CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A company is revising its network security strategy to align with a Zero Trust model. Which of the following principles should be the foundational guideline for the company's revised approach to network security?
Restrict user privileges based on roles
Implement implicit trust zones within the network
Encrypt all data at rest
Never trust, always verify
Answer Description
The central tenet of Zero Trust is 'never trust, always verify'. Unlike traditional security models that operate on the assumption that everything inside the network perimeter is safe, the Zero Trust model treats all traffic as untrusted, requiring continuous verification of each request, regardless of whether it originates from inside or outside the organization's network. The other options listed, while relevant to security, do not embody the foundational guideline of the Zero Trust model. 'Restricting user privileges' is a part of the principle of least privilege, 'encrypting data at rest' is a data security measure, and 'implementing implicit trust zones' goes against the Zero Trust model which doesn't use implicit trust.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'never trust, always verify' mean in the context of Zero Trust?
How does Zero Trust differ from traditional security models?
Why is restricting user privileges based on roles important, even within a Zero Trust model?
Which operational control involves identifying, containing, and recovering from security incidents?
Incident response
Access controls
Change management
Answer Description
Incident response is the correct answer because it is an operational control that focuses on identifying, containing, and recovering from security incidents. Change management is incorrect because it deals with managing changes to systems and applications, not specifically security incidents. Access controls are preventive measures that limit access to resources, but do not directly address incident handling.
Ask Bash
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What are the main phases of an incident response plan?
What is the difference between incident response and change management?
What types of incidents are typically handled in incident response?
A security analyst implements intrusion detection sensors and automated log analysis tools. The primary purpose of these tools is to identify anomalies or disruptions in network traffic and system activities and then trigger an alert. Which type of security control does this implementation represent?
Detective
Deterrent
Preventive
Corrective
Answer Description
This scenario describes a detective control. Detective controls are designed to find and alert on security incidents after they have already occurred or as they are happening. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) and log analysis tools fit this description perfectly as they monitor for and report on suspicious activity, rather than stopping it outright.
- Preventive controls aim to stop an incident before it happens (e.g., a firewall blocking a malicious IP address).
- Corrective controls are used to limit the damage and restore systems after an incident has been detected (e.g., restoring from a backup after a ransomware attack).
- Deterrent controls are meant to discourage potential attackers (e.g., warning banners).
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are detective controls in cybersecurity?
What are preventive measures in security architecture?
How can an organization improve its incident response after detecting a threat?
What is the primary role of a generator within the security architecture of a data center?
To provide backup power in the event of a main power supply failure
To regulate the distribution of power to different circuits
To cool down the server racks and prevent overheating
To serve as a primary power source during peak operation times
Answer Description
The primary role of a generator in the security architecture of a data center is to provide backup power in the event that the main power supply fails. This ensures that critical systems remain operational during power outages, thus maintaining high availability and preventing potential security breaches that could occur due to system downtime.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does a generator provide backup power during a power outage?
What are the different types of generators used in data centers?
Why is maintaining high availability critical in data centers?
Which of the following best describes controls that are designed to establish security policies, procedures, and guidelines?
Operational Controls
Technical Controls
Physical Controls
Managerial Controls
Answer Description
Managerial controls are designed to establish security policies, procedures, and guidelines within an organization. They help in the strategic alignment of security practices with business operations and in ensuring that organizational security objectives are met. They are essential for the governance of security within the company.
Technical controls, on the other hand, involve the use of technology to enforce security measures, such as firewalls and encryption. Operational controls are more about implementing and maintaining day-to-day security tasks. Physical controls include tangible measures like locks, biometrics, and surveillance systems.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of managerial controls?
How do managerial controls interact with technical and operational controls?
Why is the distinction between different types of controls important in cybersecurity?
When an employee leaves the organization, the employee’s data is required to be maintained for a specific period of time. In what document within the company would this requirement be specified?
BCP
COOP
DRP
Retention policy
Answer Description
The data retention policies within an organization are a set of guidelines that describes which data will be archived, how long it will be kept, what happens to the data at the end of the retention period (archive or destroy) and other factors concerning the retention of the data.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a retention policy?
What are DRP, BCP, and COOP?
Why is data retention important?
An organization's server room entry is secured solely by numerical access codes, which has recently led to heightened concerns about the method's vulnerability to systematic guessing attempts. To increase the difficulty for perpetrators attempting to gain unauthorized entry, which enhancement should be taken?
Setting up an audible alert after multiple failed entry attempts.
Intermittent updates to numerical access codes.
Enhancing video surveillance around the entry area.
Installing a biometric authentication system.
Answer Description
Employing a biometric authentication system increases security by requiring personal physical attributes, making it significantly more resistant to systematic guessing and unauthorized entry compared to numerical access codes. Updating numerical access codes intermittently can temporarily prevent unauthorized access but does not inherently improve resistance against a focused attack. An audible alert after a set number of failed attempts might deter but not prevent an intruder who can still continue to attempt access. Video surveillance, although useful for monitoring and recording, does not in itself prevent unauthorized access.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are biometric authentication systems?
What are the advantages of biometric systems over numerical codes?
How does an organization implement a biometric authentication system?
Which type of security control is designed to limit the damage and impact after a security incident has occurred?
Compensating controls
Detective controls
Preventive controls
Corrective controls
Answer Description
Corrective controls are implemented to minimize the extent of damage caused by a security incident after it has taken place. These controls focus on containing the incident, recovering from it, and preventing similar incidents from occurring in the future. Examples of corrective controls include incident response plans, backup systems, and disaster recovery procedures. Preventive controls aim to prevent incidents from happening in the first place, while detective controls identify and respond to ongoing incidents. Compensating controls serve as a substitute for primary controls when they are not feasible or practical to implement.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of corrective controls?
How do corrective controls differ from preventive controls?
What is an incident response plan and why is it considered a corrective control?
What is the primary function of the RADIUS protocol when it is implemented on a network?
Facilitating the handshaking process in a TLS session
Distributing IP addresses to client devices
Load balancing traffic between servers
Centralizing control over who can connect to and use network services
Answer Description
The correct answer is "Centralizing control over who can connect to and use network services" because RADIUS is designed to supply centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for users seeking access to network resources. "Facilitating the handshaking process in a TLS session" is incorrect because that task is handled by the TLS protocol during secure communications setup. "Distributing IP addresses to client devices" is a function of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP), not RADIUS. "Load balancing traffic between servers" is handled by dedicated load-balancing solutions rather than by RADIUS.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does RADIUS stand for, and how does it work?
How does RADIUS enhance network security?
What are the differences between RADIUS and TACACS+?
An organization is implementing security controls for a database that contains sensitive user information. Which state should primarily be considered when encrypting this database to protect the confidentiality of its contents?
Encrypted storage
Data in transit
Data in use
Data at rest
Answer Description
When considering a database that contains sensitive information, securing 'Data at rest' is essential. Encrypting data at rest means protecting the data while it is stored and not being processed or moved. This helps prevent unauthorized access to the data if the physical security of the storage medium is compromised. While data in transit and data in use are valid data states, they refer respectively to when data is moving through the network and being processed in memory, not when it is stored. Encrypted storage, on the other hand, is a broad term that includes data at rest but does not pinpoint the state itself.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'data at rest' mean in the context of database security?
Why is encryption important for protecting data at rest?
What are the other states of data besides 'data at rest' and how do they differ?
A financial services company discovers that an employee's computer has been transmitting sensitive client data to an external server. The IT team suspects malware is involved and has identified a process that seems to be masquerading as a valid application. Which type of malware is designed to perform unauthorized actions while disguising itself as legitimate software?
Ransomware
Worm
Virus
Trojan
Answer Description
A Trojan is the correct answer because it disguises itself as legitimate software to carry out unauthorized actions, such as data exfiltration. Viruses attach to files and spread, worms replicate over networks, and ransomware encrypts data for ransom, none of which specifically disguise as legitimate programs to execute covert actions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a Trojan horse in the context of cybersecurity?
How can an organization protect itself from Trojan malware?
What distinguishes a Trojan from other types of malware like viruses or ransomware?
Your organization is looking to enhance its disaster recovery capabilities to ensure business continuity after an unexpected event. Which type of site provides an on-demand, operational environment that can be quickly made ready to resume critical business functions with all of the necessary hardware and software?
Cold site
Hot site
Mobile site
Warm site
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center equipped with hardware and software, configured to quickly assume operational responsibilities from a primary site in case of a disaster. This is the best option for business continuity as it enables rapid resumption of critical functions. A cold site, while being the least expensive, offers only space and utilities, requiring additional time to become operational. A warm site provides some pre-installed equipment but would still require additional time and effort to be fully operational. Therefore, a hot site offers the highest level of readiness for immediate disaster recovery.
Ask Bash
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What exactly makes a hot site different from a warm site?
What are the typical costs associated with maintaining a hot site?
Could you explain what a mobile site is and when it might be used?
A system administrator is setting up a web server for an internal development and testing environment. The administrator needs to enable HTTPS to simulate the production environment, but wants to avoid the cost and validation process of a public Certificate Authority (CA). Which of the following certificate types is the most suitable choice for this scenario?
Extended Validation (EV) certificate
Domain Validation (DV) certificate
Wildcard certificate
Self-signed certificate
Answer Description
A self-signed certificate is the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Since the server is for internal testing only, public trust from a third-party CA is not required. A self-signed certificate provides the necessary encryption for HTTPS traffic within this closed environment without incurring costs or requiring an external validation process. Wildcard, Extended Validation (EV), and Domain Validation (DV) certificates are all types issued by a trusted third-party CA and are intended for use on public-facing servers where establishing trust for external users is essential.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a Certificate Authority (CA)?
Why are self-signed certificates used?
What are the risks of using a self-signed certificate in production?
Which tool should an organization implement to enhance its capability to analyze and respond to security incidents across its IT infrastructure in a timely manner?
Establish a comprehensive strategy for secure handling and transfer of sensitive information
Install additional firewall rules for improved network perimeter defense
Implement a system that collates and analyzes security alerts and automates response actions
Deploy enhanced endpoint protection on all company devices
Answer Description
A system that offers real-time analysis and automated response to security alerts from applications and network hardware is crucial for organizations looking to monitor their IT infrastructure effectively and streamline their incident response processes. While antivirus software is essential for scanning and removing known malware, it does not offer the capability of central event log aggregation or incident response. A system for preventing data mishandling focuses on the secure handling and transfer of sensitive information but does not encompass broad monitoring or automated incident response. Although enhanced firewall rules strengthen the network perimeter defense, they do not provide holistic security event management or the capability to automate responses to anomalies detected across the network.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a security incident response system?
How does automated response improve incident management?
What are examples of security alerts that might be analyzed?
A financial institution is updating its information security program. Who should be designated as the risk owner for financial data breaches?
The Data Owner
The Security Analyst
The IT Support Staff
The Chief Information Officer (CIO)
Answer Description
The Data Owner is responsible for managing and mitigating risks related to their data. They have the authority and accountability for the data, making them the appropriate risk owners.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the responsibilities of a Data Owner?
What is the difference between a Data Owner and a Chief Information Officer (CIO)?
Why is it important to have designated risk owners for data?
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