CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which of the following is the BEST method to protect credit card information in a database while still allowing for customer data analysis?
Use data masking to obscure credit card numbers in the database
Tokenize the credit card information within the database
Encrypt the entire database with a strong encryption algorithm
Hash the credit card information and store the hash value in the database
Answer Description
Tokenization is the optimal method because it allows specific sensitive data elements, such as credit card numbers, to be replaced with non-sensitive equivalents, referred to as tokens. These tokens can be used in various operational processes without exposing the actual sensitive data. This is particularly useful for customer data analysis, as the analysis can often be performed with the non-sensitive token rather than needing the actual credit card number. Encryption, while it also obscures the original data, would not be as convenient because data analysis would typically require decryption. Masking affects the utility of the data for analysis because it often involves altering part of the data permanently. Lastly, hashing is incorrect because it is non-reversible and thus unsuitable for scenarios where the original data might need to be accessed again.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between tokenization and encryption?
Why is tokenization better for data analysis than encryption?
How does data masking differ from tokenization?
A data-center operations manager is performing a business impact analysis and needs to estimate how long a critical database cluster typically remains functional before an unexpected hardware fault requires repair. The vendor specification lists an MTBF of 75,000 hours for each node. In this context, what does MTBF stand for, and what reliability information does it provide?
Maximum Time Before Failure, indicating the longest time a system can function before it fails
Minimum Time Before Failure, reflecting the shortest time a system might operate before encountering an issue
Mean Time Between Failures, measuring the average time operational between system breakdowns
Mean Time Before Fix, representing the average time to repair a system after a failure
Answer Description
MTBF stands for Mean Time Between Failures. It is the average operational time between one repairable failure and the next. Because it represents the expected interval of proper operation, a higher MTBF indicates a more reliable system that is likely to remain running longer before another failure occurs. MTBF calculations exclude the downtime needed for repairs and are based on historical or test data collected during normal operation.
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How is MTBF calculated?
What is the difference between MTBF and MTTR?
Why is MTBF important in business impact analysis?
A medium-sized enterprise has decided to implement a comprehensive disaster recovery plan. Given the critical nature of their transactional database that receives updates nearly every minute, which of the following backup frequencies would best balance the need for up-to-date data restoration capabilities with resource utilization?
Differential backups every 4 hours without scheduled full backups
Full backups at the end of every week
Full backups every 24 hours only
Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups'. This approach efficiently balances the need to maintain recent data save points to minimize loss in the event of a system failure while utilizing resources effectively. Incremental backups save changes since the last full or incremental backup, reducing the volume of data that needs to be copied and the time required for each subsequent backup. Daily full backups ensure that there is always a recent complete copy of data to restore from, while the frequent incremental backups capture the ongoing changes.
Ask Bash
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What is an incremental backup?
Why are daily full backups important in disaster recovery?
How do differential backups differ from incremental backups?
You work for a company that processes customers' personal information as part of its business operations. This part of operations presents a risk to the company. What is this type of risk called?
Residual risk
Control risk
Inherent risk
Tolerated risk
Answer Description
Inherent risk is the term used to describe the level of risk involved with using a process/operation before the company does anything to reduce/mitigate the risk.
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What is the difference between inherent risk and residual risk?
How can organizations identify inherent risks in their operations?
What are some examples of inherent risks in companies handling personal information?
A corporation needs to secure its data while it is sent from the main office to a distant branch. To achieve confidentiality and effective management of cryptographic keys, which protocol should be adopted?
WEP
PPTP
HTTPS
IPsec
Answer Description
End-to-end encryption is necessary for safeguarding data transmitted over an unsecured network. Among the available methods, Internet Protocol Security ensures both the encryption of data and strong key management capabilities through its embedded protocols. Protocols like HTTPS are typically limited to web traffic encryption, rather than a comprehensive solution for all office communications. Methods relying on outdated protocols or suited for specific services fail to meet the security and key management requirements for sensitive data in wide-area corporate environments.
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How does IPsec ensure confidentiality and manage cryptographic keys?
What are the different embedded protocols in IPsec and their roles?
Why is HTTPS insufficient for securing office communications compared to IPsec?
During an acquisition, your company is tasked with evaluating the security measures of the company to be acquired. Which type of assessment is MOST appropriate to determine that the company meets your security requirements?
Quantitative risk analysis
Internal self-assessment
External penetration testing
Due diligence review
Answer Description
A vendor assessment, particularly a due diligence review, is the most appropriate type of assessment when evaluating a company during an acquisition. This review ensures that the company to be acquired is compliant with necessary security standards and that there are no hidden security liabilities. Penetration testing focuses on finding vulnerabilities in systems and networks and may not cover the broad scope of security measures in place. Self-assessments are internal evaluations and might not provide an objective view needed during an acquisition. Risk analysis is part of the overall risk management process but does not serve as a comprehensive review of a company's security measures during an acquisition scenario.
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What is a due diligence review in the context of cybersecurity?
Why is penetration testing not the best choice for evaluating a company during an acquisition?
How does a quantitative risk analysis differ from a due diligence review?
As the security analyst for a financial institution, you uncover repeated failed login attempts against a user account during off-hours. The source addresses resolve to a country where the company has no employees or offices. Based on the threat-actor attribute of location, which type of actor is most likely responsible?
Shadow IT personnel using unapproved cloud services
An unskilled attacker (script kiddie) located on the internal network
An external threat actor operating outside the organization
An insider threat from a current employee with authorized access
Answer Description
Because the attempts originate from a country where the organization has no presence, the actor is almost certainly operating outside the corporate network. This matches the definition of an external threat actor-someone with no authorized access who must break in from the outside. Insider threats and shadow IT both originate from within the organization, and an unskilled attacker on the internal network would still be an internal actor, even if inexperienced. Therefore, the most likely actor is external.
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What are external threat actors, and how do they differ from internal threats?
Why would the geographic location of login attempts help identify a threat actor?
What are script kiddies, and why is it unlikely one would operate externally?
A system that centralizes the storage, analysis, and reporting of log data from various sources within an organization's IT infrastructure performs a preventive role in the security control framework.
This assertion is correct as preventing incidents is a key goal of centralizing and analyzing log data, which is a characteristic of preventive controls.
This assertion is inaccurate because the primary function of centralizing and analyzing log data is for detection and investigation purposes, matching the definition of a detective control.
Answer Description
The system in question centralizes the collection and analysis of log data in order to identify and alert on potentially malicious activity, classifying it as a detective control rather than a preventive one. Preventive controls aim to prevent security incidents from occurring in the first place, while detective controls are used to find and respond to incidents that are in progress or have already occurred.
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What is a detective control in cybersecurity?
How does a SIEM system perform as a detective control?
What is the difference between preventive and detective controls?
Which statement BEST describes an organization's obligation to comply with a country's information-security laws and regulations when it conducts business within that country's borders?
They apply to any organization that conducts business or processes data within the country, regardless of where the organization is headquartered.
Compliance is required only if the organization stores data physically inside the country's borders; remote or cloud-based activities are exempt.
An organization can choose which nation's laws it will follow, provided it documents the decision in a written risk acceptance.
They apply only to organizations that are incorporated in that country; foreign firms may rely solely on their home-country laws.
Answer Description
Any organization that operates, processes data, or otherwise conducts business within a country is subject to that nation's information-security and privacy laws, even if the company is foreign-owned or headquartered elsewhere. This concept-often referred to as data sovereignty-means compliance is mandatory in each jurisdiction where operations occur; failure can lead to fines, sanctions, or loss of the right to do business. The other options are incorrect because host-nation laws are not optional, cannot be ignored in favor of home-country rules, and apply to activities such as cloud or remote processing, not only to data stored physically on local servers.
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What is data sovereignty?
How do cloud services fit into data sovereignty requirements?
What are the potential consequences of failing to comply with data sovereignty laws?
An organization wishes to scrutinize network traffic to detect anomalies, like substantial data transfers during off-peak hours. Which solution is most fitting for generating insights into such network traffic behaviors?
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution, a comprehensive approach to security management that aggregates and analyzes security events,
NetFlow, a network protocol for collecting IP traffic information and monitoring network flow,
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps, a protocol used for managing network equipment and handling event notifications,
Antivirus software, designed to detect, prevent, and remove malware,
Answer Description
The best solution for generating insights into network traffic patterns is NetFlow, because it collects detailed information about the data flows within the network, including source, destination, and volume of data, which is key for detecting irregular large data transfers occurring after standard operational hours. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) traps are typically used for real-time event notification and not for in-depth traffic analysis. A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution centralizes security alerts and logs but does not inherently provide the detailed network flow analysis characteristic of NetFlow. While antivirus software protects against malware, it does not offer network traffic pattern analysis and therefore would not be an effective tool for this particular requirement.
Ask Bash
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What exactly does NetFlow analyze?
How does NetFlow differ from SNMP traps?
Can SIEM solutions complement NetFlow for security monitoring?
Your organization is implementing a new policy that requires the decommissioning of server hardware after a certain period of continued operation to mitigate risks related to aging infrastructure. As part of the asset management team, what is the most important policy update needed to ensure hardware disposal aligns with best security practices?
Mandatory replacement of hardware components based on performance degradation.
Implementation of an asset tagging system with emphasis on frequency of hardware use.
Asset inventory updates to record exact age and expected decommission dates of hardware.
Creating a decommissioning schedule based solely on the importance of data the hardware holds.
Answer Description
Establishing a policy for regular updating of hardware inventory with age details is vital to track the lifecycle of the hardware and prepare for secure sanitization and disposal before it becomes a security risk. Asset tagging allows for easier tracking of the hardware's age, but does not automatically lead to decommissioning. Frequency of use or importance of data does not dictate when hardware should be decommissioned, as even rarely used or low data significance hardware can be a vulnerability if it becomes too old and unsupported.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important to update hardware inventory with age details?
What are the best practices for secure sanitization and disposal of decommissioned hardware?
How does aging infrastructure become a security risk?
What type of attack involves manipulating a system into using a less secure encryption protocol to then exploit weaker cryptographic implementation?
Man-in-the-middle attack
Buffer overflow attack
Replay attack
Downgrade attack
Answer Description
A downgrade attack is when an attacker forces a system to revert to a lesser, often outdated and less secure protocol, making the communication more susceptible to compromise. This differs from other attacks that do not aim to change the security protocol level but rather exploit existing vulnerabilities or capture data.
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What is a downgrade attack in more detail?
How does a downgrade attack differ from a man-in-the-middle attack?
What are examples of protocols vulnerable to downgrade attacks?
An organization needs a backup facility that can quickly take over full operations with minimal downtime in the event of a disaster. Which type of site should they implement?
Warm site
Reciprocal site
Cold site
Hot site
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully equipped backup facility that is operational and ready to activate immediately after a disaster. It maintains up-to-date copies of data, hardware, and software, allowing an organization to resume normal operations rapidly. Warm sites are partially equipped and require additional time to become fully functional, while cold sites have only the basic infrastructure and need significant time to set up equipment and restore data.
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What is the main difference between a hot site and a warm site?
How does a hot site stay synchronized with the primary site?
Why might an organization choose a cold site instead of a hot site?
A system administrator has been tasked with securing data at rest for a company's document storage server, ensuring maximum confidentiality. Which of the following solutions would be the MOST appropriate to accomplish this task?
Utilize a VPN with robust encryption for accessing documents remotely.
Implement full disk encryption on the document storage server drive.
Encrypt each document individually with a unique key.
Ensure Secure Socket Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS) is enabled on the server.
Answer Description
Full disk encryption (FDE) is the correct choice as it provides comprehensive encryption of all data on the storage medium, ensuring that without the appropriate decryption key, no data can be read, regardless of the system state or whether the storage device is transferred to another machine. Encrypting individual files, while useful, does not offer the same level of protection if an attacker gains access to the underlying file system. Encrypting data using a VPN only secures data in transit, not at rest. SSL/TLS also protects data in transit and does not apply to data at rest.
Ask Bash
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What is full disk encryption (FDE) and how does it work?
Why is full disk encryption more secure than encrypting files individually?
What is the difference between data at rest and data in transit, and how do encryption methods differ for each?
A multinational company has recently launched a cloud service platform and is considering introducing a bug bounty program to enhance its security measures. What is the most important reason for the company to integrate a bug bounty program into its vulnerability management process?
To ensure the company's compliance with international cybersecurity regulations and standards.
To focus specifically on mitigating zero-day exploits by having them reported through the program.
To promote the company's dedication to transparency and foster trust among its user base.
To uncover otherwise undetected vulnerabilities by leveraging the collective efforts of the global security research community.
Answer Description
Bug bounty programs invite external security researchers to test systems for rewards. This crowdsourced approach greatly expands the range of skills, tools, and perspectives applied to security testing, which helps uncover vulnerabilities that may slip past automated scanners, internal assessments, and periodic penetration tests. Increased transparency or compliance benefits can flow from a program, and zero-day exploits might be caught as a result, but those are secondary effects-not the fundamental purpose of adding the program to vulnerability identification.
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How does a bug bounty program differ from traditional penetration testing?
What is a zero-day exploit, and can bug bounty programs effectively address them?
What are the key considerations when launching a bug bounty program?
An organization has recently experienced a security breach where multiple endpoints were remotely controlled by an unauthorized entity, leading to the unauthorized use of system resources for mining cryptocurrency. Which type of malware is MOST likely responsible for this incident?
Worm
Logic Bomb
Botnet
Ransomware
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Botnet' because it describes a network of compromised computers that are controlled remotely, typically without the owners' knowledge, to perform tasks such as cryptocurrency mining. A botnet infection matches the scenario described where multiple endpoints are being remotely controlled. A Ransomware infection would generally encrypt files and demand payment, which is not mentioned in the scenario. A Logic Bomb would execute malicious code based on certain conditions being met, which is not indicated in this scenario. A Worm would self-replicate to spread to other computers, but it does not inherently control multiple endpoints for a task like cryptocurrency mining.
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How does a botnet operate?
What makes botnets effective for cryptocurrency mining?
How can organizations detect and prevent botnet infections?
During preliminary negotiations for a new project, your company needs to ensure that strategic plans, trade secrets, and innovative processes are kept confidential when shared with a potential partner. Which type of legal contract is most appropriate to enforce confidentiality before sharing any detailed project information?
Employment Agreement
Master Services Agreement
Non-Disclosure Agreement
Letter of Intent
Answer Description
The most appropriate type of legal contract to enforce confidentiality during preliminary negotiations is a Non-Disclosure Agreement. It legally binds the parties to keep certain shared information confidential, thereby protecting the company's proprietary information, such as trade secrets or strategic plans. While a Letter of Intent can demonstrate commitment to a deal, it does not typically bind parties to confidentiality. An Employment Agreement is used between an employer and employee and is not suitable for negotiations with a potential partner. A Master Services Agreement sets forth terms of a working relationship, typically finalized after trust has been established and does not necessarily ensure confidentiality at the initial stages of discussion.
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What is a Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA), and what is its main purpose?
How does a Non-Disclosure Agreement differ from a Letter of Intent (LOI)?
When would a Master Services Agreement (MSA) be more appropriate than using an NDA?
A network administrator receives reports that users are unable to access the company’s internal file server. The administrator verifies that the server is operational and the network infrastructure is functional. What is the BEST mitigation technique to ensure the users regain access?
Decommission the current file server and migrate to a new one.
Enhance real-time monitoring of network traffic to the file server.
Review and adjust the access control list (ACL) for the file server.
Patch the file server’s operating system and applications to the latest versions.
Answer Description
Reviewing and adjusting the access control list (ACL) is the most appropriate step when users are denied access to network resources, assuming there is no outage or malfunction of the actual resource or network. An ACL may have been incorrectly configured or updated, causing access issues. Examining and rectifying the ACL can restore proper access to authorized users. Patching, while important for security, would not directly address the immediate issue of access if the server and network are confirmed to be operational. Likewise, monitoring does not resolve current access issues, although it may help identify them. Finally, decommissioning the server would be counterintuitive if there's a need for its services.
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What is an Access Control List (ACL)?
How can ACL misconfiguration cause access issues?
Why is patching not the best solution in this scenario?
A company is looking to protect its customers' credit card information within its database while still using the data for transactional processes. Which method ensures the original data cannot be derived from the information stored in the database without access to a separate mapping system?
Data Masking with Fixed Mask Characters
Tokenization
One-way Hashing
Format-Preserving Encryption
Answer Description
Tokenization transforms sensitive data into a token, which is a unique identifier that has no meaningful value outside of the tokenization system. Unlike encryption that can be reversed with the decryption key, tokenized data requires access to the original mapping in the tokenization system to convert it back, ensuring enhanced security by preventing reverse-engineering of the tokens if the database is compromised. In the case of protecting credit card information, tokenization is ideal because the tokens can be used for transactional processes without exposing actual credit card numbers.
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How does tokenization differ from encryption?
What are common use cases for tokenization in data security?
Can tokenization be integrated with compliance standards like PCI DSS?
As part of the vendor selection process for a new data storage provider, you must gauge the vendor's security posture and compliance. Which document will be most effective in providing standardized queries to the vendors about their security controls and practices?
Master Service Agreement (MSA)
Service-Level Agreement (SLA)
Security Questionnaire
Business Partners Agreement (BPA)
Answer Description
A security questionnaire is a tool used in the vendor selection process to assess potential vendors' security measures. It standardizes the queries regarding their security controls and practices, ensuring that all vendors are evaluated using the same criteria. This consistency allows organizations to compare responses objectively and make informed decisions based on established security requirements.
Ask Bash
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What specific topics are typically covered in a security questionnaire?
How does a security questionnaire differ from a Service-Level Agreement (SLA)?
Why is it important to standardize queries in a security questionnaire?
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