CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An organization needs to guarantee that employees cannot deny sending electronic documents they have authored. Which of the following technologies BEST fulfills this requirement?
Implementing digital signatures
Requiring strong authentication methods
Encrypting documents with a symmetric key
Applying hashing algorithms to documents
Answer Description
Digital signatures use asymmetric encryption to associate a sender's identity with a document uniquely. This provides non-repudiation by ensuring that the sender cannot deny authoring the document, and the recipient can verify its authenticity. Strong authentication verifies user identities but does not prevent users from denying their actions. Hashing ensures data integrity but does not link actions to specific users. Encryption protects data confidentiality but does not provide proof of the sender's identity.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How do digital signatures provide non-repudiation?
What is the difference between hashing and digital signatures?
Why doesn't symmetric encryption provide non-repudiation?
What best describes the practice of giving users only the permissions they need to perform their work tasks?
Permission auditing
Complete autonomy
The principle of least privilege
Access all areas
Answer Description
The principle of least privilege is a security concept where a user is given the minimum levels of access, or permissions, needed to perform his or her job functions. This principle limits the access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary to perform their work. This helps to reduce the attack surface and minimize the potential for misuse of high-level access rights. The other options are incorrect because 'Complete autonomy' refers to having total independent control which does not limit permissions, 'Access all areas' typically implies no restriction on access permissions, and 'Permission auditing' is a process of reviewing permissions, not assigning them.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is the principle of least privilege important in cybersecurity?
How is the principle of least privilege implemented in organizations?
What is the difference between least privilege and permission auditing?
A security analyst needs to implement a solution that can collect, aggregate, and correlate log data from various sources like servers, firewalls, and applications. The primary goal is to provide real-time analysis and automated alerting for potential security threats. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate technology to meet these requirements?
Advanced network traffic analyzer
Next-generation firewall with deep packet inspection
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
Patch management and deployment agents
Answer Description
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is the most appropriate solution. SIEM platforms are specifically designed to aggregate log data from diverse sources, normalize it, and use correlation rules to identify security threats and generate alerts in real-time. Patch management agents are used for deploying software updates, a network traffic analyzer focuses on packet-level data rather than system or application logs, and while a next-generation firewall is an important source of logs, it does not aggregate and correlate logs from other systems across the enterprise.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a centralized log management platform?
How does centralized log management enhance security?
What are some examples of centralized log management tools?
During a security assessment, a consultant documents every web API, open port, user interface, and wireless connection that an attacker could attempt to leverage to compromise the organization's network. Which term best describes this collection of potential entry points?
Defense in depth
Risk exposure
Security perimeter
Attack surface
Answer Description
The correct answer is Attack surface. The attack surface encompasses all possible points where an attacker could attempt to access or extract data from a system. By identifying and minimizing the attack surface, organizations can reduce the risk of security breaches.
- Security perimeter refers to the boundary that separates the protected environment from the outside world.
- Defense in depth is a layered security approach that implements multiple security measures.
- Risk exposure pertains to the potential loss resulting from threats exploiting vulnerabilities, not the vulnerabilities themselves.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an attack surface in cybersecurity?
How is an attack surface different from a security perimeter?
Why is minimizing the attack surface important?
A security professional is assessing the network infrastructure of a company and discovers that wireless access points are broadcasting an open network without any form of encryption. What is the BEST action to improve the security posture regarding this finding?
Decreasing the signal strength to limit the wireless range
Changing the Service Set Identifier (SSID) to a less common name
Enabling WPA3 on all wireless access points
Implementing an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) to monitor wireless traffic
Answer Description
Enabling WPA3 on wireless access points ensures that the wireless communication is encrypted, providing confidentiality and integrity for the data transmitted over the air. WPA3 is currently the strongest form of wireless security generally available, which protects against unauthorized access and eavesdropping.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is WPA3, and how does it improve wireless security?
How does encryption enhance wireless network security?
Why isn’t changing the SSID or reducing signal range sufficient for security?
Which term describes the specific upper limit of risk exposure that an organization is willing to accept for a given activity, beyond which additional mitigation or other action must be taken?
Key risk indicator (KRI)
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
Risk threshold
Answer Description
Risk threshold sets the measurable boundary between acceptable and unacceptable risk. When exposure rises above this threshold, the organization must treat, transfer, avoid, or otherwise address the risk.
- Risk appetite is the broad, overall level of risk an organization is willing to pursue or retain.
- Risk tolerance defines the amount of variation from objectives that can be absorbed for individual risks.
- A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that signals increasing or decreasing risk but does not set the boundary itself.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the relationship between risk threshold and risk appetite?
How is a risk threshold determined in an organization?
How does a key risk indicator (KRI) differ from a risk threshold?
Your company has historically avoided issuing company-owned mobile or wireless devices. A new initiative now seeks to provide laptops to employees, but leadership requires that any data stored locally on the device be encrypted at all times. Which type of drive would meet this requirement?
RAID 0 array
Full-disk encryption software (BitLocker)
Virtual private network (VPN)
Self-encrypting drive (SED)
Answer Description
A self-encrypting drive (SED) contains dedicated hardware in its controller that automatically encrypts every bit of data written to the disk and decrypts it transparently when read. Because the cryptographic operations occur on the drive itself rather than through the host CPU or software, the entire contents-including the operating system, applications, and user files-remain fully encrypted at rest. The other options do not provide built-in, hardware-level full-disk encryption.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does an SED (Self-Encrypting Drive) differ from software-based encryption?
What happens if the encryption key for an SED is lost?
Can SEDs protect data if the laptop is stolen while powered on?
You are the IT manager overseeing a security assessment project. To ensure the third-party security firm's penetration test activities align with company policies and legal requirements, which document must be established to detail the testing boundaries, methods, timelines, and communication protocols?
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)
Master Service Agreement (MSA)
Rules of Engagement (ROE)
Answer Description
The Rules of Engagement (ROE) document is essential for outlining the specific parameters of a penetration test. It details the scope (what will and will not be tested), the methods to be used, testing timelines, communication protocols, and other constraints to ensure the test is conducted safely and legally. An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) governs how an organization's employees may use its IT resources and is not intended for external vendors conducting security tests. An Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA) is a document that defines the security requirements for connecting the IT systems of two different organizations on an ongoing basis. A Master Service Agreement (MSA) is a high-level contract that establishes the general terms for a long-term business relationship with a vendor, while the specifics of a single project like a penetration test are detailed in a Statement of Work (SOW), and the testing conduct itself is governed by the ROE.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a Rules of Engagement (ROE) document in the context of penetration testing?
Why is an Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) different from a Rules of Engagement document?
What is the purpose of an Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA) during partnerships?
A company has a policy that requires employees to update an asset inventory list on a weekly basis, documenting the current status, location, and assigned user for every workstation, server, and mobile device in the environment. Which of the following reasons BEST explains why this policy is important for security?
It ensures that all devices are equipped with the most recent operating system available.
It provides a reference for scheduling routine maintenance and cleaning for hardware devices.
It allows an organization to quickly identify systems that may be compromised during a security breach.
It informs purchase decisions when procuring new computing resources.
Answer Description
Maintaining an accurate and regularly updated inventory list helps an organization track its assets and detect unauthorized devices quickly. In the event of a security breach, knowing exactly what hardware and software assets exist, as well as who is using them, allows for faster identification of potentially compromised systems. Such a list would also be invaluable during incident response to ensure that responders can quickly assess the full scope of an incident.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is maintaining an inventory list critical for security during a breach?
How does an inventory list help with detecting unauthorized devices?
What specific details are typically included in an asset inventory list?
An administrator is tasked with enhancing the password policy to protect against unauthorized attempts to guess user credentials. Which of the following would be the BEST method to mitigate the risk of these types of attacks?
Increase the minimum password length requirement to 16 characters
Require users to change their password every 30 days
Implement an account lockout policy after three unsuccessful login attempts
Set up alerts to monitor accounts for a high number of failed login attempts
Answer Description
Account lockout policies are specifically designed to prevent brute force attacks by locking an account after a certain number of failed login attempts. This directly mitigates the risk by stopping the attacker from continuously trying different password combinations. Using longer passwords increases the difficulty of success for an attacker but does not block continuous attempts. Frequent password changes can be counterproductive as they might lead to weaker password choices by users. Monitoring for failed logins is a reactive measure which helps in identifying that a brute force attack may be occurring but does not prevent it.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an account lockout policy and how does it work?
Why are longer passwords not enough to prevent brute force attacks?
Why is requiring frequent password changes potentially counterproductive?
During an organization's risk management activities, how should the risk register be maintained?
It should be finalized after the initial risk assessment and left unchanged for the remainder of the project or operational period.
It should be updated only when a new risk is first identified.
It should be modified only if a risk actually materializes and causes an incident.
It is a living document that must be reviewed and updated on a regular schedule, even when no new risks are identified.
Answer Description
The risk register is not a static list created once and forgotten. It is a living document that should be reviewed at defined intervals (for example, during regular risk reviews, project milestones, or after significant environmental changes) even if no new risks have been detected. Regular updates allow the organization to record changes in likelihood or impact, document mitigation efforts, retire risks that are no longer relevant, and add emerging risks. Updating only when a new risk is discovered-or worse, after a risk materializes-fails to keep decision-makers informed of the current risk landscape.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is the risk register called a 'living document'?
What are examples of events that should prompt an update to the risk register?
What are the consequences of not regularly updating the risk register?
An organization wants to detect unauthorized attempts to access their sensitive data. They decide to embed uniquely crafted bait elements within their data repositories that will trigger alerts when interacted with. Which of the following deception technologies would BEST achieve this objective?
Using honeytokens
Implementing honeyfiles
Setting up a honeynet
Deploying a honeypot
Answer Description
Honeytokens are uniquely crafted bait elements embedded within data systems to detect unauthorized access. They can be any type of data, such as fake records or credentials, that appear legitimate but are monitored for interactions. When a honeytoken is accessed or used, it triggers an alert, allowing the security team to identify and respond to potential security breaches. While a honeyfile is a specific type of honeytoken in the form of a file, using honeytokens provides a broader approach, not limited to just files. Honeypots and honeynets involve setting up decoy systems or networks, which are more suited for detecting external attackers rather than monitoring interactions within data repositories.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between honeytokens and honeyfiles?
How do honeytokens trigger alerts when accessed?
How are honeytokens different from honeypots and honeynets?
What step must be performed to ensure that data cannot be reconstructed from decommissioned hard drives containing sensitive information?
Standard formatting
Repurposing without modification
Sanitization
Degaussing SSDs
Answer Description
Sanitization is the correct answer because it includes processes such as wiping, degaussing, or physically destroying storage media to prevent the reconstruction of data. Degaussing is not suitable for solid-state drives (SSDs), and a simple format is often incomplete as it may leave data recoverable with the right tools. Therefore, for secure decommissioning, sanitation procedures that are appropriate for the media type must be used.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the different methods of sanitization?
Why is degaussing unsuitable for SSDs?
What makes formatting an incomplete method for sanitization?
As the IT security specialist for your company, you have noticed an unusual increase in employees reporting suspicious emails that attempt to lure them into providing their login credentials. The email claims that the company's email system is undergoing maintenance and employees need to log in to a special portal to continue having access to their emails. Which type of attack is most likely occurring?
Smishing
Typosquatting
Phishing
Vishing
Answer Description
This scenario describes a phishing attack, which is a form of social engineering where attackers masquerade as a trustworthy entity in an email to distribute malicious links or gather sensitive information like login credentials. The described situation fits the classic pattern of a phishing attempt through email, exploiting the credibility of 'system maintenance' to deceive employees into providing their information. It is not a vishing attack because that involves using phone calls to obtain confidential information. Smishing attacks involve the use of SMS texts, not emails. While typosquatting could be used in conjunction with phishing, it specifically involves registering domains that are slight misspellings of legitimate company domains and there is no mention of this detail in the scenario.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are common signs of a phishing email?
How is phishing different from vishing and smishing?
How can organizations defend against phishing attacks?
A financial services company is experiencing frequent timeouts on its public-facing web application during peak trading hours. An investigation reveals that while multiple web servers are available, all user traffic is being directed to a single server, causing it to become overloaded. Which of the following should be implemented to distribute user requests across all available servers and improve application availability?
Network segmentation
A software-defined wide area network (SD-WAN)
Failover clustering
Load balancing
Answer Description
Load balancing is the appropriate solution for distributing incoming network traffic across multiple servers, which prevents any single server from becoming overwhelmed. This directly addresses the scenario where all traffic is hitting one server. Failover clustering is a high-availability technique where a redundant server takes over if the primary server fails, but it does not inherently distribute traffic across multiple active servers. Network segmentation is used to divide a network into smaller, isolated zones for security and traffic management, not for distributing load to servers. A software-defined wide area network (SD-WAN) is a technology for managing and optimizing WAN connections between sites, not for distributing application load within a data center.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is load balancing and how does it work?
How is load balancing different from failover clustering?
What are some common load balancing algorithms used to distribute traffic?
A security architect is creating a resilience plan for a new hybrid cloud deployment. The architect has noted that ensuring patch availability from all third-party vendors is a critical consideration. What is the primary security-related justification for this emphasis on patch availability?
To enhance the graphical user interface
To ensure compatibility with legacy systems
To increase the system's processing speed
To fix security vulnerabilities and bugs
Answer Description
Patch availability is important because patches are released to fix security vulnerabilities and bugs in software, improving the security posture of the system. According to CISA, attackers may target vulnerabilities for months or even years after updates are available, so installing patches as soon as possible is critical. Without timely patch deployment, systems can remain susceptible to exploits and attacks.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a patch in software security?
Why are unpatched vulnerabilities risky for enterprises?
How do enterprises manage patch deployment efficiently?
A smartphone user jailbreaks their device to install applications from unapproved sources. Which of the following best describes the primary security risk introduced by this action?
The device is more susceptible to malware because the manufacturer's security controls are bypassed.
The device receives security patches more quickly from the developer community.
The device's performance is significantly enhanced by removing pre-installed applications.
The device's warranty is voided, preventing official repairs.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the device becomes more susceptible to malware. Jailbreaking removes the operating system's built-in security features, such as sandboxing and code signing, which are designed to protect the device and its data. This allows unvetted applications from third-party sources to be installed, which can contain malware or exploit the elevated privileges gained through jailbreaking. While voiding the warranty is a likely consequence, it is a support issue, not the primary security risk. Jailbreaking can sometimes lead to system instability and crashes rather than a guaranteed performance enhancement. Furthermore, jailbreaking prevents the installation of official OS updates, which include critical security patches, making the device less secure over time.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is jailbreaking, and why does it bypass security controls?
What is sandboxing, and how does it protect devices?
Why are third-party app sources considered a security risk?
Which of the following statements BEST describes who is responsible for securing the application layer (for example, patching application code and mitigating application-level vulnerabilities) under the cloud shared-responsibility model?
The customer is always responsible, regardless of the service model.
In IaaS the provider secures applications, whereas in SaaS the customer does.
Responsibility shifts by service model: customers secure the application layer in IaaS (and generally in PaaS), but the provider secures it in SaaS.
The cloud service provider is always responsible, no matter which service model is used.
Answer Description
Under the shared-responsibility model, duties move up the stack as you transition from IaaS to SaaS:
- IaaS: The customer controls and secures the guest OS and anything above it, including the application code.
- PaaS: The provider secures the underlying OS and runtime, but the customer still secures any applications they develop and deploy on the platform.
- SaaS: The provider operates and patches the application itself, while the customer focuses on data protection, identity, and configuration. Therefore, the most accurate statement is that responsibility varies by service model: the customer handles the application layer in IaaS and usually in PaaS, whereas the provider handles it in SaaS.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the shared-responsibility model in cloud computing?
What does the customer secure in the IaaS service model?
How does responsibility differ between PaaS and SaaS in the shared-responsibility model?
What is a primary security risk associated with systems that cannot be updated with patches?
Higher costs associated with replacing outdated technology
Increased vulnerability to exploitation due to unaddressed security flaws
Decreased performance due to outdated components
More frequent need for system restarts
Answer Description
Systems that cannot be patched are at a higher risk of being exploited as they cannot receive updates to fix known vulnerabilities. This leaves these systems exposed to potential attacks that exploit these unpatched vulnerabilities. Keeping systems up-to-date with the latest patches is crucial in protecting against known threats. While answers involving obsolete technology or the cost of replacement might seem relevant, they do not directly address the primary security risk which is the susceptibility to exploitation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why are unpatched systems more vulnerable to exploitation?
What is the role of patches in cybersecurity?
How can organizations manage systems that cannot be patched?
Which of the following statements BEST describes a multinational organization's obligation regarding information-security regulations?
It must comply with the relevant regulations of every country in which it operates or whose residents' data it handles.
It must comply only with the information-security regulations of the country where its corporate headquarters is located.
It must comply only with the regulations of the country where its primary data centers are physically located.
It must comply only with internationally recognized voluntary standards such as ISO/IEC 27001.
Answer Description
A multinational enterprise must comply with the data-protection and information-security laws of every jurisdiction in which it operates or whose residents' data it processes. Regulations such as the EU GDPR expressly apply to organizations outside the EU if they offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, people in the EU; similar extraterritorial or local rules exist in many other regions. Limiting compliance to the headquarters country, data-center location, or voluntary standards would leave the organization exposed to fines, legal action, and reputational damage.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the EU GDPR, and why is it significant for multinational organizations?
What are examples of extraterritorial data protection laws similar to the GDPR?
How does ISO/IEC 27001 differ from regulatory compliance?
Nice!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.