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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

You are a network security technician at a mid-sized company. Your employer is planning for significant growth and the CIO has tasked you with implementing a system to consolidate all critical network device logs to a central location. The system should support logs from all routers, firewalls, switches and business critical servers and should send alerts in the event of security issues. What type of solution would best meet these requirements?

  • Central log point

  • DLP

  • SIEM

  • Hardware security module

Question 2 of 20

An organization is designing a customer-facing web service that runs on several virtual machines behind a load balancer. Management insists that the application must keep functioning even if one server crashes or a software bug causes a container to fail. Within a high-availability architecture, which term best describes the ability of the system to continue operating under these component-level failures?

  • The geographical diversity of redundant systems to prevent localized disasters from causing data loss.

  • The capacity of a system to maintain function despite failures or challenges to its components.

  • The act of encrypting data to protect it from unauthorized access during transmission.

  • The frequency at which system backups are performed to prevent data loss.

Question 3 of 20

A large financial institution is preparing to revise its security protocols to enhance the protection of client data. The institution has multiple international offices and must comply with various regional encryption standards. Which of the following should be the primary consideration when updating the company-wide encryption standard?

  • Implement the least strict regional encryption standard to minimize complications in international operations.

  • Follow only the regional encryption standards of the country where the financial institution's headquarters is located.

  • Develop a new encryption standard internally that is different from all regional standards but meets the minimum required security level.

  • Adopt the strictest regional encryption standard as the company-wide standard to ensure compliance across all locations.

Question 4 of 20

A security engineer wants to ensure that even if two users have the same password, their stored password hashes are different. Which of the following techniques should be implemented?

  • Use a different hashing algorithm for each user.

  • Add unique data to each password before hashing.

  • Implement asymmetric encryption for password storage.

  • Store passwords in plain text for verification.

Question 5 of 20

A company has various security policies and controls in place. Which of the following is the BEST action to take to ensure these policies and controls remain effective and aligned with current threats?

  • Provide comprehensive security training to all employees on a weekly basis

  • Limit user privileges to the minimum necessary for job performance

  • Conduct regular reviews and updates of security policies and controls

  • Install the latest antivirus software on all company devices

Question 6 of 20

A company is planning to integrate their authentication processes with a third-party service provider to allow employees to use a single set of credentials across both systems. To enhance the user experience and provide secure access to the services offered by the partner, which solution would be the BEST to implement?

  • Creating additional user credentials for each employee within the third-party service provider's system

  • Implementing a federated identity management system

  • Using a central access policy service to manage application access across entities

  • Adopting a web authentication standard

Question 7 of 20

A security administrator needs to implement a control that actively filters network traffic between the company's internal network and the untrusted external internet. The goal is to block unauthorized access and malicious traffic based on a set of security rules. Which of the following security controls BEST fits this requirement?

  • Firewall

  • Fencing

  • Incident response plan

  • Security awareness training

Question 8 of 20

A security administrator is implementing hardening measures on a critical server to reduce the risk of compromise. The administrator's primary concern is preventing an attacker who has successfully phished a user's password from gaining administrative access. Which of the following controls would be the MOST effective mitigation for this specific threat?

  • Enforcing a strong password complexity and rotation policy

  • Enforcing multifactor authentication (MFA) on all administrative accounts

  • Applying the latest security patches to the operating system

  • Implementing a host-based firewall to restrict network traffic

Question 9 of 20

Which of the following statements best describes the primary benefit of conducting static code analysis during the software development lifecycle?

  • It identifies potential security vulnerabilities within the source code before the application is compiled or run, which can be addressed to prevent future exploits.

  • It ensures that the source code adheres to the coding standards set by the organization to improve readability and maintenance.

  • It verifies that the code will compile without errors, ensuring that runtime environments are stable and less prone to crashes.

  • It automates the review process, thus enabling developers to focus solely on the implementation of new features rather than code security.

Question 10 of 20

Which of the following authorization models uses a set of protocols designed for passing the authorization and authentication information of a user between different security domains?

  • Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

  • Federated identity management

  • Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

  • Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

Question 11 of 20

Within a secure data center, engineers have enclosed an entire row of server racks inside a conductive mesh that blocks both incoming and outgoing electromagnetic fields. What is the primary security purpose of deploying this enclosure?

  • Physically deter intruders by acting as a hardened barrier that delays forced entry

  • Provide redundant environmental controls such as precise humidity and temperature regulation

  • Detect unauthorized access attempts by monitoring ambient radio-frequency signals

  • Prevent electromagnetic eavesdropping and data leakage by blocking emissions

Question 12 of 20

What type of authentication factor requires a user to present a physical object such as a security token or a smart card to gain access to a system?

  • Something you are

  • Something you have

  • Something you know

  • Somewhere you are

Question 13 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing the company's disaster recovery plan (DRP). The analyst notes that the DRP focuses heavily on restoring critical business functions but lacks a comprehensive inventory of IT hardware, software, and data assets. Which of the following BEST describes the risk associated with this omission?

  • Recovery will be faster as teams can focus on broad functions rather than being slowed down by the details of specific assets.

  • Recovery efforts may be delayed and incomplete because there is no detailed inventory to guide prioritization and restoration.

  • The lack of an inventory primarily represents a financial risk for insurance claims but does not affect the technical recovery process.

  • The DRP's effectiveness is not impacted, as the primary goal of restoring business functions makes a specific asset inventory redundant.

Question 14 of 20

Your organization is handling sensitive government contracts and must ensure that information related to these projects is guarded against unauthorized physical access. In accordance with data classification policies, which of the following is the BEST way to handle such data?

  • Enable detailed logging of all access to the data for audit purposes

  • Encrypt all data and frequently change encryption keys

  • Institute policies for secure disposal of printouts and storage media containing the data

  • Store the data in a physically secure location and enforce strict access controls

Question 15 of 20

A cybersecurity team detects a prolonged and sophisticated cyber-espionage operation targeting critical infrastructure across several countries. The attackers are using zero-day exploits and custom malware to infiltrate secure systems and exfiltrate sensitive data. Which threat actor is MOST likely responsible for this attack?

  • Nation-state actor

  • Insider threat

  • Organized crime group

  • Hacktivist

Question 16 of 20

Your team has been tasked with performing a penetration test on the organization's network, which they are well-acquainted with from previous security audits. What is the FIRST step they should take to ensure a structured and effective penetration testing process?

  • Running a full vulnerability scan to identify all potential weak points within the system.

  • Determining the scope of the penetration test to establish the extent and boundaries of the testing engagement.

  • Conducting reconnaissance to gather additional information about the target environment.

  • Directly attempting to exploit known vulnerabilities based on the team's familiarity with the system.

Question 17 of 20

During a regular security scan of the network, you find that several user laptops are infected with the same malware. After cross-referencing the laptop users with the reverse proxy logs, you find that they all accessed an industry news website the day before. You believe your organization may have been specifically targeted. What type of attack best describes this scenario?

  • Spoofing

  • Watering hole

  • SQL injection

  • SYN Flood

Question 18 of 20

A security operations center (SOC) manager notices that analysts spend significant time manually reviewing logs from firewalls, servers, and intrusion-detection systems. To accelerate incident detection and improve response times, which type of system should the organization deploy to automatically correlate and analyze security events from these diverse sources?

  • A compliance reporting tool

  • A network protocol analyzer

  • A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution

  • A threat intelligence platform

Question 19 of 20

An organization recently relocated its primary data center to a new building. Senior management wants to ensure the facility is protected against theft, vandalism, and natural disasters. The security administrator is asked to recommend controls such as bollards at entrances, badge readers on doors, CCTV cameras in hallways, and biometric locks for the server room. Under which category of security control would these recommendations be classified?

  • Operational Controls

  • Managerial Controls

  • Technical Controls

  • Physical Controls

Question 20 of 20

During an internal security review, your organization decides to replace its legacy perimeter-based defenses with a Zero Trust architecture. Which statement most accurately summarizes the guiding principle that distinguishes the Zero Trust Model from traditional approaches?

  • Enforcing multi-factor authentication for all access requests

  • Assuming no user, device, or network traffic should be trusted by default

  • Trusting all users and devices within the network perimeter

  • Granting least-privilege access to all users