CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An organization utilizes virtualization to run multiple Virtual Machines on a single physical server for different departments. Recently, it was discovered that confidential data from one Virtual Machine was accessible to users on another Virtual Machine due to inadequate resource sanitization. Which of the following mitigates this virtualization vulnerability?
Sanitize resources when deallocating virtual machines
Isolate virtual machines in separate VLANs to prevent network sniffing
Disable hyper-threading on physical CPUs to prevent side-channel attacks
Install antivirus software on the host to detect malware within virtual machines
Answer Description
Sanitizing resources when deallocating virtual machines addresses resource reuse vulnerabilities. This process ensures that any residual data in memory and storage is securely erased before resources are reassigned to other virtual machines, preventing unauthorized access to sensitive information.
Disabling hyper-threading on physical CPUs can help mitigate certain side-channel attacks but does not address data leakage due to resource reuse.
Isolating virtual machines in separate VLANs protects against network-based threats like sniffing but does not prevent data exposure through shared physical resources.
Installing antivirus software on the host enhances malware detection but does not prevent data leakage caused by improper resource sanitization in virtualization.
Ask Bash
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What does resource sanitization mean in virtualization?
How does improper deallocation of resources lead to data leakage?
What role does a hypervisor play in managing virtual machine resources?
A security consultant is helping an organization to enhance the detection capabilities of unauthorized activities within its internal network. The organization's security strategy includes the deployment of Network Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS) but also emphasizes minimizing the impact on network performance. Which deployment strategy should the consultant recommend?
Configure NIDS sensors in tap/monitor mode to replicate the network traffic non-intrusively.
Deploy NIDS sensors in inline mode to actively moderate and filter traffic.
Place NIDS sensors in promiscuous mode to passively collect traffic without duplicating it.
Set up NIDS sensors to operate in stealth mode, invisible to network hosts and devices.
Answer Description
Placing NIDS sensors in tap/monitor mode would allow the organization to detect unauthorized activities by mirroring the traffic that flows through the network, without injecting any additional latency or load on the primary network path. This strategy helps ensure network performance is not significantly impacted while maintaining an effective security posture. In contrast, inline mode can introduce latency since traffic must flow through the sensor, and promiscuous mode lacks the capability of real-time traffic replication typical of a tap/monitor setup.
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What is tap/monitor mode in NIDS?
How does inline mode differ from tap/monitor mode?
Why is minimizing network impact important in NIDS deployment?
During a security awareness training session, you want to ensure employees are equipped to identify fraudulent emails attempting to obtain sensitive company data by impersonating a trusted source. Which type of security threat should the training primarily focus on?
Vishing
Spear phishing
Tailgating
Phishing campaigns
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Phishing campaigns' because they involve the use of communications, typically emails, that attempt to fraudulently obtain sensitive information by impersonating a trusted organization or individual. 'Spear phishing' is a more targeted version of phishing, and while it is related, the question is asking about the broader term. 'Vishing' refers to voice call scams, and 'Tailgating' is a physical security breach method, which does not fit the context of identifying fraudulent emails.
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What is the difference between phishing and spear phishing?
How can employees recognize phishing emails during security awareness training?
Why is vishing not considered phishing in the question's context?
The security team at a large corporation is inundated with alerts from their Security Information and Event Management system, with a substantial number being false positives. What is the most effective approach to reduce the number of false positive alerts without significantly compromising the ability to detect actual threats?
Raise the alert threshold so only the highest severity incidents are reported.
Disable alerts that are commonly producing false positives.
Turn off alerts for events considered low risk to reduce the number of incoming notifications.
Refine correlation rules to enforce more specific conditions for triggering alerts.
Answer Description
Refining the correlation rules to establish more stringent alert criteria can significantly decrease the amount of false positive alerts generated by a Security Information and Event Management system. By defining more precise conditions for when an alert should be triggered, a SIEM can more accurately differentiate between standard operations and suspicious activities. Adjustments must be crafted carefully to minimize the risk of missing true security incidents. Altering system thresholds indiscriminately might suppress important warnings, while focus solely on historical data analysis may not take into account novel or evolving threats. Disabling alerts for activities that are considered to be low risk can be risky, as they might cumulatively indicate a security threat if analyzed in context.
Ask Bash
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What are correlation rules in a SIEM system?
What are false positives in cybersecurity, and why are they a problem?
What are the risks of raising alert thresholds in a SIEM system?
A security analyst at a financial institution is tasked with conducting a risk analysis. The analyst needs to prioritize risks to present to the executive board, which prefers an overview based on the general magnitude of impact rather than precise numerical values. Which approach should the analyst use to assess and present the risk levels?
Disaster Recovery Strategy
Qualitative Risk Analysis
Quantitative Risk Analysis
Annualized Rate of Occurrence Analysis
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Qualitative Risk Analysis.' Qualitative risk analysis evaluates and prioritizes risks using subjective measures, such as low, medium, and high, to describe the impact and likelihood of potential threats. This approach is useful for presenting an overview to stakeholders who prefer general magnitudes over detailed statistics. The incorrect answers involve either specific numerical values or do not align with the described scenario. 'Quantitative Risk Analysis' utilizes numerical values to quantify risk and is more complex and detailed than necessary for providing a general overview. 'Annualized Rate of Occurrence Analysis' focuses on the frequency of an event occurring over a year, which overly specifies the scenario at hand. 'Disaster Recovery Strategy' is a plan for resuming normal business operations after a disaster and is not a method for risk analysis.
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What is the primary difference between Qualitative and Quantitative Risk Analysis?
What are some examples of scales used in Qualitative Risk Analysis?
Why would an executive board prefer Qualitative Risk Analysis over Quantitative Risk Analysis?
Which technology prevents unauthorized access to network resources by inspecting incoming and outgoing traffic and allowing or blocking it according to predefined security rules?
Security Information and Event Management system
Virtual Private Network
Firewall
Intrusion Detection System
Answer Description
A firewall establishes a barrier between trusted and untrusted networks. By evaluating packets against configured security rules, it decides whether to allow or block traffic, thereby preventing unauthorized access. Intrusion detection systems only alert, VPNs encrypt traffic but do not enforce rule-based filtering, and SIEMs aggregate logs without directly controlling traffic.
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How does a firewall inspect and block traffic?
What is the difference between a firewall and an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
What are the differences between hardware firewalls and software firewalls?
A company has initiated a legal hold due to pending litigation. A security administrator identifies a set of server logs they believe are unrelated to the case. According to e-discovery best practices, what is the proper action for the administrator to take with these logs?
The logs can be disposed of according to the company's standard data retention policy.
The logs can be deleted after the administrator documents their assessment that the data is irrelevant.
The logs must be preserved, as the scope of the legal hold is broad and the final determination of relevance is a legal decision.
The logs should be moved to a separate archive so they are not included in the initial e-discovery collection.
Answer Description
When an organization is under a legal hold, the duty to preserve evidence is broad. All data that is potentially relevant to the case must be preserved. Unilaterally deciding that data is irrelevant and deleting it can be considered spoliation of evidence, which can result in severe legal penalties. The standard data retention policy is suspended by the legal hold for all data that falls within its scope. The final determination of what is relevant is a legal process, not a decision to be made by an individual administrator.
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What is a legal hold in the context of e-discovery?
Why is it important for a security administrator to preserve all logs during a legal hold?
What is the role of e-discovery in the context of legal holds?
A developer allocates a 32-byte character array to store a username but does not validate the length of user input. An attacker submits 128 characters, causing data to be written past the end of the array and overwriting adjacent memory addresses. Which type of vulnerability is the attacker exploiting?
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
SQL injection
Directory traversal
Buffer overflow
Answer Description
Writing more data to a fixed-length memory buffer than it was allocated to hold is a classic buffer overflow. The excess data overwrites neighboring memory, which can result in crashes or allow the attacker to execute arbitrary code. SQL injection and XSS target web application input handling, while directory traversal manipulates file-system paths; none of these involve overrunning a memory buffer.
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What is a buffer overflow?
How can buffer overflows be prevented?
What is the difference between a buffer overflow and SQL injection?
A financial services company needs to limit access to its confidential financial records stored on a shared server. Only employees in the Finance department should be able to view and modify these records, while all other staff members should be prevented from accessing them. What method should the network administrator use to enforce these permissions?
Configure network access based on the IP addresses of Finance department devices.
Define permissions that grant the Finance group read and write access while denying access to all other users.
Assign read access to all employees but restrict write access to the Finance group.
Implement multi-factor authentication for accessing the financial records.
Answer Description
Setting permissions that allow the Finance department to have read and write access while denying all other users ensures that only authorized personnel can access the sensitive financial records. This approach effectively applies the principle of least privilege.
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What is the principle of least privilege?
How are permissions typically set on a shared server?
Why is multi-factor authentication not sufficient on its own to control file access?
Your organization has implemented strong internal controls to manage sensitive customer data. During a routine internal audit, you discover that a newly implemented software tool does not comply with the established encryption standards. What is the next step to maintain compliance?
Request a feature update from the software tool vendor to accommodate the required encryption standards without internal notification.
Report the non-compliance issue to the compliance department for review and correction.
Immediately cease using the tool across the organization until it complies with encryption standards.
Document the issue and wait for the next external audit to confirm the non-compliance before taking action.
Answer Description
The correct step after discovering a non-compliance issue in an internal audit is to report the issue to the appropriate department or individual responsible for compliance. This initiates the process of addressing the non-compliance, which may include a review of the issue, adjusting the non-compliant system, or implementing additional controls to ensure that it meets the organization's encryption standards. It is central to the concept of internal compliance reporting that such issues are promptly and effectively communicated to enable swift corrective action.
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Why is it important to report non-compliance issues immediately?
What is encryption, and why is it critical for sensitive customer data?
What role does the compliance department play in managing issues like these?
Which of the following best describes the 'Confidential' data classification in a security architecture?
Information that has the highest level of protection and is intended for a very limited audience.
Information that requires strict access controls and protection because its unauthorized disclosure could significantly impact the organization or individuals.
Information that requires some level of protection but is not expected to cause significant harm if disclosed.
Information that is available to the public and does not require special protection measures.
Answer Description
The 'Confidential' data classification is typically applied to information that if disclosed without authorization could lead to a significant level of risk to the organization or individuals. This classification requires a higher level of access control and protective measures due to the potential harm that could result from its exposure. Other classifications like 'Public' and 'Sensitive' do not carry the same implication of risk if disclosed and thus are not characterized by the same level of required protection. 'Restricted' often refers to a higher classification level than 'Confidential' and may require even stricter controls.
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What is the difference between 'Confidential' and 'Restricted' data classifications?
What are some examples of 'Confidential' data?
What protective measures are typically used for 'Confidential' data?
A security operations center (SOC) wants to implement an automated workflow that automatically isolates an endpoint as soon as the EDR platform confirms malware execution. Which PRIMARY benefit of security automation does this approach provide?
Reduced response time by eliminating manual containment steps
Delegation of security policy creation to senior management
Centralized storage of log data for long-term retention
Automatic generation of detailed compliance reports for auditors
Answer Description
Automating endpoint isolation removes the manual containment step, allowing the SOC to cut mean time to respond (MTTR) and stop malware from spreading. Although automation platforms can also generate compliance reports or store logs, those capabilities do not directly address the urgency of containing an active threat. Policy creation and user-training compliance remain management functions rather than technical automation tasks.
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What is an EDR platform in cybersecurity?
What does 'mean time to respond' (MTTR) mean in incident response?
How does automation improve security operations in a SOC?
Which data source would an investigator most likely review to trace unauthorized internal traffic patterns indicative of post-breach attacker movement?
Endpoint logs
System health reports
Application logs
Network logs
Answer Description
Network logs are a primary resource for monitoring internal network traffic, which includes tracking unauthorized data flow or lateral movement within the organization's network infrastructure. Application logs are focused on specific software and may not capture network-wide traffic data. Endpoint logs give insight into individual host activity and might not show comprehensive internal traffic patterns. System health reports are typically concerned with the performance and health of systems, and do not usually provide the granular traffic data needed for tracking lateral movements.
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What specific information can network logs provide to investigators?
How are lateral movements detected in network logs?
What tools can be used to analyze and interpret network logs?
A financial services company is deploying a new database to store transaction records. A primary security requirement is to ensure that once a transaction is recorded, it cannot be secretly modified or deleted by unauthorized personnel. The system must also include checks to verify that the data remains accurate and complete over its entire lifecycle. Which security principle does this requirement primarily address?
Non-repudiation
Integrity
Availability
Confidentiality
Answer Description
Integrity is the principle of ensuring that data remains accurate, complete, and trustworthy throughout its lifecycle, and has not been altered by unauthorized parties. In this scenario, the requirement to prevent unauthorized modification of transaction records and verify their accuracy directly addresses data integrity. Confidentiality would involve protecting the records from unauthorized viewing, while availability would ensure the database is accessible to authorized users when needed. Non-repudiation would provide proof of who created a transaction.
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What specific measures can be implemented to ensure data integrity?
How does integrity differ from confidentiality and availability in the CIA triad?
What tools or concepts aid in ensuring data remains trustworthy over its lifecycle?
During a security audit, you discover that the user-account table in a legacy application stores only the SHA-256 hash of each password. You want to lessen the chance that two users with the same password will create an identical stored value and to render rainbow-table attacks impractical. Which additional technique should you apply to each password before hashing it?
Tokenization
Hashing
Key Stretching
Salting
Answer Description
Salting involves adding a unique, random string-called a salt-to the password input before it is hashed. Because each password receives a different salt, identical plaintext passwords no longer produce identical hashes, dramatically reducing the effectiveness of rainbow-table attacks and improving overall password-database security.
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What is salting in password security?
How do rainbow tables work, and why does salting protect against them?
Can salting alone fully secure password storage?
What is the primary benefit of using containerization in a security architecture?
It integrates all applications into one operating system for better performance.
It automates the process of data recovery.
It allows unlimited data storage capacity.
It isolates applications to enhance security and manageability.
It completely eliminates the need for physical servers.
It ensures that applications have direct access to hardware resources.
Answer Description
Containerization provides a lightweight alternative to full virtualization by encapsulating an application in a container with its own operating environment. This isolation ensures that applications do not interfere with each other and can be managed independently, enhancing security by containing potential breaches within the isolated environment of the container.
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How does containerization differ from full virtualization?
What security benefits does containerization provide?
What is a practical example of using containerization in security?
You receive a robocall from a number that appears to be your bank. During the call you are told that there was suspicious activity on your account and to remain on the line to talk to an agent. An individual then got on the line and asked you questions that would allow someone to compromise your account. This is an example of which type of specific social engineering?
Watering hole
Vishing
Pretexting
Smishing
Answer Description
Vishing (or voice phishing) is phishing done using voice over the telephone. This type of phishing often involves the use of voice over IP technology to spoof the caller ID of a legitimate phone number.
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What is the difference between vishing and phishing?
How does VoIP spoofing work in vishing attacks?
What are some steps to protect yourself from vishing attacks?
An employee in the finance department received a signed email from a senior executive's company email address. The email instructed the employee to urgently wire a substantial sum of money to an overseas account for a confidential deal. Which of the following best describes the type of attack that the finance employee might be encountering?
Credential Replay
Business Email Compromise
Phishing via Email
Distributed Denial of Service
Answer Description
Business Email Compromise (BEC) is a type of cyberattack that involves the unauthorized access or manipulation of a company's email system for fraudulent purposes. BEC attacks are typically sophisticated and rely on social engineering tactics to deceive employees, partners, or customers into taking actions that benefit the attacker. This type of cyberattack is also known as CEO Fraud or Email Account Compromise.
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What makes Business Email Compromise (BEC) different from standard phishing attacks?
How do attackers gain access to email accounts for Business Email Compromise?
What are some strategies to prevent Business Email Compromise (BEC) attacks?
A security analyst needs to investigate a potential data breach that is suspected to have occurred over the past week. The investigation requires correlating log data from firewalls, servers, and intrusion detection systems to identify suspicious patterns and trace the timeline of events. Which of the following tools is BEST suited for this type of historical analysis and data correlation?
A system vulnerability scanner
A packet capture utility
A security operations dashboard
A real-time network performance monitor
Answer Description
The correct answer is a security operations dashboard. These dashboards, typically integrated with a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system, are specifically designed to aggregate, correlate, and visualize log data from numerous sources over time. This makes them the ideal tool for historical analysis and identifying trends or patterns indicative of a breach. A real-time network performance monitor focuses on current bandwidth and latency, not historical log correlation. A packet capture utility provides deep, low-level data but is cumbersome for analyzing long-term, aggregated trends across multiple systems. A system vulnerability scanner is used to identify unpatched systems and misconfigurations, not for analyzing event logs to investigate an active or past incident.
Ask Bash
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What is a SIEM system and how does it function?
How does a security operations dashboard differ from a packet capture utility?
Why are real-time network performance monitors unsuitable for historical data analysis?
A company's server room is equipped with motion sensors that alert security personnel when movement is detected after hours. What type of control are the motion sensors?
Corrective Control
Detective Control
Deterrent Control
Preventive Control
Answer Description
The motion sensors act as a Detective Control because they identify and alert to unauthorized activity. They do not prevent the incident from occurring but detect it so that appropriate action can be taken. Preventive Controls, like locks or access restrictions, are designed to stop unauthorized access from happening in the first place. Corrective Controls come into play after an incident to mitigate its impact, such as restoring data from backups. Deterrent Controls are intended to discourage potential attackers, like warning signs or visible security cameras.
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What is the purpose of a Detective Control?
How does a Detective Control differ from a Preventive Control?
Can a single control act as both Detective and Deterrent?
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