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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.

  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

An organization utilizes virtualization to run multiple Virtual Machines on a single physical server for different departments. Recently, it was discovered that confidential data from one Virtual Machine was accessible to users on another Virtual Machine due to inadequate resource sanitization. Which of the following mitigates this virtualization vulnerability?

  • Sanitize resources when deallocating virtual machines

  • Isolate virtual machines in separate VLANs to prevent network sniffing

  • Disable hyper-threading on physical CPUs to prevent side-channel attacks

  • Install antivirus software on the host to detect malware within virtual machines

Question 2 of 20

A security consultant is helping an organization to enhance the detection capabilities of unauthorized activities within its internal network. The organization's security strategy includes the deployment of Network Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS) but also emphasizes minimizing the impact on network performance. Which deployment strategy should the consultant recommend?

  • Configure NIDS sensors in tap/monitor mode to replicate the network traffic non-intrusively.

  • Deploy NIDS sensors in inline mode to actively moderate and filter traffic.

  • Place NIDS sensors in promiscuous mode to passively collect traffic without duplicating it.

  • Set up NIDS sensors to operate in stealth mode, invisible to network hosts and devices.

Question 3 of 20

During a security awareness training session, you want to ensure employees are equipped to identify fraudulent emails attempting to obtain sensitive company data by impersonating a trusted source. Which type of security threat should the training primarily focus on?

  • Vishing

  • Spear phishing

  • Tailgating

  • Phishing campaigns

Question 4 of 20

The security team at a large corporation is inundated with alerts from their Security Information and Event Management system, with a substantial number being false positives. What is the most effective approach to reduce the number of false positive alerts without significantly compromising the ability to detect actual threats?

  • Raise the alert threshold so only the highest severity incidents are reported.

  • Disable alerts that are commonly producing false positives.

  • Turn off alerts for events considered low risk to reduce the number of incoming notifications.

  • Refine correlation rules to enforce more specific conditions for triggering alerts.

Question 5 of 20

A security analyst at a financial institution is tasked with conducting a risk analysis. The analyst needs to prioritize risks to present to the executive board, which prefers an overview based on the general magnitude of impact rather than precise numerical values. Which approach should the analyst use to assess and present the risk levels?

  • Disaster Recovery Strategy

  • Qualitative Risk Analysis

  • Quantitative Risk Analysis

  • Annualized Rate of Occurrence Analysis

Question 6 of 20

Which technology prevents unauthorized access to network resources by inspecting incoming and outgoing traffic and allowing or blocking it according to predefined security rules?

  • Security Information and Event Management system

  • Virtual Private Network

  • Firewall

  • Intrusion Detection System

Question 7 of 20

A company has initiated a legal hold due to pending litigation. A security administrator identifies a set of server logs they believe are unrelated to the case. According to e-discovery best practices, what is the proper action for the administrator to take with these logs?

  • The logs can be disposed of according to the company's standard data retention policy.

  • The logs can be deleted after the administrator documents their assessment that the data is irrelevant.

  • The logs must be preserved, as the scope of the legal hold is broad and the final determination of relevance is a legal decision.

  • The logs should be moved to a separate archive so they are not included in the initial e-discovery collection.

Question 8 of 20

A developer allocates a 32-byte character array to store a username but does not validate the length of user input. An attacker submits 128 characters, causing data to be written past the end of the array and overwriting adjacent memory addresses. Which type of vulnerability is the attacker exploiting?

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)

  • SQL injection

  • Directory traversal

  • Buffer overflow

Question 9 of 20

A financial services company needs to limit access to its confidential financial records stored on a shared server. Only employees in the Finance department should be able to view and modify these records, while all other staff members should be prevented from accessing them. What method should the network administrator use to enforce these permissions?

  • Configure network access based on the IP addresses of Finance department devices.

  • Define permissions that grant the Finance group read and write access while denying access to all other users.

  • Assign read access to all employees but restrict write access to the Finance group.

  • Implement multi-factor authentication for accessing the financial records.

Question 10 of 20

Your organization has implemented strong internal controls to manage sensitive customer data. During a routine internal audit, you discover that a newly implemented software tool does not comply with the established encryption standards. What is the next step to maintain compliance?

  • Request a feature update from the software tool vendor to accommodate the required encryption standards without internal notification.

  • Report the non-compliance issue to the compliance department for review and correction.

  • Immediately cease using the tool across the organization until it complies with encryption standards.

  • Document the issue and wait for the next external audit to confirm the non-compliance before taking action.

Question 11 of 20

Which of the following best describes the 'Confidential' data classification in a security architecture?

  • Information that has the highest level of protection and is intended for a very limited audience.

  • Information that requires strict access controls and protection because its unauthorized disclosure could significantly impact the organization or individuals.

  • Information that requires some level of protection but is not expected to cause significant harm if disclosed.

  • Information that is available to the public and does not require special protection measures.

Question 12 of 20

A security operations center (SOC) wants to implement an automated workflow that automatically isolates an endpoint as soon as the EDR platform confirms malware execution. Which PRIMARY benefit of security automation does this approach provide?

  • Reduced response time by eliminating manual containment steps

  • Delegation of security policy creation to senior management

  • Centralized storage of log data for long-term retention

  • Automatic generation of detailed compliance reports for auditors

Question 13 of 20

Which data source would an investigator most likely review to trace unauthorized internal traffic patterns indicative of post-breach attacker movement?

  • Endpoint logs

  • System health reports

  • Application logs

  • Network logs

Question 14 of 20

A financial services company is deploying a new database to store transaction records. A primary security requirement is to ensure that once a transaction is recorded, it cannot be secretly modified or deleted by unauthorized personnel. The system must also include checks to verify that the data remains accurate and complete over its entire lifecycle. Which security principle does this requirement primarily address?

  • Non-repudiation

  • Integrity

  • Availability

  • Confidentiality

Question 15 of 20

During a security audit, you discover that the user-account table in a legacy application stores only the SHA-256 hash of each password. You want to lessen the chance that two users with the same password will create an identical stored value and to render rainbow-table attacks impractical. Which additional technique should you apply to each password before hashing it?

  • Tokenization

  • Hashing

  • Key Stretching

  • Salting

Question 16 of 20

What is the primary benefit of using containerization in a security architecture?

  • It integrates all applications into one operating system for better performance.

  • It automates the process of data recovery.

  • It allows unlimited data storage capacity.

  • It isolates applications to enhance security and manageability.

  • It completely eliminates the need for physical servers.

  • It ensures that applications have direct access to hardware resources.

Question 17 of 20

You receive a robocall from a number that appears to be your bank. During the call you are told that there was suspicious activity on your account and to remain on the line to talk to an agent. An individual then got on the line and asked you questions that would allow someone to compromise your account. This is an example of which type of specific social engineering?

  • Watering hole

  • Vishing

  • Pretexting

  • Smishing

Question 18 of 20

An employee in the finance department received a signed email from a senior executive's company email address. The email instructed the employee to urgently wire a substantial sum of money to an overseas account for a confidential deal. Which of the following best describes the type of attack that the finance employee might be encountering?

  • Credential Replay

  • Business Email Compromise

  • Phishing via Email

  • Distributed Denial of Service

Question 19 of 20

A security analyst needs to investigate a potential data breach that is suspected to have occurred over the past week. The investigation requires correlating log data from firewalls, servers, and intrusion detection systems to identify suspicious patterns and trace the timeline of events. Which of the following tools is BEST suited for this type of historical analysis and data correlation?

  • A system vulnerability scanner

  • A packet capture utility

  • A security operations dashboard

  • A real-time network performance monitor

Question 20 of 20

A company's server room is equipped with motion sensors that alert security personnel when movement is detected after hours. What type of control are the motion sensors?

  • Corrective Control

  • Detective Control

  • Deterrent Control

  • Preventive Control