CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which of the following examples best represents an unintentional security risk?
An employee unknowingly installing malware on their workstation while attempting to update software.
An insider intentionally downloading confidential data to sell on the black market.
A user deliberately sharing their credentials with a coworker who forgot their own.
A social engineer impersonating IT staff to gain access to sensitive areas.
Answer Description
An employee unknowingly installing malware on their workstation after believing they are updating legitimate software best represents an unintentional security risk. Unlike intentional actions that are derived from malicious intent, unintentional risks are often due to lack of awareness or mistakes made without malice. The employee did not intend to harm the company but did so by mistake. The other options involve deliberate actions and do not exemplify an unintentional security risk.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between intentional and unintentional security risks?
How can organizations reduce the likelihood of unintentional security risks?
Why is unknowingly installing malware considered an unintentional security risk?
In the context of cybersecurity, what is a primary security concern when dealing with suppliers?
Unauthorized data sharing
Compromised hardware or software
Inadequate customer service
Data corruption during transmission
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Compromised hardware or software' because suppliers have direct access to the components and programs that enterprises use, making it possible for them to introduce compromised products into an organization's infrastructure. 'Data corruption during transmission' focuses on data in transit rather than supply chain vulnerabilities. 'Inadequate customer service' does not directly relate to security issues, and 'Unauthorized data sharing' is a concern with entities that handle data, but it does not specifically relate to the unique risks posed by suppliers of hardware and software in the supply chain.
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What are supply chain attacks in cybersecurity?
How can organizations mitigate risks associated with compromised hardware or software?
What is the difference between data corruption during transmission and supply chain risks?
A corporation with a large number of Internet of Things (IoT) devices deployed across multiple office locations is reviewing its security architecture to address concerns regarding the unauthorized disclosure of sensitive data collected by these devices. Which of the following security approaches would BEST mitigate this risk?
Require multi-factor authentication for all users accessing the IoT devices.
Enable a host-based firewall on each IoT device to prevent unauthorized access.
Enable full disk encryption on all IoT devices to protect data at rest.
Implement network segmentation to restrict IoT traffic to a dedicated portion of the network.
Answer Description
Implementing network segmentation would be the most effective at mitigating the risk as it restricts the traffic between the IoT devices and the rest of the network, reducing the potential attack surface and the chance of an attacker reaching sensitive data if the IoT devices are compromised. While full disk encryption is important for data at rest, it doesn't address the transmission or collection of data. Enabling a host-based firewall on IoT devices may not be feasible due to their limited computing resources and wouldn't protect against attacks exploiting the IoT network itself. Requiring multi-factor authentication (MFA) improves the security of user accounts, but it does not specifically address the issue of securing sensitive data collected by IoT devices from network-based threats.
Ask Bash
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What is network segmentation, and how does it work?
Why is network segmentation more suitable for securing IoT devices compared to full disk encryption?
What challenges might arise from implementing network segmentation, especially for IoT networks?
An attacker sets up a fraudulent website that perfectly mimics a company's webmail service and sends an email to an employee, tricking her into entering her username and password. The attacker successfully captures these credentials. Which of the following attacks can the adversary now directly perform using the captured username and password?
Session hijacking
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
DNS poisoning
Credential replay
Answer Description
The correct answer is credential replay. A credential replay attack occurs when an attacker captures valid credentials (like a username and password) and reuses, or "replays," them to gain unauthorized access to a system. The phishing attack described in the scenario is a common method for obtaining credentials for this purpose. Session hijacking involves stealing an active session token, not static credentials. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is an injection attack that targets other users of a vulnerable website. DNS poisoning is an attack that can redirect users to a malicious site but is not the attack performed with the stolen credentials.
Ask Bash
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What is a credential replay attack?
How does phishing help attackers perform credential replay?
How can companies prevent credential replay attacks?
A security analyst is discussing cybersecurity with a family member who mentions a recent incident. The family member received an unsolicited phone call from someone claiming to be a support technician from a major software vendor. The caller convinced the family member that their computer was infected with a virus and guided them to install a "removal tool", which was actually malware. Which of the following social engineering attacks BEST describes this incident?
Spear phishing
Tailgating
Vishing
Watering hole
Answer Description
The correct answer is vishing. Vishing, or voice phishing, is a social engineering attack that occurs over the phone, where attackers impersonate a legitimate entity to deceive victims into providing sensitive information or installing malware. The scenario describes a classic tech support scam executed via a phone call.
- Spear phishing is incorrect because it involves highly targeted attacks sent via email, not phone calls.
- Tailgating is a physical security attack where an unauthorized person follows an authorized individual into a secure area and is not relevant to this scenario.
- A watering hole attack is a strategy where an attacker compromises a website that is frequently visited by a specific group of users, rather than initiating contact via a phone call.
Ask Bash
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What does vishing stand for and how does it work?
How is vishing different from spear phishing?
How can someone prevent falling victim to vishing attacks?
A company has been monitoring the performance of its network routers over a 2-year period and observed the following outages: Year 1 experienced 4 outages, totaling 16 hours, and Year 2 experienced 2 outages, totaling 12 hours. Assuming the network was operational for a total of 17,520 hours across both years, what is the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) for the network routers?
2,500 hours
2,920 hours
2,752 hours
3,004 hours
Answer Description
To calculate MTBF, divide the total operational time by the total number of failures. The total operational time over the 2-year period is 17,520 hours, and there were 4+2=6 outages. Therefore, the MTBF is 17,520 hours / 6 outages = 2,920 hours. Accurate calculation of MTBF is essential for gauging the reliability of equipment and scheduling maintenance to minimize downtime.
Ask Bash
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What does MTBF mean in network reliability calculations?
Why is calculating MTBF important for maintenance planning?
What other metrics complement MTBF in system reliability analysis?
An organization requires a security control that verifies an ongoing network communication for signs of anomalous activities and alerts administrators if suspicious traffic patterns are detected. Which type of control aligns BEST with these requirements?
Detective control
Corrective control
Deterrent control
Preventive control
Answer Description
Detective controls are designed to identify and alert when security incidents occur or anomalies are detected, which includes monitoring network communications for suspicious activities. Preventive controls, as their name implies, aim to stop incidents from occurring, but they may not have alerting capabilities. Corrective controls are actions taken to repair the damage or restore systems after a security event, not to identify or detect them. Deterrent controls aim to discourage potential attackers but are not inherently designed for detecting anomalies within network communications.
Ask Bash
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What are examples of detective controls?
How does a detective control differ from a preventive control?
What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), and how does it work?
A network administrator observes abnormal network traffic patterns, including high network utilization and propagation of identical data packets across multiple endpoints without user interaction. What type of malware is MOST characteristic of these symptoms?
Virus
Bot
Worm
Logic Bomb
Answer Description
The hallmark of a Worm is its ability to self-replicate and spread autonomously across networks, which aligns with the symptoms described: high network utilization and automatic propagation. While both Viruses and Worms can spread and cause harm, Viruses require some form of user action (like executing a file) to replicate, which is not suggested by the scenario. Bots typically perform automated tasks and may participate in large networks (botnets), but the specifics described (high network utilization, identical packets, no user interaction) align more closely with the behavior of a Worm. Logic bombs execute malicious actions when triggered by specific events, but do not self-replicate or spread across networks autonomously.
Ask Bash
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How does a Worm differ from a Virus in terms of propagation?
What strategies can network administrators use to detect and prevent Worms?
What makes Worms particularly harmful to a network?
Your organization uses a popular office suite for document creation and spreadsheet management. The security team has discovered a reported vulnerability in the suite's document rendering component that could allow an attacker to execute arbitrary code. What is the FIRST action that should be taken to mitigate this threat?
Install a new, more powerful antivirus solution to detect potential exploitation attempts.
Disable internet access for all systems running the vulnerable version of the office suite.
Apply the latest software patch provided by the vendor addressing the vulnerability.
Change the default document format used within the organization to an alternative format.
Answer Description
The correct action to take first is to apply the software patch provided by the vendor if one is available. Patch management is a critical security control that can mitigate vulnerabilities that have been discovered and addressed by the software provider. Installing a new antivirus in this case would not remove the existing vulnerability in the software, although it might provide some protection against malware that attempts to exploit the vulnerability. Changing the document format might avoid the vulnerability, but it is not a viable long-term solution and would likely disrupt normal business operations. Disabling internet access would prevent some exploitation attempts, but would not address the vulnerability itself and would likely disrupt business operations.
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Why is applying a software patch the preferred first action for mitigating vulnerabilities?
What is the role of patch management in organizational security?
What are the risks of delaying patch implementation for vulnerabilities?
What is the primary security purpose of regularly applying updates to software and operating systems?
To resolve vulnerabilities and prevent security breaches
To enhance the user interface design and experience
To expand compatibility with third-party applications and services
To increase system performance and efficiency
Answer Description
Applying updates, or 'patching', is essential because it resolves vulnerabilities that could be exploited by threat actors. Ignoring updates leaves systems susceptible to attacks that target these known weaknesses. Other options such as 'increasing system performance' or 'enhancing user interface' might be secondary benefits of some updates but are not the primary security purpose. 'Expanding compatibility' is usually not related to the security aspect of patching.
Ask Bash
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What is a vulnerability in the context of cybersecurity?
How do threat actors exploit unpatched vulnerabilities?
What is the difference between a patch and a full software update?
To support a rapidly expanding remote workforce, a company needs a dedicated device that can terminate and manage thousands of simultaneous VPN tunnels while providing strong authentication, encryption, and centralized policy enforcement. Which network appliance should the security team deploy?
Load balancer
Content-filtering gateway
Intrusion detection and prevention system (IDS/IPS)
VPN concentrator
Answer Description
A VPN concentrator is a purpose-built appliance that creates, terminates, and manages large numbers of VPN tunnels. It performs hardware-accelerated encryption and authentication, scales to thousands of concurrent connections, and lets administrators enforce remote-access policies from one central point. An IDS/IPS inspects traffic for threats, a load balancer distributes application traffic for availability, and a content-filtering gateway screens web or email content; none of these devices are designed to establish VPN tunnels for remote users.
Ask Bash
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What is a Remote Access Server (RAS)?
How does a RAS ensure data integrity and confidentiality?
How is a RAS different from an IDPS (Intrusion Detection and Prevention System)?
A cybercriminal gains access to sensitive internal documents revealing a company's illegal activities and threatens to release them unless the company complies with their demands. What is the attacker's primary motivation in this scenario?
Sabotage
Blackmail
Espionage
Revenge
Answer Description
Blackmail involves threatening to reveal sensitive or damaging information unless specific demands are met. In this scenario, the attacker is leveraging confidential documents to coerce the company. Espionage involves gathering information for intelligence purposes, typically for a foreign entity. Revenge is motivated by a desire to retaliate for a perceived wrong, and sabotage aims to deliberately destroy or damage assets. Therefore, blackmail is the primary motivation described.
Ask Bash
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What distinguishes blackmail from espionage in cybersecurity?
How does blackmail differ from cyber sabotage?
What are some common defenses against blackmail in cybersecurity?
Which of the following is an example of a technical control in cybersecurity?
Security policies
Firewalls
Access badges
Security awareness training
Answer Description
Firewalls are technical controls because they are technological solutions used to enforce security policies by monitoring and filtering network traffic. Technical controls involve the use of hardware and software to protect systems and data. The other options are not technical controls: security policies are managerial controls that define security objectives and guidelines; security awareness training is a managerial control focused on educating personnel; access badges are physical controls used to secure physical premises.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between a technical control and a physical control in cybersecurity?
How does a firewall function as a technical control?
Why are security policies considered managerial controls and not technical controls?
Which of the following best describes the concept of high availability in the context of security architecture?
The ability of a system to handle increased loads by distributing tasks across multiple servers
Ensuring operational performance for a higher than normal period by means of redundancy and failover mechanisms
The duplication of critical components of a system with the intention of increasing reliability of the system
Designing systems in a way that reduces their energy consumption to ensure longer operating times
Answer Description
High availability refers to a system's design that aims to ensure an agreed level of operational performance, typically uptime, for a higher than normal period. This is achieved through redundancy and failover mechanisms that allow a system to remain functional even if some of its components fail. Scalability refers to the ability of a system to handle growth, which is important but doesn't specifically relate to uptime. Redundancy is the duplication of components and is part of achieving high availability, but on its own, it does not describe the entire concept. Power efficiency is related to energy consumption and not directly to maintaining uptime.
Ask Bash
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What are redundancy and failover mechanisms?
How is high availability different from scalability?
Why is uptime critical for high availability systems?
A system administrator is about to perform a major software upgrade on a critical virtual server. The administrator needs a way to quickly revert the server to its exact pre-upgrade state if any issues arise. Which of the following backup methods would be the MOST efficient for this purpose?
Take a snapshot of the virtual server.
Perform a full backup to tape.
Enable replication to a warm site.
Run a differential backup job.
Answer Description
A snapshot is the most efficient method because it captures the entire state of a virtual machine at a specific point in time and is designed for rapid reversion. A full backup would work but restoring it would be significantly slower. Differential backups are also slower to restore as they require the last full backup as well. Replication to a warm site is a disaster recovery strategy for site-level failures, not for reverting a single server's configuration change.
Ask Bash
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What is a virtual machine snapshot, and how does it work?
How is a snapshot different from a full backup?
What is replication to a warm site, and when is it used?
A security analyst is reviewing data protection policies. The analyst notes that data can exist in three primary states: at rest, in transit, and in use. In which of these states is data generally most vulnerable to interception attacks?
Data in transit
Data in use
Obfuscated data
Data at rest
Answer Description
Data is generally considered most vulnerable to interception when it is 'in transit'. This state, also known as 'data in motion', describes data being transferred over a network. During transit across local or public networks, data is susceptible to being captured, read, or altered by unauthorized parties if not properly encrypted. While data 'at rest' (stored) and 'in use' (being processed) have their own significant vulnerabilities, the act of moving data between systems often exposes it to the widest range of network-based threats. Security measures like TLS and IPsec are crucial for protecting data in this state.
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What are some examples of encryption tools for securing data in transit?
How does data in transit differ from data at rest and data in use?
What kind of attacks specifically target data in transit?
The security team at a large corporation is inundated with alerts from their Security Information and Event Management system, with a substantial number being false positives. What is the most effective approach to reduce the number of false positive alerts without significantly compromising the ability to detect actual threats?
Raise the alert threshold so only the highest severity incidents are reported.
Turn off alerts for events considered low risk to reduce the number of incoming notifications.
Disable alerts that are commonly producing false positives.
Refine correlation rules to enforce more specific conditions for triggering alerts.
Answer Description
Refining the correlation rules to establish more stringent alert criteria can significantly decrease the amount of false positive alerts generated by a Security Information and Event Management system. By defining more precise conditions for when an alert should be triggered, a SIEM can more accurately differentiate between standard operations and suspicious activities. Adjustments must be crafted carefully to minimize the risk of missing true security incidents. Altering system thresholds indiscriminately might suppress important warnings, while focus solely on historical data analysis may not take into account novel or evolving threats. Disabling alerts for activities that are considered to be low risk can be risky, as they might cumulatively indicate a security threat if analyzed in context.
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What are correlation rules in a SIEM system?
What are false positives in cybersecurity, and why are they a problem?
What are the risks of raising alert thresholds in a SIEM system?
In the context of enhancing security operations, what is a primary benefit of implementing automation?
Minimization of human error in repetitive tasks
Automated patch management for out-of-date software
Improvement of user authentication protocols
Enforcement of stronger password policies
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Minimization of human error in repetitive tasks,' as automation ensures that repetitive tasks are handled consistently without the same rate of errors that might occur with manual processing, thus saving time and enhancing operational efficiency. While 'Enforcing stronger password policies' and 'Improved user authentication protocols' are positive outcomes, they are not specifically related to the efficiency and timesaving aspect of automation. 'Automated patch management' does streamline updating software but the aspect of reducing human error is more universally applicable to the concept of automation improving efficiency.
Ask Bash
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How does automation reduce human error in repetitive tasks?
What are some examples of repetitive tasks in security operations that can be automated?
What tools or technologies are commonly used for automation in security operations?
A medium-sized enterprise has decided to implement a comprehensive disaster recovery plan. Given the critical nature of their transactional database that receives updates nearly every minute, which of the following backup frequencies would best balance the need for up-to-date data restoration capabilities with resource utilization?
Full backups at the end of every week
Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups
Differential backups every 4 hours without scheduled full backups
Full backups every 24 hours only
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups'. This approach efficiently balances the need to maintain recent data save points to minimize loss in the event of a system failure while utilizing resources effectively. Incremental backups save changes since the last full or incremental backup, reducing the volume of data that needs to be copied and the time required for each subsequent backup. Daily full backups ensure that there is always a recent complete copy of data to restore from, while the frequent incremental backups capture the ongoing changes.
Ask Bash
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What is an incremental backup?
Why are daily full backups important in disaster recovery?
How do differential backups differ from incremental backups?
A financial institution wants to reduce the risk of sensitive customer data exfiltration by employees. Which of the following would be the MOST effective measure to implement?
Disabling unused physical and logical service ports company-wide.
Enforcing the use of strong encryption protocols for data at rest.
Implementing monitoring and blocking of suspicious data transfers.
Enabling biometric authentication on all data systems.
Segmenting the internal network based on departmental functions.
Answer Description
Setting up a system that monitors, detects, and blocks potentially unauthorized data transmissions can dramatically lower the likelihood of sensitive information being leaked or transferred outside the company by an insider with legitimate access. While biometric authentication adds a layer of security, it does not prevent data exfiltration by authenticated users. Disabling unused service ports and enforcing strong encryption enhance security but are not directly effective in monitoring or preventing the transfer of sensitive data from insiders. Segmenting the network can reduce the risk of widespread internal access, but it is not specifically aimed at preventing data exfiltration.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is data exfiltration, and why is it a concern?
How does monitoring and blocking suspicious data transfers work?
Why aren’t biometric authentication or encryption protocols enough to prevent data exfiltration?
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