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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

ACME Tech, an international software development company, has failed a recent audit due to not keeping adequate records of its European users' data activities. As the security manager, what is the most immediate action to take to rectify this situation and prevent substantial financial repercussions from European regulatory authorities?

  • Correct the record-keeping deficiencies to conform to the data-protection standards set forth by European authorities.

  • Deploy an updated firewall and intrusion-prevention system to better protect the perimeter of the corporate network.

  • Initiate a comprehensive review of the company's physical and electronic access controls.

  • Arrange an immediate security training session for the development team to reinforce best practices in secure coding.

Question 2 of 20

A network administrator is tasked with integrating a large number of new IoT-based smart sensors into the corporate network. Which of the following represents the MOST significant, and common, security risk the administrator must address with these new devices?

  • The devices require constant, high-speed cloud connectivity, which can be easily disrupted.

  • The devices are highly susceptible to physical tampering and hardware modification.

  • The devices will consume excessive network bandwidth and degrade performance for other applications.

  • The devices often ship with default credentials and contain unpatched software vulnerabilities.

Question 3 of 20

You are taking a walk around the neighborhood. You see a sign in one of your neighbor’s unfenced yards that reads “No trespassing!” in large red letters. The sign is what type of control?

  • Deterrent

  • Compensating

  • Detective

  • Preventive

  • Corrective

Question 4 of 20

A multinational corporation headquartered in the United States is undergoing a policy review to ensure its security practices conform to the appropriate federal regulations. Which of the following initiatives should be prioritized to best align the company's cybersecurity policies with the current legal requirements of the United States?

  • Adhering to international regulations on privacy and cross-border data transfers

  • Ensuring adherence to federally recommended cybersecurity practices

  • Implementing data protection measures for payment processing

  • Focusing on safeguarding electronic protected health information

Question 5 of 20

What is the primary purpose of security groups in cloud computing?

  • They are used to group user accounts into a single administrative unit for assigning permissions across multiple resources.

  • They define rules for controlling network traffic to and from resources within a cloud environment.

  • They determine the geographical regions where the cloud provider is authorized to store data.

  • They specify the encryption algorithms that must be used for data at rest in the cloud storage services.

Question 6 of 20

Which type of encryption uses a single key to both encrypt and decrypt data?

  • Key escrow encryption

  • Symmetric encryption

  • Asymmetric encryption

  • Public key encryption

Question 7 of 20

Which social engineering attack is most effectively combated by implementing strong organizational verification procedures and training employees to confirm requests through multi-channel verifications?

  • Piggybacking

  • Shadow IT

  • Phishing

  • Business Email Compromise (BEC)

Question 8 of 20

In common transport or communication security protocols such as TLS, SSH, and IPsec, which type of cryptographic algorithm is primarily responsible for encrypting the bulk data after the initial key-exchange phase is complete?

  • Asymmetric encryption algorithms (e.g., RSA, ECDSA)

  • Hashing algorithms (e.g., SHA-256, SHA-3)

  • Symmetric encryption algorithms (e.g., AES, ChaCha20)

  • Key-stretching algorithms (e.g., PBKDF2, bcrypt)

Question 9 of 20

Which type of attack involves using a phone call to deceive someone into revealing confidential information?

  • Vishing

  • Tailgating

  • Smishing

  • Phishing

Question 10 of 20

What term is used to describe a fraudulent practice where an attacker uses voice communication, often through VoIP, to deceive individuals into providing personal, financial, or other sensitive information?

  • Pharming

  • Vishing

  • Smishing

  • Whaling

Question 11 of 20

An attacker modifies a web application's URL by adding "../" sequences to access resources outside of the application's authorized files. What type of attack is being performed?

  • Cross-site scripting

  • Directory traversal

  • SQL injection

  • Buffer overflow

Question 12 of 20

Which of the following examples represents a misconfiguration scenario that could lead to security vulnerabilities?

  • All desktop computers in an office have the latest operating system patches installed.

  • A system regularly receives updates to its antivirus definitions.

  • A web application is using HTTPS instead of HTTP to encrypt its traffic.

  • A server is configured with the manufacturer's default username and password for administrative access.

Question 13 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing the design of an embedded system. The system is designed to periodically download firmware updates from a public HTTP server and install them. The analyst notes that the update process does not validate a digital signature for the new firmware file before installation. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the MOST significant security risk in this design?

  • VM escape

  • Directory traversal

  • Malicious update

  • Time-of-check to time-of-use (TOCTOU)

Question 14 of 20

A company with operations in multiple countries is developing its security policies. Which of the following should it consider to ensure compliance across all its international locations?

  • Using a one-size-fits-all security approach

  • Ignoring local regulations in favor of national laws

  • Implementing region-specific security policies

  • Centralizing all security decisions at headquarters

Question 15 of 20

An organization requires a security control that verifies an ongoing network communication for signs of anomalous activities and alerts administrators if suspicious traffic patterns are detected. Which type of control aligns BEST with these requirements?

  • Detective control

  • Preventive control

  • Corrective control

  • Deterrent control

Question 16 of 20

Your company is revising its security strategy to better protect its network against cyber threats. As a security analyst, you have been tasked with selecting appropriate controls that would actively identify and log security breaches in real-time. Which type of control should you implement to fulfill this requirement?

  • Firewalls

  • Warning signs

  • Intrusion detection systems

  • Security awareness training

Question 17 of 20

Within an organization's information security governance framework, what is the primary responsibility of a security or risk committee?

  • To perform vulnerability assessments, penetration tests, and corrective remediation

  • To draft detailed runbooks and standard operating procedures for configuring security devices

  • To set information security strategy, endorse policies, and provide ongoing oversight of the program

  • To staff the security operations center and handle real-time alert triage

Question 18 of 20

What method of data sanitization ensures that data can never be retrieved, by physically destroying the data storage device?

  • Physical destruction

  • Crypto-shredding

  • Overwriting

  • Degaussing

Question 19 of 20

An employee in the finance department received an email with a spreadsheet attachment claiming to contain urgent budget corrections required by their manager. However, the spreadsheet is actually a file-based threat designed to compromise the user's system. What is the BEST action the employee should take to mitigate this threat?

  • Forward the email to their manager to confirm its authenticity before opening the attachment.

  • Ignore the email and the attachment because it might be spam, and then delete it.

  • Open the attachment to verify its content, then proceed with the tasks if it seems legitimate.

  • Report the email to the organization's security team for analysis before any further action is taken.

Question 20 of 20

Which activity is MOST critical for an organization to perform when establishing an incident response capability to ensure effectiveness during security incidents?

  • Developing and documenting the incident response policy

  • Conducting regular employee background checks

  • Distributing the employee security handbook

  • Holding a retrospective meeting to discuss incident handling