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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

An organization needs to guarantee that employees cannot deny sending electronic documents they have authored. Which of the following technologies BEST fulfills this requirement?

  • Implementing digital signatures

  • Requiring strong authentication methods

  • Encrypting documents with a symmetric key

  • Applying hashing algorithms to documents

Question 2 of 20

What best describes the practice of giving users only the permissions they need to perform their work tasks?

  • Permission auditing

  • Complete autonomy

  • The principle of least privilege

  • Access all areas

Question 3 of 20

A security analyst needs to implement a solution that can collect, aggregate, and correlate log data from various sources like servers, firewalls, and applications. The primary goal is to provide real-time analysis and automated alerting for potential security threats. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate technology to meet these requirements?

  • Advanced network traffic analyzer

  • Next-generation firewall with deep packet inspection

  • Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

  • Patch management and deployment agents

Question 4 of 20

During a security assessment, a consultant documents every web API, open port, user interface, and wireless connection that an attacker could attempt to leverage to compromise the organization's network. Which term best describes this collection of potential entry points?

  • Defense in depth

  • Risk exposure

  • Security perimeter

  • Attack surface

Question 5 of 20

A security professional is assessing the network infrastructure of a company and discovers that wireless access points are broadcasting an open network without any form of encryption. What is the BEST action to improve the security posture regarding this finding?

  • Decreasing the signal strength to limit the wireless range

  • Changing the Service Set Identifier (SSID) to a less common name

  • Enabling WPA3 on all wireless access points

  • Implementing an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) to monitor wireless traffic

Question 6 of 20

Which term describes the specific upper limit of risk exposure that an organization is willing to accept for a given activity, beyond which additional mitigation or other action must be taken?

  • Key risk indicator (KRI)

  • Risk appetite

  • Risk tolerance

  • Risk threshold

Question 7 of 20

Your company has historically avoided issuing company-owned mobile or wireless devices. A new initiative now seeks to provide laptops to employees, but leadership requires that any data stored locally on the device be encrypted at all times. Which type of drive would meet this requirement?

  • RAID 0 array

  • Full-disk encryption software (BitLocker)

  • Virtual private network (VPN)

  • Self-encrypting drive (SED)

Question 8 of 20

You are the IT manager overseeing a security assessment project. To ensure the third-party security firm's penetration test activities align with company policies and legal requirements, which document must be established to detail the testing boundaries, methods, timelines, and communication protocols?

  • Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

  • Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)

  • Master Service Agreement (MSA)

  • Rules of Engagement (ROE)

Question 9 of 20

A company has a policy that requires employees to update an asset inventory list on a weekly basis, documenting the current status, location, and assigned user for every workstation, server, and mobile device in the environment. Which of the following reasons BEST explains why this policy is important for security?

  • It ensures that all devices are equipped with the most recent operating system available.

  • It provides a reference for scheduling routine maintenance and cleaning for hardware devices.

  • It allows an organization to quickly identify systems that may be compromised during a security breach.

  • It informs purchase decisions when procuring new computing resources.

Question 10 of 20

An administrator is tasked with enhancing the password policy to protect against unauthorized attempts to guess user credentials. Which of the following would be the BEST method to mitigate the risk of these types of attacks?

  • Increase the minimum password length requirement to 16 characters

  • Require users to change their password every 30 days

  • Implement an account lockout policy after three unsuccessful login attempts

  • Set up alerts to monitor accounts for a high number of failed login attempts

Question 11 of 20

During an organization's risk management activities, how should the risk register be maintained?

  • It should be finalized after the initial risk assessment and left unchanged for the remainder of the project or operational period.

  • It should be updated only when a new risk is first identified.

  • It should be modified only if a risk actually materializes and causes an incident.

  • It is a living document that must be reviewed and updated on a regular schedule, even when no new risks are identified.

Question 12 of 20

An organization wants to detect unauthorized attempts to access their sensitive data. They decide to embed uniquely crafted bait elements within their data repositories that will trigger alerts when interacted with. Which of the following deception technologies would BEST achieve this objective?

  • Using honeytokens

  • Implementing honeyfiles

  • Setting up a honeynet

  • Deploying a honeypot

Question 13 of 20

What step must be performed to ensure that data cannot be reconstructed from decommissioned hard drives containing sensitive information?

  • Standard formatting

  • Repurposing without modification

  • Sanitization

  • Degaussing SSDs

Question 14 of 20

As the IT security specialist for your company, you have noticed an unusual increase in employees reporting suspicious emails that attempt to lure them into providing their login credentials. The email claims that the company's email system is undergoing maintenance and employees need to log in to a special portal to continue having access to their emails. Which type of attack is most likely occurring?

  • Smishing

  • Typosquatting

  • Phishing

  • Vishing

Question 15 of 20

A financial services company is experiencing frequent timeouts on its public-facing web application during peak trading hours. An investigation reveals that while multiple web servers are available, all user traffic is being directed to a single server, causing it to become overloaded. Which of the following should be implemented to distribute user requests across all available servers and improve application availability?

  • Network segmentation

  • A software-defined wide area network (SD-WAN)

  • Failover clustering

  • Load balancing

Question 16 of 20

A security architect is creating a resilience plan for a new hybrid cloud deployment. The architect has noted that ensuring patch availability from all third-party vendors is a critical consideration. What is the primary security-related justification for this emphasis on patch availability?

  • To enhance the graphical user interface

  • To ensure compatibility with legacy systems

  • To increase the system's processing speed

  • To fix security vulnerabilities and bugs

Question 17 of 20

A smartphone user jailbreaks their device to install applications from unapproved sources. Which of the following best describes the primary security risk introduced by this action?

  • The device is more susceptible to malware because the manufacturer's security controls are bypassed.

  • The device receives security patches more quickly from the developer community.

  • The device's performance is significantly enhanced by removing pre-installed applications.

  • The device's warranty is voided, preventing official repairs.

Question 18 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST describes who is responsible for securing the application layer (for example, patching application code and mitigating application-level vulnerabilities) under the cloud shared-responsibility model?

  • The customer is always responsible, regardless of the service model.

  • In IaaS the provider secures applications, whereas in SaaS the customer does.

  • Responsibility shifts by service model: customers secure the application layer in IaaS (and generally in PaaS), but the provider secures it in SaaS.

  • The cloud service provider is always responsible, no matter which service model is used.

Question 19 of 20

What is a primary security risk associated with systems that cannot be updated with patches?

  • Higher costs associated with replacing outdated technology

  • Increased vulnerability to exploitation due to unaddressed security flaws

  • Decreased performance due to outdated components

  • More frequent need for system restarts

Question 20 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST describes a multinational organization's obligation regarding information-security regulations?

  • It must comply with the relevant regulations of every country in which it operates or whose residents' data it handles.

  • It must comply only with the information-security regulations of the country where its corporate headquarters is located.

  • It must comply only with the regulations of the country where its primary data centers are physically located.

  • It must comply only with internationally recognized voluntary standards such as ISO/IEC 27001.