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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

Which of the following examples best represents an unintentional security risk?

  • An employee unknowingly installing malware on their workstation while attempting to update software.

  • An insider intentionally downloading confidential data to sell on the black market.

  • A user deliberately sharing their credentials with a coworker who forgot their own.

  • A social engineer impersonating IT staff to gain access to sensitive areas.

Question 2 of 20

In the context of cybersecurity, what is a primary security concern when dealing with suppliers?

  • Unauthorized data sharing

  • Compromised hardware or software

  • Inadequate customer service

  • Data corruption during transmission

Question 3 of 20

A corporation with a large number of Internet of Things (IoT) devices deployed across multiple office locations is reviewing its security architecture to address concerns regarding the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data collected by these devices. Which of the following security approaches would BEST mitigate this risk?

  • Require multi-factor authentication for all users accessing the IoT devices.

  • Enable a host-based firewall on each IoT device to prevent unauthorized access.

  • Enable full disk encryption on all IoT devices to protect data at rest.

  • Implement network segmentation to restrict IoT traffic to a dedicated portion of the network.

Question 4 of 20

An attacker sets up a fraudulent website that perfectly mimics a company's webmail service and sends an email to an employee, tricking her into entering her username and password. The attacker successfully captures these credentials. Which of the following attacks can the adversary now directly perform using the captured username and password?

  • Session hijacking

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)

  • DNS poisoning

  • Credential replay

Question 5 of 20

A security analyst is discussing cybersecurity with a family member who mentions a recent incident. The family member received an unsolicited phone call from someone claiming to be a support technician from a major software vendor. The caller convinced the family member that their computer was infected with a virus and guided them to install a "removal tool", which was actually malware. Which of the following social engineering attacks BEST describes this incident?

  • Spear phishing

  • Tailgating

  • Vishing

  • Watering hole

Question 6 of 20

A company has been monitoring the performance of its network routers over a 2-year period and observed the following outages: Year 1 experienced 4 outages, totaling 16 hours, and Year 2 experienced 2 outages, totaling 12 hours. Assuming the network was operational for a total of 17,520 hours across both years, what is the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) for the network routers?

  • 2,500 hours

  • 2,920 hours

  • 2,752 hours

  • 3,004 hours

Question 7 of 20

An organization requires a security control that verifies an ongoing network communication for signs of anomalous activities and alerts administrators if suspicious traffic patterns are detected. Which type of control aligns BEST with these requirements?

  • Detective control

  • Corrective control

  • Deterrent control

  • Preventive control

Question 8 of 20

A network administrator observes abnormal network traffic patterns, including high network utilization and propagation of identical data packets across multiple endpoints without user interaction. What type of malware is MOST characteristic of these symptoms?

  • Virus

  • Bot

  • Worm

  • Logic Bomb

Question 9 of 20

Your organization uses a popular office suite for document creation and spreadsheet management. The security team has discovered a reported vulnerability in the suite's document rendering component that could allow an attacker to execute arbitrary code. What is the FIRST action that should be taken to mitigate this threat?

  • Install a new, more powerful antivirus solution to detect potential exploitation attempts.

  • Disable internet access for all systems running the vulnerable version of the office suite.

  • Apply the latest software patch provided by the vendor addressing the vulnerability.

  • Change the default document format used within the organization to an alternative format.

Question 10 of 20

What is the primary security purpose of regularly applying updates to software and operating systems?

  • To resolve vulnerabilities and prevent security breaches

  • To enhance the user interface design and experience

  • To expand compatibility with third-party applications and services

  • To increase system performance and efficiency

Question 11 of 20

To support a rapidly expanding remote workforce, a company needs a dedicated device that can terminate and manage thousands of simultaneous VPN tunnels while providing strong authentication, encryption, and centralized policy enforcement. Which network appliance should the security team deploy?

  • Load balancer

  • Content-filtering gateway

  • Intrusion detection and prevention system (IDS/IPS)

  • VPN concentrator

Question 12 of 20

A cybercriminal gains access to sensitive internal documents revealing a company's illegal activities and threatens to release them unless the company complies with their demands. What is the attacker's primary motivation in this scenario?

  • Sabotage

  • Blackmail

  • Espionage

  • Revenge

Question 13 of 20

Which of the following is an example of a technical control in cybersecurity?

  • Security policies

  • Firewalls

  • Access badges

  • Security awareness training

Question 14 of 20

Which of the following best describes the concept of high availability in the context of security architecture?

  • The ability of a system to handle increased loads by distributing tasks across multiple servers

  • Ensuring operational performance for a higher than normal period by means of redundancy and failover mechanisms

  • The duplication of critical components of a system with the intention of increasing reliability of the system

  • Designing systems in a way that reduces their energy consumption to ensure longer operating times

Question 15 of 20

A system administrator is about to perform a major software upgrade on a critical virtual server. The administrator needs a way to quickly revert the server to its exact pre-upgrade state if any issues arise. Which of the following backup methods would be the MOST efficient for this purpose?

  • Take a snapshot of the virtual server.

  • Perform a full backup to tape.

  • Enable replication to a warm site.

  • Run a differential backup job.

Question 16 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing data protection policies. The analyst notes that data can exist in three primary states: at rest, in transit, and in use. In which of these states is data generally most vulnerable to interception attacks?

  • Data in transit

  • Data in use

  • Obfuscated data

  • Data at rest

Question 17 of 20

The security team at a large corporation is inundated with alerts from their Security Information and Event Management system, with a substantial number being false positives. What is the most effective approach to reduce the number of false positive alerts without significantly compromising the ability to detect actual threats?

  • Raise the alert threshold so only the highest severity incidents are reported.

  • Turn off alerts for events considered low risk to reduce the number of incoming notifications.

  • Disable alerts that are commonly producing false positives.

  • Refine correlation rules to enforce more specific conditions for triggering alerts.

Question 18 of 20

In the context of enhancing security operations, what is a primary benefit of implementing automation?

  • Minimization of human error in repetitive tasks

  • Automated patch management for out-of-date software

  • Improvement of user authentication protocols

  • Enforcement of stronger password policies

Question 19 of 20

A medium-sized enterprise has decided to implement a comprehensive disaster recovery plan. Given the critical nature of their transactional database that receives updates nearly every minute, which of the following backup frequencies would best balance the need for up-to-date data restoration capabilities with resource utilization?

  • Full backups at the end of every week

  • Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups

  • Differential backups every 4 hours without scheduled full backups

  • Full backups every 24 hours only

Question 20 of 20

A financial institution wants to reduce the risk of sensitive customer data exfiltration by employees. Which of the following would be the MOST effective measure to implement?

  • Disabling unused physical and logical service ports company-wide.

  • Enforcing the use of strong encryption protocols for data at rest.

  • Implementing monitoring and blocking of suspicious data transfers.

  • Enabling biometric authentication on all data systems.

  • Segmenting the internal network based on departmental functions.