CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) in an organization?
To outline acceptable and unacceptable use of the organization's information systems and resources.
To mandate minimum encryption key lengths for all stored data.
To define the specific disciplinary actions that will be taken for any security violation.
To document the steps required to restore business operations after a disaster.
Answer Description
An Acceptable Use Policy establishes what users are permitted and prohibited from doing when using organizational information systems and resources. While it may reference penalties for violations, its core function is to define acceptable and unacceptable behavior, thereby reducing security and legal risk.
Ask Bash
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What is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)?
Why is an AUP important for organizational security?
How does an AUP relate to penalties for misuse?
Your organization is looking to enhance its disaster recovery capabilities to ensure business continuity after an unexpected event. Which type of site provides an on-demand, operational environment that can be quickly made ready to resume critical business functions with all of the necessary hardware and software?
Warm site
Cold site
Hot site
Mobile site
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center equipped with hardware and software, configured to quickly assume operational responsibilities from a primary site in case of a disaster. This is the best option for business continuity as it enables rapid resumption of critical functions. A cold site, while being the least expensive, offers only space and utilities, requiring additional time to become operational. A warm site provides some pre-installed equipment but would still require additional time and effort to be fully operational. Therefore, a hot site offers the highest level of readiness for immediate disaster recovery.
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What are the key differences between hot, warm, and cold sites?
Why is a hot site considered the best for business continuity?
Are there any disadvantages to using a hot site?
A network administrator is configuring a new firewall. To prioritize security, the firewall is set up to block all network traffic if the device experiences a critical error or power loss. This configuration is an example of which concept?
Fail-closed
Fail-on
Fail-safe
Fail-open
Answer Description
When a system is configured to be fail-closed, also known as fail-secure, it defaults to a secure state upon failure. In this state, it will deny access or block all traffic to prevent potential security breaches. This contrasts with a fail-open system, which would allow traffic to pass through, prioritizing availability over security.
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What does 'fail-closed' mean in networking?
How does a 'fail-open' configuration differ from 'fail-closed'?
When should a 'fail-closed' configuration be used?
During a third-party risk assessment of potential cloud service providers, what topic should be emphasized in the questionnaire to ascertain the provider’s ability to maintain the confidentiality and integrity of your organization’s data?
Yearly employee turnover rates within the provider’s IT department
Percentage of the provider’s IT budget allocated to research and development
Disaster recovery time objectives for service continuity
Techniques and protocols for data encryption in transit and at rest
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Techniques and protocols for data encryption in transit and at rest'. When assessing a cloud service provider, confirming their data encryption methodologies is vital for ensuring data confidentiality and integrity. A cloud provider’s encryption practices, including the algorithms used, key management, and whether encryption is applied in transit and at rest, are crucial pieces of information for evaluating their security posture. 'Disaster recovery time objectives' are important but focus primarily on availability rather than confidentiality and integrity. 'Yearly employee turnover rates' may impact overall operational stability but does not have a direct correlation with data protection practices. 'Percentage of IT budget allocated to R&D' provides insight into the provider's investment in innovation, but it does not give a direct measure of how they handle and protect your data.
Ask Bash
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What does 'encryption in transit and at rest' mean?
How does key management impact data encryption security?
Why are specific encryption algorithms like AES considered secure?
Which of the following is an example of a possession factor that could be used for multi-factor authentication?
A password
A hardware authentication token
Eye color
A mobile app authorization request
Answer Description
A possession factor is an authentication method based on something the user physically possesses. A hardware authentication token is a small physical device that can generate a secure login code or house digital certificates and is carried by the user to provide a possession factor for authentication. Eye color is a trait, not something possessed. A password is something the user knows, and a mobile app authorization request, while delivered to a device the user possesses, by itself is not considered a possession factor until accepted and is not inherently a physical item.
Ask Bash
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What is multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
How does a hardware authentication token work?
Why isn't a mobile app authorization request considered a possession factor by itself?
What is the primary goal of employing uniform configuration standards across a company's technological environment?
To diversify system configurations, which in turn makes it harder for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities.
To allow systems to operate independently of one another, minimizing the impact of network-wide updates.
To maintain a consistent set of configurations for enhanced security and simplified management.
To tailor each system’s settings for user preference, thereby improving individual productivity.
Answer Description
The primary goal of uniform configuration standards is to establish a consistent security posture and operational behavior among the company's numerous devices and systems. This not only reduces the potential for errors but also simplifies administration and strengthens the organization's defense against common threats. Consistency makes it easier to manage updates, apply security policies, and ensure compliance with both internal guidelines and external regulations.
Ask Bash
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Why is consistency important in system configurations for security?
What tools can help enforce consistent configuration standards?
What are some risks of not using uniform configuration standards?
When establishing a Business Partners Agreement with a new vendor, what element is most crucial to ensure the protection of sensitive data?
Terms of conflict resolution processes
Clearly defined security requirements
Specific definitions of the parties involved
Regularly scheduled review cycles
Answer Description
While all listed aspects are important in their own right, clearly defined security requirements are the most critical to protect sensitive data. These requirements set the minimum security standards that the business partner must adhere to, directly impacting the safeguarding of data involved in the partnership. Elements such as review cycles and party definitions are also important, but their impact on data protection is more indirect compared to the explicit security requirements.
Ask Bash
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What are clearly defined security requirements in a Business Partners Agreement (BPA)?
Why are regular review cycles less critical than security requirements in protecting sensitive data?
How do security requirements differ from conflict resolution terms in a BPA?
What best describes a risk assessment that is conducted to evaluate the potential impact of a new business initiative before its launch?
Continuous
Recurring
One-Time
Ad Hoc
Answer Description
A 'One-Time' risk assessment is a standalone evaluation conducted to assess the risks associated with a specific event or change, such as the introduction of a new business initiative. It helps in identifying potential risks before proceeding with the project and is not part of the regular, scheduled assessments. This type of assessment is critical for making informed decisions about one-off projects or changes that are not part of the routine operational activities. 'Ad Hoc', 'Recurring', and 'Continuous' assessments are incorrect because they respectively describe assessments that are unscheduled and irregular, regularly scheduled, and ongoing monitoring.
Ask Bash
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What makes a 'One-Time' risk assessment different from regular assessments?
Why is a 'One-Time' risk assessment important before launching a new business initiative?
When should an organization choose a 'One-Time' risk assessment instead of a 'Continuous' or 'Recurring' one?
Which system should an organization implement to effectively correlate and analyze security event data across multiple sources for enhanced incident detection and response times?
A compliance reporting tool
A system that provides centralized event and log data analysis
A network sniffer
A threat intelligence platform
Answer Description
The correct answer is a system that provides centralized event and log data analysis. This tool is specifically designed for collecting, storing, and analyzing log files from various systems within an organization, providing the ability to correlate events and detect incidents more accurately. While threat intelligence platforms provide valuable information from external sources about potential threats, they do not correlate internal event data. Network sniffers are used primarily for capturing and analyzing network packets, not for event correlation. Lastly, compliance reporting tools are designed to assist with the generation of reports to demonstrate adherence to regulations, rather than providing real-time event correlation and analysis.
Ask Bash
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What is a system that provides centralized event and log data analysis?
How does a SIEM system correlate events from multiple sources?
How is a SIEM different from a threat intelligence platform?
When considering the security implications of hardware and software inventory management, which of the following is a direct consequence of NOT regularly updating the inventory of an organization's computing resources?
Challenges in provisioning adequate resources for new employees
Increased difficulty in managing software licenses and compliance
Heightened risk of security breaches due to unmanaged or unknown assets
Difficulties in the physical retrieval of devices for maintenance tasks
Answer Description
Regularly updating an organization's computing resource inventory is essential for identifying and managing vulnerabilities, as well as ensuring the security posture is up-to-date. Failure to maintain an updated inventory increases the risk of incidents because unmanaged, unknown, or unpatched resources can become vectors for security breaches. It is less about physical tracking or license compliance, and more about understanding what needs to be protected and ensuring appropriate security measures are in place.
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Why is it essential to regularly update an organization's hardware and software inventory?
What are examples of 'unmanaged or unknown assets' in an organization?
What tools can organizations use to maintain accurate hardware and software inventories?
Which encryption method ensures that all data stored on a computer's physical disk is secured, even if the disk is transferred to another machine?
File-level encryption
Container encryption
Volume encryption
Full-disk encryption
Answer Description
The correct response, 'Full-disk encryption,' ensures that all the data stored on the physical disk is secured, including the system and boot partitions, providing a high level of protection if the disk is moved or stolen. This is in contrast to 'Volume encryption,' which might only secure data on certain logical volumes and not necessarily the whole disk. 'File-level encryption' only applies to individual files, allowing for specific files to be encrypted within a system. 'Container encryption' is not a standard term within the scope of this context and can cause confusion with other types of encryptions mentioned.
Ask Bash
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Why is full-disk encryption more secure than volume encryption?
How does full-disk encryption work when the computer is booted up?
What encryption algorithms are typically used for full-disk encryption?
An organization implements a set of policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors regarding information security. What type of security control is this an example of?
Directive control
Preventive control
Corrective control
Detective control
Answer Description
Policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors are examples of directive controls. Directive controls are designed to guide or instruct individuals or systems to ensure compliance with security requirements. They establish guidelines and expectations to influence behavior. Detective controls are intended to identify and detect unwanted events or incidents after they occur. Corrective controls focus on minimizing the impact of a security incident after it has occurred. Preventive controls aim to stop unwanted events from happening in the first place.
Ask Bash
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What are directive controls in information security?
How do directive controls differ from preventive controls?
Why are policies considered a type of directive control?
An organization needs a backup facility that can quickly take over full operations with minimal downtime in the event of a disaster. Which type of site should they implement?
Hot site
Reciprocal site
Cold site
Warm site
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully equipped backup facility that is operational and ready to activate immediately after a disaster. It maintains up-to-date copies of data, hardware, and software, allowing an organization to resume normal operations rapidly. Warm sites are partially equipped and require additional time to become fully functional, while cold sites have only the basic infrastructure and need significant time to set up equipment and restore data.
Ask Bash
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What is the main difference between a hot site and a warm site?
How does a hot site stay synchronized with the primary site?
Why might an organization choose a cold site instead of a hot site?
Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization to ensure ongoing effective security compliance for international data protection regulations?
Implementing a strong password policy across the organization
Conducting regular internal and external compliance audits
Encrypting all data stored on the organization's servers
Limiting data access to a few key employees
Answer Description
Regular compliance audits are the best approach to ensure that an organization is meeting international data protection regulations. Audits provide an objective examination and provide insights into compliance status while identifying areas for improvement.
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Why are compliance audits important for international data protection regulations?
How do internal and external compliance audits differ?
What specific areas do compliance audits focus on in relation to data protection regulations?
A system administrator deployed a patch to a critical virtual server. Shortly after the deployment, the server began experiencing intermittent crashes. The administrator needs to revert the server to its state immediately before the patch was applied to minimize downtime. Which of the following is the FASTEST method to achieve this?
Restore from the most recent full backup.
Rebuild the server from the base image.
Revert to the latest snapshot.
Perform an incremental backup restoration.
Answer Description
Reverting to a snapshot is the fastest way to restore a virtual machine to its state at a specific point in time, such as right before a patch or update. Snapshots capture the entire state of the VM, allowing for a near-instantaneous rollback. While restoring from a full or incremental backup would also work, these processes are significantly slower and more resource-intensive, making them less ideal for this scenario.
Ask Bash
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What is a virtual machine snapshot?
How is a snapshot different from a backup?
Why is reverting to a snapshot faster than a backup restoration?
Which data type specifically refers to information whose collection, storage, and transmission are governed by external laws or industry regulations such as HIPAA for medical records or PCI-DSS for credit-card information?
Public
Trade secret
Intellectual property
Regulated
Answer Description
Regulated data is subject to statutes or industry frameworks that prescribe how it must be secured (for example, HIPAA, FERPA, GDPR, or PCI-DSS). Because non-compliance can trigger fines and legal liability, organizations must implement controls such as encryption, strict access control, and auditing. Other data types like trade secrets or intellectual property may be highly valuable but are not dictated by external regulations in the same way.
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What is HIPAA and how does it apply to regulated data?
How does PCI-DSS help secure regulated data in the context of credit card information?
What’s the difference between regulated data and trade secrets?
A security analyst implements intrusion detection sensors and automated log analysis tools. The primary purpose of these tools is to identify anomalies or disruptions in network traffic and system activities and then trigger an alert. Which type of security control does this implementation represent?
Preventive
Detective
Deterrent
Corrective
Answer Description
This scenario describes a detective control. Detective controls are designed to find and alert on security incidents after they have already occurred or as they are happening. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) and log analysis tools fit this description perfectly as they monitor for and report on suspicious activity, rather than stopping it outright.
- Preventive controls aim to stop an incident before it happens (e.g., a firewall blocking a malicious IP address).
- Corrective controls are used to limit the damage and restore systems after an incident has been detected (e.g., restoring from a backup after a ransomware attack).
- Deterrent controls are meant to discourage potential attackers (e.g., warning banners).
Ask Bash
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What is the main difference between detective and preventive controls?
How does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) work?
What are examples of automated log analysis tools, and why are they important?
During an audit, a security administrator discovers that several accounting users can create and delete network shares even though they only need to read and update invoices stored on a file server. Which corrective action BEST enforces the principle of least privilege when the accounts are remediated?
Enable single sign-on (SSO) so users authenticate through the corporate identity provider
Upgrade each account to local administrator to eliminate future permission requests
Strip any permissions that are not required for invoice processing and leave only the necessary read/write rights
Apply time-based login restrictions that block the users from accessing the file server after business hours
Answer Description
Least privilege requires each user to have no more permissions than are strictly necessary. Removing the ability to create or delete shares-or any other rights not tied to invoice processing-satisfies the principle. Granting full administrative rights, adding MFA, or limiting login hours may improve security in other ways but do not reduce the scope of existing permissions to the absolute minimum.
Ask Bash
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What is the Principle of Least Privilege (PoLP)?
How is the Principle of Least Privilege implemented in real-world scenarios?
What are the risks of not following the Principle of Least Privilege?
What does the term 'complexity' relate to in the context of security operations?
The number of users that have access to a system
The difficulty level of an attacker required to exploit a system
The extent to which systems, processes, and technologies are interconnected and intricate, potentially making them harder to secure
The level of encryption used to protect data
Answer Description
Complexity in security operations pertains to the intricacy of systems, processes, and technologies that could potentially increase their vulnerability to attacks. More complex systems are harder to manage and secure, because the likelihood of misconfiguration and undiscovered vulnerabilities increases. Simplifying systems can lead to more robust and easier to manage security postures.
Ask Bash
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Why does increased complexity make systems harder to secure?
What strategies can be used to reduce complexity in security operations?
How does complexity in systems relate to specific types of attacks?
Which of the given options is a hashing algorithm that creates a 128 bit fixed output?
SHA1
MD5
RIP128
SHA2
Answer Description
MD5 (Message Digest 5) creates a 128 bit fixed output. SHA1 creates 160 bit outputs, SHA2 creates 256 bit outputs and RIP128 is a thing we made up that sounds pretty cool.
Ask Bash
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What is the main purpose of a hashing algorithm?
Why is MD5 considered outdated for security purposes?
What is the difference between MD5 and SHA1?
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