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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

What term describes a concept in which automation tools are utilized to handle repetitive tasks, allowing the security team to focus on more complex responsibilities and effectively increasing the team's productivity without necessarily increasing the number of team members?

  • Efficiency optimizer

  • Workforce enhancer

  • Team scaler

  • Workforce multiplier

Question 2 of 20

What type of security control is implemented when the primary control cannot be used due to technical, financial, or operational constraints?

  • Deterrent controls

  • Preventive controls

  • Detective controls

  • Compensating controls

Question 3 of 20

A company's information security policies have not been updated in five years. Which of the following is the MOST significant security-related risk of using these outdated policies?

  • The policies may no longer comply with new data privacy regulations.

  • The cost of training employees on the outdated policies will increase.

  • The policy documents may refer to decommissioned systems and applications.

  • The policies may fail to address emerging threats and vulnerabilities.

Question 4 of 20

You are selecting a biometrics system for your company. You want to make sure you select a system that is going to be the most accurate choice. What calculation would you use to compare the different systems?

  • Efficacy rates

  • CER

  • FRR

  • FAR

Question 5 of 20

Your company has decided to implement a new cloud-based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) system. As part of the compliance requirements, all backups of the CRM data must be encrypted. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for a recommendation on the encryption approach, emphasizing the need for both strong encryption and efficient key management. Which encryption method should be recommended?

  • Key Management Service (KMS) with encryption capabilities

  • Whole disk encryption

  • Database field encryption using public key infrastructure

  • Manual symmetric key management with AES-256

Question 6 of 20

A company's customer portal allows users to enter their usernames and passwords to access their accounts. An attacker exploits the login form by entering specially crafted input that causes the database to reveal all user credentials. What type of vulnerability is being exploited in this scenario?

  • Buffer overflow

  • SQL injection

  • Denial of service (DoS)

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)

Question 7 of 20

A company has multiple online services with different compute requirements, ranging from high-intensity processing for video rendering to low-intensity processes for a document storage system. The CTO wants to ensure that these services remain operational with minimal disruption in the event of a hardware failure. Which of the following solutions would BEST address the compute resilience needs for the company's diverse set of services?

  • Single powerful server with a hot spare

  • Multiple air-gapped systems for each service

  • Clustered servers with resource balancing

  • Decentralized servers without load balancing

Question 8 of 20

A company's IT department recently received complains from several employees that they've been contacted by 'tech support' via phone call, requesting their login credentials to resolve a supposed network issue. Which of the following best describes this type of security threat?

  • Email phishing

  • Smishing

  • Vishing

  • Pretexting

Question 9 of 20

A company is rolling out a new software update that will significantly change its online purchasing system. Which of the following is the BEST approach to ensure that the update does not adversely affect the security posture of the organization?

  • Conduct a thorough impact analysis prior to deployment.

  • Review and approve the software update through the proper channels.

  • Schedule the update during a maintenance window to reduce downtime.

  • Update all system diagrams to reflect the new software changes.

Question 10 of 20

What is the purpose of a security key in multifactor authentication?

  • A physical device that, when presented, serves as a second factor by verifying the user's possession.

  • A software tool that records the keystroke dynamics of a user for continuous authentication.

  • An application on a user's device that sends a verification code via SMS messages.

  • An algorithm embedded within the user's computer that generates one-time passwords.

Question 11 of 20

During disposal of storage media, due to regulatory requirements some of the data is required to be saved for a certain period of time. This is an example of what?

  • Destruction

  • Certification

  • Sanitization

  • Data retention

Question 12 of 20

A company is looking to assign the responsibility of implementing encryption on sensitive data as required by the Information Security Policy. Who should be designated to ensure that the technical controls are configured in accordance with the policy requirements?

  • Auditor

  • Data Owner

  • Data Custodian/Steward

  • Data Controller

Question 13 of 20

A financial services firm needs to send monthly confidential performance reports containing sensitive client data to an external analyst over the Internet. The reports are generated automatically and traverse several third-party networks outside the organization's control. Compliance policy states that even if the traffic is intercepted anywhere along the path, the report contents must remain unreadable to anyone except the intended analyst. Which of the following techniques best satisfies this requirement?

  • Using certificate-based network authentication

  • Applying full-disk encryption on the sender's and recipient's computers

  • Implementing end-to-end encryption for the transmission

  • Utilizing obfuscation methods when preparing the report

Question 14 of 20

As a freelance security consultant for a government agency, you are asked to deploy an isolated stand-alone server that closely imitates an existing production database but contains only harmless, fabricated records. All traffic to and from this decoy must be logged so analysts can study attacker TTPs. Which type of deception system should you implement?

  • DDoS mitigator

  • DMZ

  • Honeynet

  • Honeypot

Question 15 of 20

An organization discovers a critical vulnerability on a public-facing database server. Extensive regression testing means the vendor patch cannot be applied for two weeks, and taking the server offline is not an option. Which of the following actions would BEST serve as a compensating control until the patch can be applied?

  • Perform a full operating-system upgrade to the latest major version.

  • Postpone routine database backups to free resources for testing.

  • Configure the network firewall to allow database connections only from authorized application servers.

  • Run a new vulnerability scan against the server to confirm the finding.

Question 16 of 20

When establishing a Business Partners Agreement with a new vendor, what element is most crucial to ensure the protection of sensitive data?

  • Clearly defined security requirements

  • Terms of conflict resolution processes

  • Regularly scheduled review cycles

  • Specific definitions of the parties involved

Question 17 of 20

Your corporation has recently undergone a security audit. The audit report pointed out that there is a lack of clear ownership responsibility for data held in one of the company's new cloud storage solutions, leading to potential security vulnerabilities. As a Security Manager, you need to rectify this issue promptly. Who should you primarily assign the responsibility for defining the classification level, sharing permissions, and handling lifecycle management of this stored data to ensure it is protected according to company policies?

  • Data Custodian/Steward

  • Data Owner

  • Data Processor

  • Data Controller

Question 18 of 20

A security administrator is creating a new user account for a remote employee. The process requires the employee to present a government-issued ID during a video call to verify that they are who they claim to be before the account is fully activated. Which of the following concepts BEST describes this activity?

  • Attestation

  • Authentication

  • Identity proofing

  • Authorization

Question 19 of 20

Which of the following best describes the role of automation in security program management?

  • Using technology to perform repetitive and consistent tasks to increase efficiency and reduce human error

  • Defining protocols for encrypting data across various applications and systems

  • Employing artificial intelligence to simulate human thinking in the analysis of security threats

  • Manipulating human interactions to gain unauthorized access to confidential information

Question 20 of 20

What type of vulnerability within virtualized environments allows an attacker to access the host machine from within a virtual machine?

  • SQL injection

  • Buffer overflow

  • VM escape

  • Firmware compromise