CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
ACME Tech, an international software development company, has failed a recent audit due to not keeping adequate records of its European users' data activities. As the security manager, what is the most immediate action to take to rectify this situation and prevent substantial financial repercussions from European regulatory authorities?
Correct the record-keeping deficiencies to conform to the data-protection standards set forth by European authorities.
Deploy an updated firewall and intrusion-prevention system to better protect the perimeter of the corporate network.
Initiate a comprehensive review of the company's physical and electronic access controls.
Arrange an immediate security training session for the development team to reinforce best practices in secure coding.
Answer Description
Under the EU GDPR, Article 30 obligates controllers and processors to maintain detailed records of processing activities involving personal data. Failure to keep these records can lead to administrative fines of up to €10 million or 2 % of global annual turnover, whichever is higher. Therefore, the highest priority after the audit finding is to remedy the record-keeping gap and bring documentation into full compliance. While reviewing access controls, improving perimeter defenses, or holding training sessions may strengthen the overall security program, they do not directly address the specific violation that triggered the audit failure and potential fines.
Ask Bash
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What are the key data protection standards set forth by European authorities?
Why is maintaining accurate records of user data activities critical under GDPR?
What are some practical steps to correct record-keeping deficiencies under GDPR?
A network administrator is tasked with integrating a large number of new IoT-based smart sensors into the corporate network. Which of the following represents the MOST significant, and common, security risk the administrator must address with these new devices?
The devices require constant, high-speed cloud connectivity, which can be easily disrupted.
The devices are highly susceptible to physical tampering and hardware modification.
The devices will consume excessive network bandwidth and degrade performance for other applications.
The devices often ship with default credentials and contain unpatched software vulnerabilities.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that IoT devices often ship with default credentials and may contain unpatched vulnerabilities. This is a widely recognized and significant risk, as attackers frequently scan for and exploit devices with factory-default settings or known, unpatched firmware flaws. While other options can be concerns, they are not as primary or common as default credentials and vulnerabilities. Excessive bandwidth usage is a performance issue, not a primary security risk. Not all IoT devices require cloud connectivity to function, and while physical tampering is a risk, it is generally less common in a corporate environment than remote attacks exploiting software or configuration weaknesses.
Ask Bash
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Why are default credentials a significant security risk for IoT devices?
What are unpatched software vulnerabilities in IoT devices, and why are they dangerous?
How can network administrators mitigate risks associated with default credentials and unpatched IoT devices?
You are taking a walk around the neighborhood. You see a sign in one of your neighbor’s unfenced yards that reads “No trespassing!” in large red letters. The sign is what type of control?
Deterrent
Compensating
Detective
Preventive
Corrective
Answer Description
A deterrent control is a control that simply deters from taking an action. The control in no way prevents the action from being taken but is only there to persuade not to. The other choices are other types of controls that serve other purposes.
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What are the differences between a deterrent control and a preventive control?
Can a control be both deterrent and another type, like preventive?
What are compensating controls, and how are they different from deterrent controls?
A multinational corporation headquartered in the United States is undergoing a policy review to ensure its security practices conform to the appropriate federal regulations. Which of the following initiatives should be prioritized to best align the company's cybersecurity policies with the current legal requirements of the United States?
Adhering to international regulations on privacy and cross-border data transfers
Ensuring adherence to federally recommended cybersecurity practices
Implementing data protection measures for payment processing
Focusing on safeguarding electronic protected health information
Answer Description
Ensuring adherence to federally recommended cybersecurity practices would be the best course of action for a multinational corporation, as it would provide the most comprehensive and relevant guidance for operating within the United States. While the specific strategy of safeguarding electronic protected health information is crucial for organizations in the healthcare industry, it would not be the primary regulatory requirement for a multinational corporation in general. Similarly, implementing data protection measures related to payment processing would be targeted to entities handling such transactions, but not as a broad national requirement. Adhering to international privacy regulations would also be important; however, for operations within United United States, domestic compliance would take precedence and should be aligned first with federal practices.
Ask Bash
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What are federally recommended cybersecurity practices?
Why does domestic compliance take precedence over international privacy regulations?
What industries require a focus on safeguarding electronic protected health information (ePHI)?
What is the primary purpose of security groups in cloud computing?
They are used to group user accounts into a single administrative unit for assigning permissions across multiple resources.
They define rules for controlling network traffic to and from resources within a cloud environment.
They determine the geographical regions where the cloud provider is authorized to store data.
They specify the encryption algorithms that must be used for data at rest in the cloud storage services.
Answer Description
Security groups in cloud computing act as a virtual firewall for your servers to control inbound and outbound traffic. They are used to define rules that allow or deny network traffic to resources based on IP address, port, and protocol. The correct answer represents the purpose of a security group, while the incorrect answers either describe other security concepts or configurations not directly related to security groups.
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How do security groups differ from traditional firewalls?
What is the difference between a security group and a Network ACL (Access Control List)?
How do I configure security group rules for a resource in cloud computing?
Which type of encryption uses a single key to both encrypt and decrypt data?
Key escrow encryption
Symmetric encryption
Asymmetric encryption
Public key encryption
Answer Description
Symmetric encryption uses the same secret key for both encryption and decryption. It is typically faster than its counterpart, asymmetric encryption, which uses a pair of keys (a public and a private key) for encrypting and decrypting data, respectively.
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Can you explain the main difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption?
What are some common uses of symmetric encryption in cybersecurity?
What is a common algorithm used in symmetric encryption?
Which social engineering attack is most effectively combated by implementing strong organizational verification procedures and training employees to confirm requests through multi-channel verifications?
Piggybacking
Shadow IT
Phishing
Business Email Compromise (BEC)
Answer Description
Business Email Compromise (BEC) is effectively combated by strong organizational verification procedures. In a BEC attack, an attacker impersonates an executive or a partner organization in an email to trick an employee into making a financial transfer or revealing sensitive information. Training employees to verify such requests using multiple communication channels, like phone calls or face-to-face meetings, is crucial in preventing successful BEC attacks.
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What is Business Email Compromise (BEC)?
What are multi-channel verifications?
How do attackers typically execute BEC attacks?
In common transport or communication security protocols such as TLS, SSH, and IPsec, which type of cryptographic algorithm is primarily responsible for encrypting the bulk data after the initial key-exchange phase is complete?
Asymmetric encryption algorithms (e.g., RSA, ECDSA)
Hashing algorithms (e.g., SHA-256, SHA-3)
Symmetric encryption algorithms (e.g., AES, ChaCha20)
Key-stretching algorithms (e.g., PBKDF2, bcrypt)
Answer Description
The bulk data that flows after a secure session has been established is encrypted with symmetric algorithms (for example, AES or ChaCha20). Asymmetric algorithms (such as RSA or ECDHE) are used only during the handshake to authenticate the parties and to agree on a shared secret. Hashing algorithms provide integrity, and key-stretching algorithms strengthen stored secrets but do not directly encrypt transit traffic.
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Why are symmetric encryption algorithms preferred for bulk data encryption in protocols like TLS and IPsec?
How is the shared key established between parties in protocols like TLS?
What role do hashing algorithms play in protocols like TLS and IPsec?
Which type of attack involves using a phone call to deceive someone into revealing confidential information?
Vishing
Tailgating
Smishing
Phishing
Answer Description
The correct answer is vishing, which is voice-based phishing. Vishing attackers use phone calls to impersonate trusted entities and trick individuals into disclosing sensitive information like passwords or financial details. Phishing typically occurs through emails, smishing uses SMS text messages, and tailgating is a physical security breach where someone follows an authorized person into a restricted area.
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What techniques do vishing attackers commonly use to trick individuals?
How is vishing different from smishing and phishing?
What steps can individuals take to protect themselves from vishing attacks?
What term is used to describe a fraudulent practice where an attacker uses voice communication, often through VoIP, to deceive individuals into providing personal, financial, or other sensitive information?
Pharming
Vishing
Smishing
Whaling
Answer Description
Vishing is a contraction of 'voice' and 'phishing' and refers to the fraudulent practice where attackers use voice communication, which can include VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) calls, to trick individuals into divulging sensitive information. This term is specific to voice-based social engineering, making it the correct term for this type of attack.
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What is VoIP, and why is it often used in vishing attacks?
How does vishing differ from smishing and phishing?
What are some common techniques attackers use in vishing scams?
An attacker modifies a web application's URL by adding "../" sequences to access resources outside of the application's authorized files. What type of attack is being performed?
Cross-site scripting
Directory traversal
SQL injection
Buffer overflow
Answer Description
This attack is a directory traversal. By inserting "../" into the URL, the attacker navigates the file system hierarchy to access files and folders that are outside the intended scope of the web application. This can lead to unauthorized access to sensitive files. Directory traversal exploits occur when input validation is insufficient on file path parameters. The other options are distinct types of attacks: SQL injection involves injecting malicious SQL queries into a database query, cross-site scripting (XSS) entails injecting malicious scripts into web content viewed by other users, and a buffer overflow occurs when too much data is sent to a fixed-length memory buffer, potentially allowing an attacker to execute arbitrary code.
Ask Bash
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What is insufficient input validation, and why is it important in preventing directory traversal attacks?
How do web applications typically mitigate directory traversal attacks?
What types of sensitive files are commonly targeted in directory traversal attacks?
Which of the following examples represents a misconfiguration scenario that could lead to security vulnerabilities?
All desktop computers in an office have the latest operating system patches installed.
A system regularly receives updates to its antivirus definitions.
A web application is using HTTPS instead of HTTP to encrypt its traffic.
A server is configured with the manufacturer's default username and password for administrative access.
Answer Description
Having services running with default credentials is considered a misconfiguration because attackers often use these well-known credentials to gain unauthorized access to systems. Changing default credentials is a basic security measure that should be applied to all systems and services to prevent unauthorized access. The other options provided are not inherently misconfigurations, as regular software updates, using secure protocols, and having an up-to-date antivirus are recommended practices for securing systems.
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Why are default credentials considered a security risk?
What are other common misconfigurations that can lead to vulnerabilities?
How can organizations prevent misconfigurations in their systems?
A security analyst is reviewing the design of an embedded system. The system is designed to periodically download firmware updates from a public HTTP server and install them. The analyst notes that the update process does not validate a digital signature for the new firmware file before installation. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the MOST significant security risk in this design?
VM escape
Directory traversal
Malicious update
Time-of-check to time-of-use (TOCTOU)
Answer Description
The correct option is 'Malicious update'. The most significant vulnerability in this design is that the lack of digital signature validation allows an attacker to introduce a malicious update. An attacker could use an on-path attack to provide a compromised firmware file. Because the device does not verify the file's authenticity and integrity, it will install the malicious firmware, potentially leading to a full system compromise. VM escape is a vulnerability specific to virtualized environments. A TOCTOU attack is a type of race condition. Directory traversal is an attack to access unauthorized files. None of these other options describe the primary flaw in the described firmware update process.
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Why is validating a digital signature important in firmware updates?
What is an on-path attack, and how does it exploit the lack of digital signature validation?
How do HTTPS and digital signatures complement each other in securing firmware updates?
A company with operations in multiple countries is developing its security policies. Which of the following should it consider to ensure compliance across all its international locations?
Using a one-size-fits-all security approach
Ignoring local regulations in favor of national laws
Implementing region-specific security policies
Centralizing all security decisions at headquarters
Answer Description
Implementing region-specific security policies is crucial because it ensures compliance with the unique local regulations and addresses specific security needs of each region. A uniform approach may fail to meet varied legal requirements, leading to compliance issues.
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What are some examples of region-specific regulations that could impact security policies?
How do companies effectively develop region-specific security policies?
What challenges might arise when implementing region-specific security policies?
An organization requires a security control that verifies an ongoing network communication for signs of anomalous activities and alerts administrators if suspicious traffic patterns are detected. Which type of control aligns BEST with these requirements?
Detective control
Preventive control
Corrective control
Deterrent control
Answer Description
Detective controls are designed to identify and alert when security incidents occur or anomalies are detected, which includes monitoring network communications for suspicious activities. Preventive controls, as their name implies, aim to stop incidents from occurring, but they may not have alerting capabilities. Corrective controls are actions taken to repair the damage or restore systems after a security event, not to identify or detect them. Deterrent controls aim to discourage potential attackers but are not inherently designed for detecting anomalies within network communications.
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What are examples of detective controls?
How does a detective control differ from a preventive control?
What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), and how does it work?
Your company is revising its security strategy to better protect its network against cyber threats. As a security analyst, you have been tasked with selecting appropriate controls that would actively identify and log security breaches in real-time. Which type of control should you implement to fulfill this requirement?
Firewalls
Warning signs
Intrusion detection systems
Security awareness training
Answer Description
Detective controls are designed to identify and record incidents as they occur, which helps in analyzing and understanding the threats that the organization faces. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) are a specific example of a detective control which monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and security breaches in real-time.
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What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
What are detective controls and how do they differ from preventive controls?
What’s the difference between IDS and IPS?
Within an organization's information security governance framework, what is the primary responsibility of a security or risk committee?
To perform vulnerability assessments, penetration tests, and corrective remediation
To draft detailed runbooks and standard operating procedures for configuring security devices
To set information security strategy, endorse policies, and provide ongoing oversight of the program
To staff the security operations center and handle real-time alert triage
Answer Description
Governance committees (often called security or cybersecurity steering committees) exist to set the information-security strategy, approve or endorse policies, and provide ongoing oversight and guidance to ensure the program aligns with business objectives and risk appetite. They do not perform hands-on technical work such as configuring devices, staffing the SOC, or running vulnerability scans; those tasks belong to operational teams.
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What is the role of a security or risk committee in an organization's governance framework?
Why doesn't a security or risk committee handle technical tasks like vulnerability scans?
How does a security or risk committee align their responsibilities with an organization's risk appetite?
What method of data sanitization ensures that data can never be retrieved, by physically destroying the data storage device?
Physical destruction
Crypto-shredding
Overwriting
Degaussing
Answer Description
Physical destruction is the process of destroying the data storage device itself, rendering it unusable and ensuring that the data can no longer be accessed or recovered. Common methods include shredding, crushing, or incinerating the device. It is distinguished from other sanitization methods that may leave some potential for data recovery.
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What are examples of physical destruction methods for data sanitization?
How is physical destruction different from degaussing?
When should an organization choose physical destruction over other sanitization methods?
An employee in the finance department received an email with a spreadsheet attachment claiming to contain urgent budget corrections required by their manager. However, the spreadsheet is actually a file-based threat designed to compromise the user's system. What is the BEST action the employee should take to mitigate this threat?
Forward the email to their manager to confirm its authenticity before opening the attachment.
Ignore the email and the attachment because it might be spam, and then delete it.
Open the attachment to verify its content, then proceed with the tasks if it seems legitimate.
Report the email to the organization's security team for analysis before any further action is taken.
Answer Description
By reporting the suspicious email to the organization’s security team, the employee is following the proper protocol for dealing with potential file-based threats. This allows the security team to investigate and respond to the threat effectively, possibly preventing a security breach. Opening or ignoring the attachment could lead to system compromise, and contacting the manager directly may not stop the potential threat in time if the file is indeed malicious.
Ask Bash
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What is a file-based threat in cybersecurity?
Why is it important to report suspicious emails to the security team?
How can employees recognize potential phishing emails or file-based threats?
Which activity is MOST critical for an organization to perform when establishing an incident response capability to ensure effectiveness during security incidents?
Developing and documenting the incident response policy
Conducting regular employee background checks
Distributing the employee security handbook
Holding a retrospective meeting to discuss incident handling
Answer Description
Developing and documenting an incident response policy is the MOST critical activity for establishing an incident response capability. This policy outlines the purpose, scope, roles, responsibilities, and management commitment. It serves as the foundation for the entire incident response process. Distributing an employee handbook only communicates existing policies and procedures, conducting background checks is an HR security measure, and holding a retrospective meeting is an activity that takes place after an incident has been handled (part of the 'Lessons Learned' phase).
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Why is an incident response policy so critical?
What are the key components of an incident response policy?
How does an incident response policy differ from an employee security handbook?
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