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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

An enterprise is evaluating new servers from various vendors for a high-security environment. Which of the following criteria should be prioritized to BEST ensure the hardware provider meets the company's stringent security policies and risk management?

  • Choosing hardware providers that the enterprise has worked with in the past

  • Ensuring the hardware provider has no direct affiliations with foreign governments

  • Obtaining comprehensive documentation for all hardware components

  • Validating the security of the server's firmware at the time of delivery

Question 2 of 15

A government agency is implementing an access control system for its classified data. The system must enforce a strict, centrally managed policy where access decisions are based on security labels (e.g., 'Confidential', 'Secret', 'Top Secret') assigned to both users and data objects. End-users must not be able to alter permissions for the resources they create. Which access control model best meets these requirements?

  • Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

  • Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

  • Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

  • Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

Question 3 of 15

Your company is engaging a vendor to develop a proprietary network security solution. Which document is primarily responsible for defining the tasks to be completed, the deliverables expected, and a timeline for when these milestones should be achieved?

  • Agreement for Services

  • Confidentiality Agreement

  • Partnership Agreement

  • Statement of Work

Question 4 of 15

Which term describes the requirement to control access to data based on the physical location of the user accessing the data or the location of the data processing?

  • Data sovereignty

  • Geolocation restrictions

  • Data residency

  • Data classification

Question 5 of 15

Which of the following options is a vendor-neutral standard for message logging?

  • Event manager

  • SNMP

  • syslog

  • SIEM

Question 6 of 15

As a Security Manager at a financial firm, you have been tasked with developing an initial reporting mechanism for employees to communicate potential security issues. You aim to ensure maximum participation while maintaining the effectiveness of the reports being submitted. Which of the following options would be the most effective approach to begin this reporting protocol?

  • Set up physical drop boxes throughout the workplace where employees can leave written reports.

  • Develop a web portal that requires multi-factor authentication for employees to submit reports electronically.

  • Create specifically designated social media channels where employees can post reports.

  • Establish a dedicated hotline and an accessible email address for incident reporting.

Question 7 of 15

What is a primary benefit of using automation in security operations?

  • Decreases the need for continuous integration and testing

  • Increases the complexity of security controls

  • Ensures that security operations staff have more technical obstacles to manage

  • Improves efficiency and saves time by handling repetitive tasks

Question 8 of 15

A financial services company must comply with an industry regulation that requires an independent review of their security posture. Which of the following BEST ensures the company’s ongoing compliance with this requirement?

  • Conducting a self-assessment using internal resources

  • Incorporating a right-to-audit clause in third-party vendor agreements

  • Generating internal compliance reports quarterly

  • Performing an independent third-party audit

Question 9 of 15

During an investigation, which method ensures that the evidence collected remains admissible in court by documenting the control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of the digital evidence from the time of acquisition?

  • Chain of custody

  • Acquisition

  • Reporting

  • Legal hold

Question 10 of 15

A systems administrator has just implemented a new feature into the company's web application. The following week, a security patch is released for the software version that was used to develop the feature. What action should the administrator take to keep the application current while minimizing risk to service stability?

  • Roll back the new feature to prioritize installation of the patch.

  • Immediately deploy the patched software version company-wide.

  • Perform regression testing on the new feature with the patched software version before deployment.

  • Ignore the patch and continue feature development to avoid compatibility issues.

Question 11 of 15

During a security incident, after initial detection and analysis, an IT security analyst is determining which course of action to take to limit the damage and prevent extended downtime. Out of the following options, which should be prioritized?

  • Containment

  • Recovery

  • Eradication

  • Lessons learned

Question 12 of 15

Which statement best describes the role of a risk owner within an organization's risk management program?

  • Reviews risk reports at set intervals but is otherwise not involved in risk treatment activities.

  • Acts only as a subject-matter expert with no authority to choose or approve risk responses.

  • Has ultimate accountability for the risk and coordinates mitigation efforts, but may delegate day-to-day control implementation to appropriate personnel.

  • Personally implements all technical and administrative controls required to treat the risk.

Question 13 of 15

Which security model emphasizes verifying every access request, reducing the attack surface by eliminating implicit trust, and enforcing strict access policies based on identity and context?

  • Role-Based Access Control

  • Discretionary Access Control

  • Mandatory Access Control

  • Zero Trust Model

Question 14 of 15

During an acquisition, your company is tasked with evaluating the security measures of the company to be acquired. Which type of assessment is MOST appropriate to determine that the company meets your security requirements?

  • Internal self-assessment

  • External penetration testing

  • Quantitative risk analysis

  • Due diligence review

Question 15 of 15

A security analyst is reviewing the company's disaster recovery plan (DRP). The analyst notes that the DRP focuses heavily on restoring critical business functions but lacks a comprehensive inventory of IT hardware, software, and data assets. Which of the following BEST describes the risk associated with this omission?

  • Recovery efforts may be delayed and incomplete because there is no detailed inventory to guide prioritization and restoration.

  • The DRP's effectiveness is not impacted, as the primary goal of restoring business functions makes a specific asset inventory redundant.

  • Recovery will be faster as teams can focus on broad functions rather than being slowed down by the details of specific assets.

  • The lack of an inventory primarily represents a financial risk for insurance claims but does not affect the technical recovery process.