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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A large multinational corporation is experiencing a persistent wave of cyber-attacks characterized by website defacements and data leaks. These incidents are accompanied by messages expressing opposition to the corporation's involvement in various international projects. What type of threat actor is most likely responsible for these activities?

  • Hacktivist

  • Organized crime

  • Nation-state

  • Insider threat

Question 2 of 20

As the lead security analyst at a financial institution, you have been tasked with evaluating the effectiveness of the implemented security controls. During the audit, you need to verify that access control policies are correctly enforced and that there are no deviations from the standard configurations across all servers. Which of the following audit practices would be the MOST effective for this purpose?

  • Conducting a configuration audit

  • Undertaking an operational audit

  • Executing a financial audit

  • Performing a performance audit

Question 3 of 20

You are a security consultant for a small company. The owner says attackers recently gained access to the company's email account. Soon after, the attackers took control of the company's website and say they will restore it only after they receive a payment. The hosting provider confirms that the web servers are healthy and no unusual logins have occurred, yet users cannot reach the company's site. Based on this information, which type of attack has most likely been carried out against the website?

  • DNS hijacking

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)

  • Session hijacking

  • Man-in-the-middle (MitM)

Question 4 of 20

A security operations center (SOC) manager notices that analysts spend significant time manually reviewing logs from firewalls, servers, and intrusion-detection systems. To accelerate incident detection and improve response times, which type of system should the organization deploy to automatically correlate and analyze security events from these diverse sources?

  • A threat intelligence platform

  • A compliance reporting tool

  • A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution

  • A network protocol analyzer

Question 5 of 20

During a security assessment, a consultant documents every web API, open port, user interface, and wireless connection that an attacker could attempt to leverage to compromise the organization's network. Which term best describes this collection of potential entry points?

  • Security perimeter

  • Risk exposure

  • Defense in depth

  • Attack surface

Question 6 of 20

A security administrator is reviewing protection mechanisms for a database containing sensitive financial records. The main concern is that an attacker could steal the server's hard drives and access the database files directly. To mitigate this specific threat, which security control should the administrator prioritize?

  • Data in transit encryption

  • Data in use encryption

  • Data masking

  • Data at rest encryption

Question 7 of 20

When using security controls, at times you will need additional controls to make up for the shortcoming of existing controls. This is called what kind of control?

  • Compensating

  • Corrective

  • Preventive

  • Detective

Question 8 of 20

Crucial Technologies has an outside team coming in to conduct penetration testing. It has been decided that the engagement is going to be black box testing. This type of testing involves which of the following?

  • Known environment

  • Unknown environment

  • Partially known environment

  • Fully known environment

Question 9 of 20

Which of the following cryptographic attacks specifically involves finding two different inputs that produce the same hash output?

  • Downgrade attack

  • Collision attack

  • Birthday attack

  • Man-in-the-middle attack

Question 10 of 20

Which of the following is the most direct benefit of providing regular security awareness training to all employees in an organization?

  • It removes the need for technical security controls such as firewalls.

  • It completely prevents all forms of social engineering attacks without further action.

  • It increases employee compliance with corporate security policies and procedures.

  • It shifts all information-security responsibility to the IT department alone.

Question 11 of 20

Which of the following BEST describes a logic bomb in the context of malicious code?

A candidate should recognize how a logic bomb behaves compared with other common malware types.

  • Continuously records every keystroke typed by the user and sends the data to an attacker.

  • Immediately encrypts user data upon infection and demands payment for decryption.

  • Executes its malicious payload only when a predefined condition (date, event, or system state) is met.

  • Automatically replicates itself across network hosts without user interaction.

Question 12 of 20

A software development team has decided to rearchitect its customer-facing web application to improve scalability and security. They plan to break the application into a set of small, independently deployable services, with each service focused on a single business capability and communicating through lightweight REST APIs. Which architecture model are they adopting?

  • Function as a Service (FaaS)

  • Microservices

  • Monolithic Architecture

  • Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)

Question 13 of 20

Under industry-recognized change-management best practices, how should an IT operations team handle minor configuration adjustments-such as tweaking an application parameter or updating a log path-in order to maintain security and accountability?

  • Only emergency changes require documentation; routine or minor changes can be applied directly to production systems without formal review.

  • Minor configuration changes may skip the change-management process as long as they are performed by senior administrators and recorded in personal notes.

  • The change-management process is required only when introducing new hardware platforms; software configuration tweaks are exempt.

  • All configuration changes, including minor adjustments, must be documented and processed through the established change-management workflow, even if the review is expedited.

Question 14 of 20

A finance department employee receives an instant message from what appears to be a senior executive asking for verification of their login credentials to resolve an urgent issue. What type of attack is the employee experiencing?

  • Denial-of-Service

  • Man-in-the-Middle

  • Vishing

  • Phishing

Question 15 of 20

A cybersecurity analyst at a multinational corporation is tasked with reviewing the company's compliance posture. The company operates in the healthcare, finance, and retail sectors across North America and Europe. Which of the following statements accurately describes the regulatory landscape the analyst must consider?

  • The company must comply with a complex mix of sector-specific and region-specific regulations, such as HIPAA, GLBA, and GDPR.

  • Regulatory obligations are standardized globally by the ISO 27001 framework, making compliance uniform across all sectors.

  • The company can achieve global compliance by adhering to the single most stringent regulation, such as GDPR.

  • The company is only subject to the laws of the country where its corporate headquarters is located.

Question 16 of 20

A healthcare company needs to ensure the privacy of its patients' health records. When deploying a new online patient portal, which measure is most effective for protecting the privacy of health records while they are being accessed and transmitted through the portal?

  • Applying data masking techniques to the records before storage

  • Encrypting data in transit

  • Implementing geographic restrictions on where the health records can be accessed

  • Requiring multi-factor authentication for user access to the portal

Question 17 of 20

A company's proprietary application is critical for daily operations, but it runs on an operating system that no longer receives vendor updates. The company's IT team is currently unable to upgrade the system or migrate the application due to compatibility issues. What is the most effective risk mitigation strategy the IT team should implement to secure the legacy system against potential threats?

  • Conduct regular security audits on the system to ensure compliance with security policies

  • Increase security monitoring specifically targeting the unsupported system to detect anomalies

  • Encourage users to employ stronger passwords for system access

  • Implement network segmentation and restrict the system's network connectivity to essential services

Question 18 of 20

What term is used to describe the enhancement of a security team's effectiveness by employing tools and methods that allow fewer staff members to manage more resources?

  • Staff scaling

  • Workforce multiplier

  • Team augmentation

  • Resource allocation

Question 19 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing intrusion detection system logs and must correlate them with recorded network traffic to determine the scope of a suspected breach. Which of the following data will be MOST useful for matching the IDS alert timestamps to the captured traffic?

  • Traffic flow metadata collected from network devices such as switches and routers

  • User account changes logged in the authentication server records

  • Application error messages captured by the system's event logs

  • Device configuration settings from the network management system

Question 20 of 20

A systems administrator observes that every Friday afternoon, right after the stock market closes, a series of unauthorized transactions and excessive resource utilization occurs on a finance company's trading application server. What type of malware is most likely responsible for this recurring incident?

  • Trojan

  • Worm

  • Logic bomb

  • Spyware