CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
What term describes a concept in which automation tools are utilized to handle repetitive tasks, allowing the security team to focus on more complex responsibilities and effectively increasing the team's productivity without necessarily increasing the number of team members?
Efficiency optimizer
Workforce enhancer
Team scaler
Workforce multiplier
Answer Description
The term 'workforce multiplier' refers to the use of technology, especially automation and orchestration tools, that enables a security team to be more productive by handling tasks that would otherwise require greater staffing. By automating repetitive and tedious tasks, the organization can maximize the effectiveness of its existing workforce, therefore multiplying its capabilities. The incorrect choices are designed to test the student's ability to distinguish between similar terms and concepts in the context of security operations.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of automation tools that act as workforce multipliers?
How do workforce multipliers benefit organizations with limited staffing?
What security tasks are most commonly automated with workforce multipliers?
What type of security control is implemented when the primary control cannot be used due to technical, financial, or operational constraints?
Deterrent controls
Preventive controls
Detective controls
Compensating controls
Answer Description
Compensating controls are used as a substitute for primary controls when the primary control is not feasible or practical to implement. They provide an alternative way to mitigate risks and achieve the same level of security. For example, if a company cannot afford to implement a firewall (a preventive control), they may use a virtual private network (VPN) as a compensating control to protect their network traffic.
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What are some examples of compensating controls?
How do compensating controls differ from preventive controls?
When would a compensating control typically be implemented?
A company's information security policies have not been updated in five years. Which of the following is the MOST significant security-related risk of using these outdated policies?
The policies may no longer comply with new data privacy regulations.
The cost of training employees on the outdated policies will increase.
The policy documents may refer to decommissioned systems and applications.
The policies may fail to address emerging threats and vulnerabilities.
Answer Description
The primary security-related reason to regularly review and update security policies is to ensure they address the current threat landscape. Cyber threats, technologies, and business processes evolve constantly. Outdated policies may not provide sufficient guidance to protect against modern attack vectors, leaving the organization vulnerable. While regulatory compliance is a critical reason for policy updates, failing to protect against current threats poses a more direct and immediate risk to the organization's security posture.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important for security policies to address emerging threats?
What are some examples of modern attack vectors that outdated policies might miss?
How often should security policies be reviewed and updated?
You are selecting a biometrics system for your company. You want to make sure you select a system that is going to be the most accurate choice. What calculation would you use to compare the different systems?
Efficacy rates
CER
FRR
FAR
Answer Description
The crossover error rate (CER) is the point at which the false acceptance rate (FAR) and the false rejection rate (FRR) are equal. The lower the CER the more accurate the biometric system is.
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What are FAR and FRR in biometrics?
How is the crossover error rate (CER) calculated?
Why is CER important when selecting a biometric system?
Your company has decided to implement a new cloud-based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) system. As part of the compliance requirements, all backups of the CRM data must be encrypted. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for a recommendation on the encryption approach, emphasizing the need for both strong encryption and efficient key management. Which encryption method should be recommended?
Key Management Service (KMS) with encryption capabilities
Whole disk encryption
Database field encryption using public key infrastructure
Manual symmetric key management with AES-256
Answer Description
The use of a Key Management Service (KMS) with encryption capabilities is the correct choice because it not only provides strong encryption but also facilitates efficient key management, which is crucial when dealing with backups that may need to be restored at any given time. It automates the lifecycle of cryptographic keys, including creation, rotation, deletion, and control of access to keys. Whole disk encryption, while secure, does not typically offer the same level of key management needed for a cloud-based environment. Manual symmetric key management could be prone to human error and does not scale efficiently. Database field encryption only encrypts specific fields and may not cover the entire backup dataset as required.
Ask Bash
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What is a Key Management Service (KMS)?
Why is manual symmetric key management not suitable in this case?
How does KMS compare to whole disk encryption for backup protection?
A company's customer portal allows users to enter their usernames and passwords to access their accounts. An attacker exploits the login form by entering specially crafted input that causes the database to reveal all user credentials. What type of vulnerability is being exploited in this scenario?
Buffer overflow
SQL injection
Denial of service (DoS)
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
Answer Description
The attacker is leveraging a SQL injection vulnerability by inserting malicious SQL commands into the login form. This allows unauthorized access to the database and exposure of sensitive user credentials.
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What is SQL injection and how does it work?
How can companies protect their applications from SQL injection attacks?
How is SQL injection different from Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)?
A company has multiple online services with different compute requirements, ranging from high-intensity processing for video rendering to low-intensity processes for a document storage system. The CTO wants to ensure that these services remain operational with minimal disruption in the event of a hardware failure. Which of the following solutions would BEST address the compute resilience needs for the company's diverse set of services?
Single powerful server with a hot spare
Multiple air-gapped systems for each service
Clustered servers with resource balancing
Decentralized servers without load balancing
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Clustered servers with resource balancing' because it allows for the distribution of compute tasks across multiple servers, providing high availability for the various services with differing compute requirements. In the event of a server failure, tasks can be redistributed to other servers in the cluster, minimizing downtime. The incorrect answers are: 'Single powerful server with a hot spare' does not address the diverse compute needs and may lead to underutilization or bottlenecks. 'Multiple air-gapped systems' could provide isolation for security but would not be efficient for resource management across services with different compute needs. 'Decentralized servers without load balancing' would not efficiently distribute compute tasks and could result in suboptimal performance and higher risk of service disruptions.
Ask Bash
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What are clustered servers, and how do they work?
How does resource balancing improve compute resilience?
Why is load balancing critical in clustered server environments?
A company's IT department recently received complains from several employees that they've been contacted by 'tech support' via phone call, requesting their login credentials to resolve a supposed network issue. Which of the following best describes this type of security threat?
Email phishing
Smishing
Vishing
Pretexting
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Vishing'. Vishing, or voice phishing, involves an attacker using the telephone system in an attempt to scam the user into disclosing private information by pretending to be a legitimate entity, in this case, the company's IT department. Email phishing is incorrect as it specifically refers to the use of emails for scamming users. Smishing involves sending text messages, which is not the case here. Moreover, Pretexting generally refers to a scenario where an attacker comes up with a fabricated scenario to steal information, but the key difference lies in the means, which here is a phone call characteristic of vishing.
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What is vishing, and how does it differ from other phishing techniques?
What are common signs that a phone call might be a vishing attempt?
How can companies train employees to avoid falling for vishing attacks?
A company is rolling out a new software update that will significantly change its online purchasing system. Which of the following is the BEST approach to ensure that the update does not adversely affect the security posture of the organization?
Conduct a thorough impact analysis prior to deployment.
Review and approve the software update through the proper channels.
Schedule the update during a maintenance window to reduce downtime.
Update all system diagrams to reflect the new software changes.
Answer Description
The correct answer is to conduct an impact analysis prior to deployment. An impact analysis is a process of understanding the potential consequences of changes, especially how they affect security controls and operations. By doing this, the company can identify potential security risks introduced by the update and take steps to mitigate them before the system goes live, ensuring that security is maintained throughout the change process. The other options, while they might be parts of the overall change management process, do not directly address the proactive identification and mitigation of security risks specific to the introduction of new software or updates.
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What is an impact analysis, and why is it important in software updates?
How does an impact analysis differ from simply scheduling updates during a maintenance window?
What information is typically reviewed during an impact analysis?
What is the purpose of a security key in multifactor authentication?
A physical device that, when presented, serves as a second factor by verifying the user's possession.
A software tool that records the keystroke dynamics of a user for continuous authentication.
An application on a user's device that sends a verification code via SMS messages.
An algorithm embedded within the user's computer that generates one-time passwords.
Answer Description
A security key is a physical device that provides a second factor of authentication for a user accessing a service. As a "something you have" factor, it is a core component of multifactor authentication (MFA), which requires at least two verification factors to enhance account security. While physical tokens can include devices like key fobs or smart cards, modern security keys typically connect via USB, NFC, or Bluetooth and use advanced cryptographic protocols like FIDO2 to resist phishing attacks.
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How does a security key enhance security in comparison to SMS-based authentication?
What is FIDO2 and how does it work with security keys?
What are the different types of connections used by modern security keys?
During disposal of storage media, due to regulatory requirements some of the data is required to be saved for a certain period of time. This is an example of what?
Destruction
Certification
Sanitization
Data retention
Answer Description
There are times when certain data is required to be kept for a certain period of time due to legal, regulatory or policy reasons. There are also requirements pertaining to when data isn’t supposed to be kept. This is all referred to as data retention.
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What is data retention and why is it important?
What are some common laws or regulations that mandate data retention?
How does data retention differ from data destruction?
A company is looking to assign the responsibility of implementing encryption on sensitive data as required by the Information Security Policy. Who should be designated to ensure that the technical controls are configured in accordance with the policy requirements?
Auditor
Data Owner
Data Custodian/Steward
Data Controller
Answer Description
Custodians, also known as stewards, are responsible for the day-to-day maintenance and implementation of the security controls over assets based on the policies and guidelines set forth by the organization. While an owner may define the policy for data protection, it is the custodian's role to enforce and implement these policies through technical means, such as configuring and applying encryption to sensitive data. The data owner is typically a senior-level executive who defines what level of protection is required for the data but does not directly manage the security mechanisms. The controller is responsible for making decisions about the processing of the data, and auditors are responsible for reviewing the adherence to policies and regulations, not implementing security measures.
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What is the role of a Data Custodian/Steward?
How does the role of a Data Custodian differ from a Data Owner?
What is the key difference between a Data Custodian and an Auditor?
A financial services firm needs to send monthly confidential performance reports containing sensitive client data to an external analyst over the Internet. The reports are generated automatically and traverse several third-party networks outside the organization's control. Compliance policy states that even if the traffic is intercepted anywhere along the path, the report contents must remain unreadable to anyone except the intended analyst. Which of the following techniques best satisfies this requirement?
Using certificate-based network authentication
Applying full-disk encryption on the sender's and recipient's computers
Implementing end-to-end encryption for the transmission
Utilizing obfuscation methods when preparing the report
Answer Description
Full-disk encryption is a strong security measure but protects only data at rest on storage media, not information being transmitted. Obfuscation methods (such as data masking) can disguise values but are reversible and do not provide cryptographic confidentiality against a determined adversary. Certificate-based network authentication, as used in 802.1X, verifies a device's identity to join a network but does not by itself encrypt the payload of subsequent communications. End-to-end encryption, in contrast, encrypts the data on the sender's device and keeps it encrypted until it reaches the recipient's device, ensuring that any interceptor lacking the decryption key cannot read the report contents.
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What is end-to-end encryption and how does it work?
Why is full-disk encryption not suitable for encrypting data in motion?
What role does certificate-based network authentication play in data security?
As a freelance security consultant for a government agency, you are asked to deploy an isolated stand-alone server that closely imitates an existing production database but contains only harmless, fabricated records. All traffic to and from this decoy must be logged so analysts can study attacker TTPs. Which type of deception system should you implement?
DDoS mitigator
DMZ
Honeynet
Honeypot
Answer Description
A honeypot is a single computer or service intentionally exposed so it appears to be a valuable, vulnerable asset. Because no legitimate user should connect, any activity is malicious and can be recorded for later analysis. A honeynet is a network of multiple honeypots; it is more elaborate than the stand-alone system described. A DMZ is merely a network segment for public-facing servers, and a DDoS mitigator is designed to absorb large-scale traffic floods rather than lure attackers for research.
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What is the difference between a honeypot and a honeynet?
What are some practical uses of a honeypot or honeynet?
What are the risks of deploying a honeynet?
An organization discovers a critical vulnerability on a public-facing database server. Extensive regression testing means the vendor patch cannot be applied for two weeks, and taking the server offline is not an option. Which of the following actions would BEST serve as a compensating control until the patch can be applied?
Perform a full operating-system upgrade to the latest major version.
Postpone routine database backups to free resources for testing.
Configure the network firewall to allow database connections only from authorized application servers.
Run a new vulnerability scan against the server to confirm the finding.
Answer Description
Configuring the firewall to restrict database traffic to only authorized application servers limits exposure of the vulnerable service and provides an equivalent layer of protection until the vendor patch can be tested and installed. This is the essence of a compensating control-an alternative safeguard that mitigates risk when the primary fix (patching) is temporarily unavailable. Re-scanning the host or delaying backups does not directly reduce the attack surface, and a major operating-system upgrade could introduce new issues without specifically addressing the flaw.
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What is a compensating control in cybersecurity?
Why is restricting database traffic to authorized application servers effective?
Why are the other options not effective compensating controls?
When establishing a Business Partners Agreement with a new vendor, what element is most crucial to ensure the protection of sensitive data?
Clearly defined security requirements
Terms of conflict resolution processes
Regularly scheduled review cycles
Specific definitions of the parties involved
Answer Description
While all listed aspects are important in their own right, clearly defined security requirements are the most critical to protect sensitive data. These requirements set the minimum security standards that the business partner must adhere to, directly impacting the safeguarding of data involved in the partnership. Elements such as review cycles and party definitions are also important, but their impact on data protection is more indirect compared to the explicit security requirements.
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What are clearly defined security requirements in a Business Partners Agreement (BPA)?
Why are regular review cycles less critical than security requirements in protecting sensitive data?
How do security requirements differ from conflict resolution terms in a BPA?
Your corporation has recently undergone a security audit. The audit report pointed out that there is a lack of clear ownership responsibility for data held in one of the company's new cloud storage solutions, leading to potential security vulnerabilities. As a Security Manager, you need to rectify this issue promptly. Who should you primarily assign the responsibility for defining the classification level, sharing permissions, and handling lifecycle management of this stored data to ensure it is protected according to company policies?
Data Custodian/Steward
Data Owner
Data Processor
Data Controller
Answer Description
The Data Owner is primarily responsible for defining the classification of the data, setting sharing permissions, and overseeing the data throughout its lifecycle. They make decisions about who can access the data and how it will be handled or protected based on organizational policies. Custodians or Stewards handle data as directed by the Data Owner, but the ownership and decision-making responsibility lies with the Data Owner. Processors merely process data on behalf of another party, and Data Controllers determine the purposes and means of processing personal data but do not typically define its classification or lifecycle management details.
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What is the role of a Data Owner in a company's data management strategy?
What is the difference between a Data Owner and a Data Custodian?
How does the Data Owner's role differ from that of a Data Processor?
A security administrator is creating a new user account for a remote employee. The process requires the employee to present a government-issued ID during a video call to verify that they are who they claim to be before the account is fully activated. Which of the following concepts BEST describes this activity?
Attestation
Authentication
Identity proofing
Authorization
Answer Description
This scenario describes identity proofing, which is the process of verifying a user's claimed identity before issuing credentials or granting access. It happens at the beginning of the user lifecycle, such as during account creation, to establish trust. Authentication is the subsequent process of verifying a user's identity each time they log in. Authorization involves granting specific permissions to an authenticated user. Attestation is the process of affirming that something is true or that a requirement has been met; while related, 'identity proofing' is the most accurate and specific term for the overall process described.
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What is the difference between identity proofing and authentication?
Why is government-issued ID often used for identity proofing?
How does identity proofing differ from attestation?
Which of the following best describes the role of automation in security program management?
Using technology to perform repetitive and consistent tasks to increase efficiency and reduce human error
Defining protocols for encrypting data across various applications and systems
Employing artificial intelligence to simulate human thinking in the analysis of security threats
Manipulating human interactions to gain unauthorized access to confidential information
Answer Description
Automation in security program management refers to the use of technology to perform repetitive and routine tasks without human intervention, which increases efficiency and consistency while reducing human error. Automation can encompass a wide range of processes, from compliance reporting to vulnerability management. For example, automating patch management ensures that systems are updated consistently without the need for manual oversight. In contrast, artificial intelligence would be focused on the simulation of human intelligence processes by machines, social engineering is a manipulation technique that exploits human error to gain private information, and encryption standardization is about defining protocols for encrypting data, not automating processes.
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What are some examples of tasks that can be automated in security program management?
How does automation reduce human error in cybersecurity tasks?
What is the role of artificial intelligence (AI) compared to automation in security program management?
What type of vulnerability within virtualized environments allows an attacker to access the host machine from within a virtual machine?
SQL injection
Buffer overflow
VM escape
Firmware compromise
Answer Description
A Virtual Machine (VM) escape is a security vulnerability that allows an attacker to break out from a virtual machine and interact with the host operating system. This type of vulnerability is particularly concerning because it undermines the isolation properties that are fundamental to secure virtualization.
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What is VM escape?
How does a hypervisor relate to VM escape?
What are some best practices to mitigate the risk of VM escape?
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