS protects confidentiality in transit but does not prevent injection attacks because the malicious payload is decrypted before it reaches the application. Therefore, deploying a WAF in front of the web server environment is the best option.
Ask Bash
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What is a Web Application Firewall (WAF)?
How is a WAF different from a network-based firewall?
Why can't blocking HTTP/80 traffic alone prevent SQL injection attacks?
Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of automated compliance-monitoring tools in an organization's security-governance program?
They increase efficiency but still require human judgment and verification to validate findings and provide context.
They are useful only for technical controls and should never be applied to administrative controls.
They are prohibited by most regulatory frameworks because they lack the independence required for audits.
They completely eliminate the need for periodic manual control assessments once deployed.
Answer Description
Automated compliance-monitoring tools can continuously collect evidence, check configurations, and raise alerts more quickly than manual methods. However, they still require human review to interpret nuanced legal requirements, investigate false positives or negatives, and decide on appropriate remediation. NIST SP 800-137 notes that efficient monitoring cannot rely solely on manual or automated methods; both are necessary to achieve comprehensive coverage and sound risk decisions.
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What is the purpose of automated compliance-monitoring tools in security governance?
What role does NIST SP 800-137 play in compliance monitoring?
Why can't automated compliance tools replace human judgment completely?
A security team is evaluating new perimeter security solutions to replace their traditional firewall. The primary goal is to gain visibility into and control over the specific web applications being used (e.g., social media, streaming services) and to block threats that leverage application-layer protocols. Which of the following firewall types is specifically designed to meet these requirements?
Stateful inspection firewall
Stateless packet-filtering firewall
Next-generation firewall (NGFW)
Circuit-level gateway
Answer Description
The correct choice is a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW). NGFWs are advanced firewalls that operate up to Layer 7 (the application layer) of the OSI model. Unlike traditional firewalls that are limited to inspecting traffic based on ports and IP addresses (Layers 3 and 4), NGFWs can perform deep packet inspection (DPI) to identify the specific applications in use and enforce security policies on them. They also integrate other security features like an intrusion prevention system (IPS) to block application-layer attacks. Stateless and stateful firewalls are older technologies that lack this deep application awareness. A circuit-level gateway operates at the session layer (Layer 5) and does not inspect application content.
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What is deep packet inspection (DPI) in the context of NGFWs?
How does a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) differ from a traditional stateful firewall?
What role does an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) play in a Next-Generation Firewall?
During a quarterly review, the chief risk officer at a financial institution instructs each department to assign a dedicated risk owner for potential breaches of sensitive customer account data. Which role should assume accountability for identifying, assessing, and accepting risk associated with that financial data?
The Chief Information Officer (CIO)
The Security Analyst
The IT Support Staff
The Data Owner
Answer Description
The data owner is typically a senior business stakeholder-such as a finance manager or line-of-business executive-who has statutory or operational authority over the information set. Because that person controls how the data are collected, processed, retained, and disclosed, they are best positioned to determine acceptable risk levels, approve mitigation controls, and formally accept or transfer residual risk. Technical staff such as security analysts or IT support can recommend safeguards, and the CIO provides enterprise-wide technology leadership, but none of them own the specific financial data set. Therefore, the data owner is the appropriate risk owner for breaches affecting that information.
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What is a Data Owner in information security?
How does the role of a Data Owner differ from a Security Analyst?
Why is the Data Owner the risk owner for financial data breaches?
An organization wants to conceal sensitive data within a non-sensitive file to prevent detection by unauthorized users. Which method should they use?
Steganography
Data Masking
Encryption
Hashing
Answer Description
Steganography involves hiding sensitive information within another file, such as embedding a secret message within an image or audio file. This makes the existence of the sensitive data less obvious to unauthorized users. Encryption transforms data into unreadable ciphertext, but the encrypted data is still noticeable and may attract attention. Hashing converts data into a fixed-size hash value, mainly for integrity verification, and is not reversible. Data masking replaces sensitive data with altered values but does not hide it within another file.
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How does steganography differ from encryption?
What types of files are commonly used for steganography?
What are some common tools used for steganography?
A company's IT department recently received complaints from several employees that they have been contacted by 'tech support' via phone call, requesting their login credentials to resolve a supposed network issue. Which of the following best describes this type of security threat?
Vishing
Email phishing
Smishing
Pretexting
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Vishing'. Vishing, or voice phishing, involves an attacker using the telephone system in an attempt to scam the user into disclosing private information by pretending to be a legitimate entity, in this case, the company's IT department. Email phishing is incorrect as it specifically refers to the use of emails for scamming users. Smishing involves sending text messages, which is not the case here. Pretexting is the creation of a fabricated scenario to steal information, which is a component of this attack; however, vishing is the more specific and accurate term because the attack is delivered via a phone call.
Ask Bash
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What is vishing, and how does it differ from other phishing techniques?
What are common signs that a phone call might be a vishing attempt?
How can companies train employees to avoid falling for vishing attacks?
A security administrator is implementing hardening measures on a critical server to reduce the risk of compromise. The administrator's primary concern is preventing an attacker who has successfully phished a user's password from gaining administrative access. Which of the following controls would be the MOST effective mitigation for this specific threat?
Applying the latest security patches to the operating system
Enforcing a strong password complexity and rotation policy
Implementing a host-based firewall to restrict network traffic
Enforcing multifactor authentication (MFA) on all administrative accounts
Answer Description
The most effective control in this scenario is multifactor authentication (MFA). MFA requires more than just a password to authenticate, so even if an attacker steals a user's password, they cannot access the account without the second factor (e.g., a token, biometric scan, or push notification). A strong password policy is a good practice, but it is defeated once the password is stolen. Applying the latest security patches is crucial for preventing vulnerability exploitation but does not stop an attacker from using valid, stolen credentials. A host-based firewall controls network access but does not prevent a legitimate-looking authentication attempt with a stolen password from a permitted location.
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How does multifactor authentication (MFA) enhance security?
What are some common types of MFA factors used today?
Why isn't a strong password policy enough to prevent attacks?
The IT security team of a mid-sized organization has recorded several recent incidents in which employees receive convincing emails that install malware after the embedded links are clicked. Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate this threat in the future?
Educating users on how to identify and report phishing emails
Implementing email filtering to block malicious messages
Enforcing strict password policies
Deploying anti-malware software on all devices
Answer Description
Educating users on how to identify and report phishing emails directly addresses the social-engineering tactics leveraged in malicious messages. User awareness training reduces the likelihood that an employee will click a suspicious link, closing the primary attack path. Although email filtering and endpoint anti-malware controls can lower the volume of malicious emails or detect malware after execution, determined attackers can still bypass these technical defenses. Strict password policies do not affect a user's decision to click a link.
Ask Bash
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What is phishing and why is it a common attack method?
How can email filtering help prevent phishing attacks?
What are best practices to identify phishing emails?
A security administrator is tasked with ensuring that all new servers in the organization adhere to a standardized and secure configuration. This standard has been defined by the organization's security team based on industry best practices. Which of the following should the administrator use to meet this requirement most effectively?
A Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) tool
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Security benchmarks
A strict password policy
Answer Description
Applying security benchmarks provides standardized guidelines for configuring systems securely, ensuring consistency, and reducing vulnerabilities. These benchmarks serve as the foundation for creating a secure baseline. While a SCAP tool can automate the process, the benchmark itself is the standard being implemented. An IDS is used for detecting intrusions, not for configuration hardening, and password policies are only one component of a comprehensive security benchmark.
Ask Bash
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What are configuration management benchmarks and why are they important?
How is a Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) tool different from applying benchmarks?
Why wouldn’t using intrusion detection systems (IDS) or enforcing password policies achieve the same objective?
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of directive controls in a security context?
To detect and respond to security incidents after they occur
To implement and manage security technologies
To discourage potential attackers from targeting the organization
To provide guidance and instructions on maintaining security
Answer Description
Directive controls are designed to direct the actions of individuals or systems within an organization. They provide guidance and instructions on how to maintain security and comply with established policies. Examples of directive controls include security policies and guidelines that outline acceptable behaviors, procedures, and best practices. These controls help ensure that employees and systems operate in a manner consistent with the organization's security objectives.
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What are some examples of directive controls?
How do directive controls differ from preventative controls?
Why are directive controls important for compliance?
A security administrator is reviewing access rights for a new accounts payable clerk. The clerk needs to enter invoices and run monthly payment reports but must not create new vendors or approve payments. Which access-control principle should the administrator apply when configuring the clerk's account to ensure that only the minimal permissions required for these tasks are granted, thereby reducing potential misuse or compromise?
Separation of duties
Mandatory access control
Need-to-know
Least privilege
Answer Description
The principle of least privilege states that each user, process, or system should be granted only the specific permissions necessary to perform its assigned duties-nothing more. By applying this principle, the clerk can post invoices and generate reports without having unnecessary rights (such as creating vendors or approving payments) that could be abused.
Separation of duties divides critical tasks among multiple people to reduce fraud. Need-to-know restricts data access to those who require specific information but does not necessarily limit functional permissions. Mandatory access control enforces centrally defined security labels and classifications rather than tailoring privileges to individual job roles.
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What is the principle of least privilege?
How does least privilege differ from separation of duties?
When is the need-to-know principle used instead of least privilege?
When a hypervisor reallocates previously used memory pages or disk blocks to a different virtual machine without securely wiping them first, which specific security risk does this resource-reuse vulnerability create?
Denial-of-service caused by excessive CPU scheduling of VMs
Privilege escalation from the guest VM to the host hypervisor
Data remanence that could expose residual information to another VM
Bypass of network segmentation through a virtual-switch flaw
Answer Description
Data remanence is the primary risk. If RAM or storage blocks are not sanitized before being reassigned, residual information from the previous VM can persist. A new VM might be able to read that leftover data, exposing sensitive information. While privilege escalation, denial-of-service conditions, and virtual-switch misconfigurations are genuine virtualization issues, none of them directly stem from reusing uncleared resources.
Ask Bash
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What is data remanence and why is it a security concern?
How can hypervisors prevent data remanence vulnerabilities?
What are some real-world risks if data remanence is exploited in a virtualized environment?
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