CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An organization needs to prevent unauthorized external access to its internal network but still allow employees to access external resources necessary for their work. Which security technology should the organization implement to best achieve this goal?
Install physical access controls to restrict entry to the organization's facilities.
Use encryption to secure sensitive data transmitted over the network.
Implement a firewall to control and filter network traffic based on security rules.
Deploy an intrusion detection system to monitor network activities for suspicious behavior.
Answer Description
Implementing a firewall is the most effective solution in this scenario. A firewall acts as a barrier between the internal network and external sources, controlling incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules. It blocks unauthorized access attempts from external entities while allowing legitimate outbound communication required by employees. An intrusion detection system monitors network activities for suspicious behavior and generates alerts but does not prevent access. Encryption secures data but does not control network access. Physical access controls protect the physical hardware and premises but do not safeguard the network from external cyber threats.
Ask Bash
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How does a firewall function in network security?
What is the difference between a firewall and an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
What are the types of firewalls and their differences?
A security manager implements a facial recognition system at the entrance to a data center. The system scans each individual's face and only unlocks the door for authorized personnel. Which of the following BEST describes this type of security control?
Detective
Deterrent
Corrective
Preventive
Answer Description
A facial recognition system used to grant or deny entry is a preventive control. Preventive controls are designed to stop a security incident from happening. In this scenario, the system actively prevents unauthorized individuals from accessing the data center. Deterrent controls aim to discourage attackers (e.g., a warning sign), detective controls identify incidents after they occur (e.g., a log review), and corrective controls limit the damage after an incident (e.g., restoring from a backup).
Ask Bash
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How does facial recognition enhance preventive security controls?
What differentiates preventive controls from deterrent, detective, and corrective controls?
What are some other examples of preventive security controls besides facial recognition?
As the policy administrator for an organization that has adopted a Zero Trust Architecture, you must update an access-control rule for a senior developer who needs to connect to an isolated development enclave that hosts highly sensitive source-code repositories. The developer already authenticates with multi-factor authentication (MFA). According to Zero Trust principles, which additional step should you perform immediately before granting the session?
Validate the device's posture to ensure it meets current security baselines
Analyze the developer's recent activity for behavioral anomalies
Require just-in-time approval through the change-management system
Restrict the developer's access to the environment strictly during office hours
Answer Description
Zero Trust requires every access request to be evaluated in real time against multiple signals. Analyzing the developer's recent behavior for anomalies helps confirm that the request matches normal usage patterns and is not coming from a hijacked account. Device posture checks, formal change-ticket approvals, and rigid office-hours windows can all strengthen security, but they do not directly validate that the current request is legitimate in the way behavior analytics does.
Ask Bash
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What does 'device posture' mean in the context of Zero Trust?
How does behavioral analysis confirm the legitimacy of an access request?
Why is multi-factor authentication (MFA) alone insufficient in Zero Trust?
A financial institution wants to reduce the risk of sensitive customer data exfiltration by employees. Which of the following would be the MOST effective measure to implement?
Enforcing the use of strong encryption protocols for data at rest.
Implementing monitoring and blocking of suspicious data transfers.
Enabling biometric authentication on all data systems.
Disabling unused physical and logical service ports company-wide.
Answer Description
Setting up a system that monitors, detects, and blocks potentially unauthorized data transmissions can dramatically lower the likelihood of sensitive information being leaked or transferred outside the company by an insider with legitimate access. While biometric authentication adds a layer of security, it does not prevent data exfiltration by authenticated users. Disabling unused service ports and enforcing strong encryption enhance security but are not the most direct or effective controls for preventing the deliberate transfer of sensitive data by authorized insiders.
Ask Bash
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What is data exfiltration, and why is it a concern?
How does monitoring and blocking suspicious data transfers work?
Why aren’t biometric authentication or encryption protocols enough to prevent data exfiltration?
Which of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of version control in the context of change management and security?
To automatically update documentation and diagrams when changes are made
To facilitate collaboration between different teams and departments
To quickly identify and resolve issues caused by recent changes
To manage and control software code, configurations, and other artifacts
Answer Description
Version control is primarily used to manage and control different versions of software, configurations, and other artifacts. It allows for tracking changes, reverting to previous versions if needed, and maintaining a clear audit trail of modifications. While version control can help with documentation, collaboration, and identifying issues, its main purpose is to effectively manage and control versions of various assets.
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What is version control in software development?
How does version control improve security?
What is the difference between version control and change management?
An employee in your organization has been consistently leaving his workstation unlocked when stepping away for short breaks. This behavior might expose the company to security threats. As part of security awareness practices, how should this issue be best addressed to prevent potential unintentional insider threats?
Installing a firewall on the employee's workstation
Requiring biometric authentication before accessing the company systems
Limiting physical access to the office to authorized personnel only
Conducting regular training sessions on operational security
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Conducting regular training sessions on operational security,' because it reinforces the importance of keeping workstations secure to all employees, including highlighting the risks associated with leaving workstations unlocked. 'Installing a firewall' wouldn't address the specific behavior of the employee. 'Requiring biometric authentication' might secure the workstation initially, but if it remains unlocked, the threat persists. 'Limiting physical access to the office' would not address the specific issue of workstations being left unlocked by employees already inside the secure area.
Ask Bash
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Why are security awareness practices important?
What does 'operational security' include?
What are insider threats and how are they mitigated?
A company aims to minimize security risks resulting from unintentional actions by its employees. Which managerial control should the company implement to achieve this goal?
Implement multi-factor authentication for system access
Use surveillance cameras to monitor workplace activities
Install firewalls to prevent unauthorized network access
Provide comprehensive security awareness training to employees
Answer Description
Providing comprehensive security awareness training to employees educates them about potential threats, company security policies, and safe practices. This managerial control directly addresses the issue of human error by enhancing employee awareness and reducing the likelihood of security incidents caused by inadvertent actions. Installing firewalls and implementing multi-factor authentication are technical controls that protect systems but do not influence employee behavior. Using surveillance cameras is a physical control that monitors activities but does not prevent unintentional security breaches by uninformed staff.
Ask Bash
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What is a managerial control in the context of cybersecurity?
Why is security awareness training important for employees?
How do technical, physical, and managerial controls differ in cybersecurity?
An administrator needs to securely access and manage servers located in an isolated, high-security network segment. To minimize the attack surface, direct administrative access from the general corporate network is prohibited. Which of the following should be used to provide a controlled and monitored entry point for this purpose?
VPN concentrator
Jump server
Proxy server
Load balancer
Answer Description
A jump server, also known as a jump host or bastion host, is a hardened server that acts as a secure intermediary and single point of entry for administrators to connect to other devices in a separate security zone. This approach centralizes access control and monitoring.
A proxy server primarily acts as an intermediary for user requests to other servers (like web servers), but it is not specifically designed for administrative access sessions. A load balancer distributes incoming traffic across multiple servers to improve availability and performance but does not serve as a secure administrative gateway. A VPN concentrator is used to establish secure, encrypted tunnels for remote access, but it typically provides broader network-level access rather than the specific, audited host-to-host administrative access that a jump server provides.
Ask Bash
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What is a jump server and how does it provide secure access?
Why is a VPN concentrator not suitable for controlling administrative access?
How does a jump server differ from a proxy server in function?
A financial services company wants to ensure its critical customer-facing web application is always accessible and performs well, even during periods of high user activity. The primary goals are to prevent any single server failure from causing an outage and to efficiently distribute incoming user requests across the server farm. Which of the following solutions BEST meets both of these requirements?
A failover cluster combined with a load balancer.
Deploying a software-defined wide area network (SD-WAN).
Implementing RAID-10 on all web servers.
A single, powerful server with virtualization enabled.
Answer Description
The best solution is to use a failover cluster combined with a load balancer. A failover cluster, a type of high-availability cluster, ensures service continuity by having redundant servers ready to take over if one fails. A load balancer distributes incoming traffic across the active servers in the cluster, which improves performance and responsiveness. While often used together, virtualization alone on a single server still represents a single point of failure. RAID provides storage redundancy but does not ensure service availability or distribute traffic. SD-WAN is a networking solution for managing WAN connections and is not the primary tool for application-level high availability.
Ask Bash
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What is a failover cluster and how does it work?
How does a load balancer distribute traffic across servers?
How does SD-WAN differ from a solution like load balancing?
Your company has decided to implement a new cloud-based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) system. Compliance rules state that all backups of the CRM data must be encrypted. The Chief Information Security Officer asks for a recommendation that delivers both strong encryption and streamlined, centrally managed key handling. Which encryption approach best meets these requirements?
Cloud provider's managed Key Management Service (KMS) with server-side encryption
Encrypt only sensitive database fields by using public key infrastructure
Whole-disk encryption on the CRM application servers
Manually encrypt backups with AES-256 and store the keys in a spreadsheet
Answer Description
Using the cloud provider's managed Key Management Service (KMS) with server-side encryption meets both goals. KMS stores keys in validated HSMs and automates creation, rotation, and retirement while enforcing granular access controls and audit logging, so encrypted backups can be restored whenever needed without manual key handling. Whole-disk encryption secures only the local volume and generally relies on per-host keys rather than centralized administration. Manually encrypting data with AES-256 satisfies strength requirements but scales poorly and is prone to human error. Field-level encryption protects only selected columns, leaving the rest of the backup unencrypted and non-compliant.
Ask Bash
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What is a Key Management Service (KMS)?
Why is manual symmetric key management not suitable in this case?
How does KMS compare to whole disk encryption for backup protection?
A financial services company has historically maintained a very conservative security posture, prioritizing stability over innovation. Recently, executive leadership decided to launch a new fintech platform to attract a younger demographic. This new venture uses cutting-edge technologies that are considered higher risk. This strategic shift will MOST likely require a direct reassessment of which of the following?
Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
Risk tolerance
Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
Answer Description
The correct answer is risk tolerance. Risk tolerance is the degree of risk or uncertainty an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. When a company's strategic goals shift, as in this scenario from a conservative posture to an aggressive growth strategy, its willingness to take on risk (its risk tolerance) must be re-evaluated. The new fintech platform represents a higher-risk, higher-reward initiative, which necessitates a change in the company's established risk tolerance. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) are metrics used within risk management, but they do not represent the organization's overall willingness to accept risk. An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) defines rules for technology use and would likely be updated, but the primary, high-level concept that needs reassessment due to a major strategic change is the overall risk tolerance.
Ask Bash
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What does risk tolerance mean in the context of cybersecurity?
How does a strategic shift impact risk tolerance?
Can RPO, AUP, or ARO influence risk tolerance decisions?
A large multinational corporation is experiencing a persistent wave of cyber-attacks characterized by website defacements and data leaks. These incidents are accompanied by messages expressing opposition to the corporation's involvement in various international projects. What type of threat actor is most likely responsible for these activities?
Organized crime
Nation-state
Hacktivist
Insider threat
Answer Description
The correct answer is Hacktivist. Hacktivists are often motivated by philosophical or political beliefs, which lead them to target organizations or governments that they perceive as acting against their values or agendas. The nature of these attacks, including website defacements and public message spreads, are typical of hacktivist groups that aim to broadcast a political message or to create awareness about their cause. The other options listed do not align as closely with the details given.
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What distinguishes a hacktivist from other types of threat actors?
Why is an insider threat not the correct answer in this scenario?
How do hacktivist tactics differ from those used by nation-states?
An IT security manager has noticed a recent uptick in confidential information being leaked through casual conversations on the company's authorized instant messaging (IM) platform. While reviewing the IM security policies, what should the manager implement to reduce the risk of data leakage through IM chats?
Enforce end-to-end encryption for all IM communications
Configure Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies on the IM system
Assign dedicated staff to manually review IM message logs for sensitive data
Restrict file permissions for users on the network
Answer Description
Configuring DLP policies to monitor and block sensitive information being sent through IM helps prevent data leaks. The IM system can be set up to detect and stop the transmission of predetermined sensitive information patterns. Use of encryption would make messages secure in transit but would not prevent employees from sharing sensitive information. Restricting file permissions is unrelated to IM conversations. Manually reviewing message logs is less efficient and might not effectively prevent leaks compared to automated DLP mechanisms.
Ask Bash
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What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?
How do DLP policies work on an instant messaging platform?
Why is encryption insufficient to prevent data leakage on IM platforms?
Which is a primary purpose of aggregating logs from multiple systems into a centralized logging solution?
To prevent users from accessing or modifying the log files on their local systems
To encrypt log files for secure archival on a cloud storage service
To ease centralized analysis by correlating events from multiple systems
To increase the storage capacity on individual systems by offloading logs
Answer Description
The primary purpose of aggregating logs is to allow for the centralized analysis of multiple log entries from different systems. This eases the task of monitoring and correlating events, aiding in the detection of patterns that may indicate security incidents. Reviewing logs individually on each system is far less efficient and increases the likelihood of missing critical events.
Ask Bash
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What does it mean to centralize logs in a logging solution?
How does log aggregation improve security event correlation?
What tools are commonly used for centralized logging solutions?
Firewall logs exclusively show outbound traffic and therefore do not provide sufficient data to detect potential inbound intrusion attempts.
False
True
Answer Description
Firewall logs typically contain information on both inbound and outbound traffic. This information is useful for detecting both types of intrusion attempts, as inbound logs could show unsolicited incoming connections that might be indicative of an attack or reconnaissance activity, while outbound logs can help in identifying potentially compromised systems reaching out to malicious hosts or command-and-control servers. The statement is false because firewall logs are not exclusively for outbound traffic and are indeed significant for detecting inbound threats as well.
Ask Bash
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What kind of information do firewall logs typically capture?
Why is it important to monitor both inbound and outbound firewall traffic?
How can analyzing firewall logs help detect potential intrusion attempts?
What is the primary function of the RADIUS protocol when it is implemented on a network?
Load balancing traffic between servers
Distributing IP addresses to client devices
Facilitating the handshaking process in a TLS session
Centralizing control over who can connect to and use network services
Answer Description
The correct answer is "Centralizing control over who can connect to and use network services" because RADIUS is designed to supply centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for users seeking access to network resources. "Facilitating the handshaking process in a TLS session" is incorrect because that task is handled by the TLS protocol during secure communications setup. "Distributing IP addresses to client devices" is a function of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP), not RADIUS. "Load balancing traffic between servers" is handled by dedicated load-balancing solutions rather than by RADIUS.
Ask Bash
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What does AAA mean in the context of RADIUS?
How does RADIUS differ from TACACS+?
What kind of networks typically use RADIUS?
A group of attackers targets a corporation's network because they disagree with its environmental practices. Which motivation best describes their actions?
Blackmail
Philosophical/political beliefs
Financial gain
Data exfiltration
Answer Description
The attackers are driven by their ideological differences with the corporation's environmental practices. This is a case of philosophical or political beliefs motivating cyber attacks. They are not seeking financial gain, engaging in blackmail, or attempting to steal data.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between ideological hacking and financially motivated hacking?
What are some other examples of attacks driven by philosophical or political beliefs?
What strategies can organizations use to protect against ideologically motivated cyber attacks?
A security administrator is finalizing a resiliency plan for a server room that houses several critical systems. The primary requirement is to prevent data corruption by allowing the servers to shut down gracefully in the event of a sudden, complete power outage. Which of the following solutions should the administrator implement to BEST meet this specific requirement?
Diesel generator
Surge protector
Redundant Power Supply (RPS)
Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
Answer Description
An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is the correct solution because it provides immediate, temporary battery power the moment main power fails. This short-term power bridge is specifically designed to give systems enough time to perform a graceful shutdown or to keep them running until a longer-term power source, like a generator, can activate. A generator is designed for long-term outages but has a startup delay, making a UPS necessary to cover the initial gap. A redundant power supply protects against the failure of a single power supply unit within a device, not an external power outage. A surge protector only protects against voltage spikes and offers no backup power during an outage.
Ask Bash
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What is an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) and how does it work?
Why can’t a diesel generator replace a UPS for power resiliency?
How does a UPS differ from a Redundant Power Supply (RPS)?
A security administrator is in the process of defining the initial set of security configurations that will be applied to all new devices in the company. Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve this objective?
Applying a standardized security configuration guide to the devices.
Setting up a proper disposal and decommissioning process for devices.
Regularly patching the devices as part of routine maintenance.
Enforcing full-disk encryption on all new devices.
Answer Description
Using a standardized security configuration guide specifically designed for the intended system or platform is the best method to establish a secure baseline. These guides, often developed by experts and incorporating industry best practices, ensure that all devices start from a common, secure state before being introduced into the production environment. They typically include settings and configurations that have been widely recognized and vetted for their effectiveness in securing devices. While patching, encryption, and decommissioning play roles in the lifecycle of maintaining security for active devices, they are not methods used for establishing the baseline itself.
Ask Bash
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What is a standardized security configuration guide?
Why is a secure baseline important for devices?
How does full-disk encryption differ from a baseline configuration?
A development team is building a new event-driven web service and wants to focus purely on writing code instead of provisioning servers. They need a cloud execution model in which the provider automatically provisions, scales, and bills for compute resources on demand. Which architecture model best meets this requirement?
The cloud provider's automatic management of resource allocation for executing code without requiring the user to manage infrastructure
Applications are constructed as a suite of small, independent services that perform specific business functions
Users manually scale and manage virtual machine instances to meet the application workload
A system where applications, dependencies, and supporting files are packaged together in a computing environment
Answer Description
In a serverless architecture (often delivered as Function-as-a-Service), the cloud provider is responsible for provisioning, scaling, and managing the infrastructure needed to run the code. Developers supply only their functions, and resources are allocated automatically in response to events or load. In contrast, manually managing virtual machines requires users to size and patch instances themselves, microservices describe an application design pattern rather than a resource model, and containers package software but still need an orchestrator or servers to run.
Ask Bash
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What are the key benefits of serverless architecture?
How does serverless compare to traditional virtual machines in resource management?
What is the difference between serverless and container-based architectures?
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