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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

Which of the following BEST illustrates the purpose of performing regular self-assessments of security governance within an organization?

  • To ensure that all new technological implementations are secure before they go live into the production environment.

  • To assess individual employee compliance with security training requirements on an annual basis.

  • To measure and analyze the effectiveness and compliance of the security governance against internal standards and regulatory requirements.

  • To reactively provide details to stakeholders following a security breach or incident.

Question 2 of 20

You are responsible for application security for a small startup. You are responsible for conducting regular penetration tests. Recently the startup has faced some budget issues and lacks the funds to create a stand alone system to be used for vulnerability scanning applications. Due to this constraint you must conduct vulnerability scans on the live system (the same one being used by customers). What type of scan should be used to ensure vulnerabilities are found but not executed?

  • credentialed

  • non-credentialed

  • intrusive

  • non-intrusive

Question 3 of 20

An organization wants to enhance server security by implementing a hardware device that can securely generate and manage cryptographic keys and offload cryptographic operations from the servers, thereby improving performance and security. Which of the following would BEST meet this requirement?

  • Key Management System

  • Secure Enclave

  • Hardware Security Module

  • TPM

Question 4 of 20

Which of the following password policies is likely to provide the highest security?

  • Long passwords consisting solely of alphabetic characters

  • Passwords comprising common keyboard paths, changed monthly

  • Password length of 16 mixed characters with no dictionary words

  • Mandatory password change every 30 days without complexity requirements

Question 5 of 20

Which feature of an Intrusion Detection/Prevention System (IDS/IPS) is leveraged to provide up-to-date capabilities in detecting and preventing the latest known attack vectors?

  • Configuration changes

  • Rule adjustments

  • Novel software updates

  • Signature updates

Question 6 of 20

A security audit of a financial application reveals a critical vulnerability. The application first checks a user's account balance to authorize a transfer (time-of-check) and then, in a separate step, processes the withdrawal (time-of-use). An attacker found that by sending multiple, simultaneous requests, they could withdraw funds exceeding their actual balance because the balance was not locked during the transaction. Which of the following vulnerabilities does this scenario describe?

  • Race condition

  • Buffer overflow

  • Privilege escalation

  • SQL injection

Question 7 of 20

Your employer is planning to place wireless devices at the entrance of their retail locations. The devices will use WiFi to connect to the store's wireless network and use beams of light to detect when someone enters through the entrance. Other than WiFi, what type of wireless communication is being used?

  • 802.11

  • NFC

  • Bluetooth

  • Infrared

Question 8 of 20

A company's workforce is highly mobile with employees frequently travelling and working from remote locations. The IT security department needs to ensure that the devices used by this mobile workforce are consistently assessed for vulnerabilities. Which strategy would be most effective for maintaining the security posture of these devices when they are not connected to the company’s network?

  • Schedule scans using an agentless vulnerability scanning solution when devices are known to be connected to the company's VPN.

  • Deploy a client-based vulnerability scanning solution with agents installed on each device.

  • Only allow devices to connect to the network through wired connections within the company's premises to ensure constant vulnerability assessments.

  • Setup a vulnerability scanning service which all devices must connect to monthly.

Question 9 of 20

Which data type specifically refers to information whose collection, storage, and transmission are governed by external laws or industry regulations such as HIPAA for medical records or PCI-DSS for credit-card information?

  • Trade secret

  • Regulated

  • Intellectual property

  • Public

Question 10 of 20

A security analyst has just finished applying patches to a critical server to address several vulnerabilities discovered during a recent scan. What is the most important next step the analyst should take to validate the remediation efforts?

  • Reboot the server to ensure all patches are fully applied.

  • Review the server's event logs for new error messages.

  • Perform a follow-up vulnerability scan on the server.

  • Document the applied patches in the change management system.

Question 11 of 20

A group of attackers targets a corporation's network because they disagree with its environmental practices. Which motivation best describes their actions?

  • Financial gain

  • Blackmail

  • Data exfiltration

  • Philosophical/political beliefs

Question 12 of 20

Which password attack technique involves attempting access with a set of commonly used passwords on multiple user accounts to avoid account lockout policies?

  • Brute force attack

  • Password spraying

  • Credential stuffing

  • Dictionary attack

Question 13 of 20

Regular auditing of user permissions and access rights primarily belongs to which type of security control?

  • Corrective control

  • Deterrent control

  • Preventive control

  • Detective control

Question 14 of 20

What is the primary benefit of using containerization in a security architecture?

  • It ensures that applications have direct access to hardware resources.

  • It integrates all applications into one operating system for better performance.

  • It isolates applications to enhance security and manageability.

  • It automates the process of data recovery.

  • It allows unlimited data storage capacity.

  • It completely eliminates the need for physical servers.

Question 15 of 20

An administrator needs to securely access and manage servers located in an isolated, high-security network segment. To minimize the attack surface, direct administrative access from the general corporate network is prohibited. Which of the following should be used to provide a controlled and monitored entry point for this purpose?

  • Jump server

  • VPN concentrator

  • Proxy server

  • Load balancer

Question 16 of 20

An application has a security flaw that enables attackers to run their own code on another user's system without any direct interaction from the victim. Which category does this vulnerability belong to?

  • A Man-in-the-Middle vulnerability in communications

  • A vulnerability that allows unauthorized code execution remotely

  • An injection vulnerability enabling unauthorized data submission

  • A vulnerability leading to a Denial of Service

Question 17 of 20

An organization needs to ensure that its most critical systems are protected from external network threats and unauthorized access. Which of the following methods provides the MOST secure way to achieve this level of isolation?

  • Employ network address translation (NAT) for these devices

  • Implement an air-gapped network for these systems

  • Use a VLAN to segment these systems from the corporate network

  • Install a firewall to filter traffic between these systems and other networks

Question 18 of 20

When using security controls, at times you will need additional controls to make up for the shortcoming of existing controls. This is called what kind of control?

  • Preventive

  • Detective

  • Compensating

  • Corrective

Question 19 of 20

A network technician is tasked with planning a new wireless network deployment for an office building. The technician has the architectural blueprints for the facility. Which of the following is the MOST crucial step to take to ensure optimal and secure wireless coverage?

  • Conduct a physical site survey to identify RF interference and physical obstructions.

  • Place access points near existing network drops as indicated on the blueprints.

  • Calculate the required number of access points based on the building's total square footage.

  • Use a predictive modeling tool with the blueprints to determine access point placement.

Question 20 of 20

A security administrator needs to block all incoming, unencrypted web traffic to a company's public web server at IP address 10.10.5.25. To accomplish this, the administrator is writing a new firewall rule. Which of the following rules will successfully implement this policy?

  • deny tcp any host 10.10.5.25 eq 443

  • deny tcp any host 10.10.5.25 eq 80

  • allow tcp any host 10.10.5.25 eq 80

  • deny udp any host 10.10.5.25 eq 80