CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which access control method combines elements such as user role, the resource being accessed, and the current time to make an access decision?
Mandatory access control
Attribute-based access control
Role-based access control
Discretionary access control
Answer Description
Attribute-based access control is the correct answer because it is a method that defines an access control paradigm whereby access rights are granted to users through the use of policies that combine different attributes. These attributes can be associated with the user, the resource being accessed, the current time, and even the current environmental conditions. This is different from role-based access control that focuses solely on the roles that users have, discretionary access control which allows owners to define access, and mandatory access control which enforces access based on a centralized policy.
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What is Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)?
How does ABAC differ from Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)?
What are examples of attributes used in ABAC policies?
When implementing password protection measures, which of the following best describes a salt in cryptographic terms?
The act of repeatedly hashing a password multiple times to extend the amount of time required to hash passwords
An encryption method that dynamically changes the secret key based on a predefined algorithm
A random value added to each password prior to hashing to ensure that the resulting hash will be unique
A verification process to confirm that a digital message or document is intact and unaltered
Answer Description
A salt in cryptography refers to a randomly generated value that is added to the password before hashing. The salt is not intended to remain secret; its primary purpose is to be unique for each user's password. This uniqueness prevents attackers from using precomputed tables (such as rainbow tables) to reverse hash values into passwords. It also ensures that even if two users have the same password, their hashed values will be distinct.
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Why is a salt important in password hashing?
What is the difference between a salt and a hash?
Is the salt stored with the hashed password?
What describes an environment where the cloud provider dynamically manages the allocation of machine resources?
The cloud provider's automatic management of resource allocation for executing code without requiring the user to manage infrastructure
Users manually scale and manage virtual machine instances to meet the application's workload
Applications are constructed as a suite of small, independent services that perform specific business functions
A system where applications, dependencies, and systems are packaged together in a computing environment
Answer Description
A serverless architecture refers to a cloud computing model in which the cloud provider automatically provisions, scales, and manages the infrastructure required to run code. Developers can write and deploy code without worrying about the underlying infrastructure. Traditional cloud services typically require users to manage and scale virtual machine instances, whereas microservices are a design approach to build a single application as a suite of small services, and containers provide a standard way to package code and its dependencies.
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What are the key benefits of serverless architecture?
How does serverless compare to traditional virtual machines in resource management?
What is the difference between serverless and container-based architectures?
Which type of security control is designed to limit the damage and impact after a security incident has occurred?
Detective controls
Corrective controls
Compensating controls
Preventive controls
Answer Description
Corrective controls are implemented to minimize the extent of damage caused by a security incident after it has taken place. These controls focus on containing the incident, recovering from it, and preventing similar incidents from occurring in the future. Examples of corrective controls include incident response plans, backup systems, and disaster recovery procedures. Preventive controls aim to prevent incidents from happening in the first place, while detective controls identify and respond to ongoing incidents. Compensating controls serve as a substitute for primary controls when they are not feasible or practical to implement.
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What are some common examples of corrective controls?
How do corrective controls differ from preventive controls?
What role do incident response plans play in corrective controls?
As a benefit to its employees, your employer issues company purchased phones that the employee can use for both company business and personal use. Which device deployment model is the company using?
CYOD
BYOD
POCE
COPE
Answer Description
Corporate owned, personally enabled (COPE) is a deployment model where a company provides devices to their employees. The employee is then able to use the device for company and personal use. This approach helps to protect company data/resources while also providing the employee with the benefit of a device for personal use.
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What is the difference between COPE and BYOD?
How does COPE enhance security compared to other deployment models?
What are the potential downsides of using the COPE model?
What is the primary function of a hashing algorithm within the realm of cybersecurity?
To encrypt data so that it can be securely transmitted over public networks
To generate a unique 'fingerprint' of data that can be used to verify its integrity
To serve as the public key within a public-private key pair used for asymmetric encryption
To compress data to save storage space before transmitting over a network
Answer Description
The primary function of a hashing algorithm is to take an input (or 'message') and return a fixed-size string of bytes. The output, known as the hash, is typically a digest that represents the original data in a unique way. If the input changes by even a small amount, the hash will change significantly, known as the avalanche effect. The key aspect of a hash function is that it is a one-way function – data can be turned into a hash, but the hash cannot be turned back into the original data, ensuring data integrity. Hashes are broadly used to verify data integrity because they can reveal if data has been altered. This is crucial in many applications, such as verifying the integrity of downloaded files or the storage of passwords.
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What does the avalanche effect in a hash function mean?
How is hashing different from encryption?
What are some common uses of hashing in cybersecurity?
A security consultant is helping an organization to enhance the detection capabilities of unauthorized activities within its internal network. The organization's security strategy includes the deployment of Network Intrusion Detection Systems (NIDS) but also emphasizes minimizing the impact on network performance. Which deployment strategy should the consultant recommend?
Deploy NIDS sensors in inline mode to actively moderate and filter traffic.
Set up NIDS sensors to operate in stealth mode, invisible to network hosts and devices.
Place NIDS sensors in promiscuous mode to passively collect traffic without duplicating it.
Configure NIDS sensors in tap/monitor mode to replicate the network traffic non-intrusively.
Answer Description
Placing NIDS sensors in tap/monitor mode would allow the organization to detect unauthorized activities by mirroring the traffic that flows through the network, without injecting any additional latency or load on the primary network path. This strategy helps ensure network performance is not significantly impacted while maintaining an effective security posture. In contrast, inline mode can introduce latency since traffic must flow through the sensor, and promiscuous mode lacks the capability of real-time traffic replication typical of a tap/monitor setup.
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What is tap/monitor mode in NIDS?
How does inline mode differ from tap/monitor mode?
Why is minimizing network impact important in NIDS deployment?
Which type of malware infects one computer then replicates itself to infect other vulnerable systems without the need to be executed by a user?
Trojan
Ransomware
Worm
Virus
Answer Description
A worm is a type of malware that infects systems by replicating itself and passing from vulnerable system to vulnerable system. It differs from a virus in that it does not need to be executed to infect a system.
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What makes worms different from viruses in how they spread?
How do worms exploit vulnerabilities to spread across networks?
What are some common defenses against worms, and how do they help prevent infections?
A cybersecurity team detects a prolonged and sophisticated cyber-espionage operation targeting critical infrastructure across several countries. The attackers are using zero-day exploits and custom malware to infiltrate secure systems and exfiltrate sensitive data. Which threat actor is MOST likely responsible for this attack?
Insider threat
Organized crime group
Nation-state actor
Hacktivist
Answer Description
Nation-state actors are government-sponsored entities with substantial resources, funding, and high levels of sophistication. They are capable of developing zero-day exploits and custom malware to carry out prolonged cyber-espionage campaigns against critical infrastructure. Their motivations often include espionage, data exfiltration, and gaining strategic advantages over other nations. Other threat actors like organized crime groups or hacktivists typically lack the necessary resources or motivations to conduct such complex and targeted attacks on this scale.
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What is a zero-day exploit?
Why are nation-state actors considered highly skilled and resourced?
How do nation-state actors differ from hacktivists and organized crime groups?
An organization is evaluating a new web application to ensure it supports high availability. The security architect wants to prioritize rapid, low-overhead promotion of the code from test to production with minimal manual steps or downtime. Which high-availability consideration is the architect addressing?
Resilience
Ease of deployment
Scalability
Availability
Answer Description
The architect is focusing on ease of deployment, which measures how simple and quick it is to move a system or application into production. Designs that emphasize this attribute rely on automated build pipelines, standardized images, and clear documentation, reducing the risk of human error during releases. Availability gauges whether the service is up and reachable, resilience deals with withstanding and recovering from faults, and scalability concerns the ability to handle increased load. None of those directly capture the simplicity and speed of pushing code into production.
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What is an automated build pipeline in the context of ease of deployment?
How do standardized images contribute to ease of deployment?
How does minimizing manual steps reduce deployment downtime?
What is primarily used to ensure a consistent and secure configuration across multiple systems within an organization?
Secure baselines
Antivirus signatures
Security incident reports
Firewall rules
Answer Description
Secure baselines are standard sets of configurations that apply security controls to systems. They provide a reference point for ensuring that systems are configured with an approved set of settings for security purposes. By establishing a secure baseline, an organization can maintain a consistent security posture across all its systems, making it easier to manage and secure them effectively.
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What is a secure baseline, and how is it created?
How do secure baselines help organizations maintain security?
What tools or technologies are used to enforce secure baselines?
An attacker sets up a fraudulent website that perfectly mimics a company's webmail service and sends an email to an employee, tricking her into entering her username and password. The attacker successfully captures these credentials. Which of the following attacks can the adversary now directly perform using the captured username and password?
Credential replay
Session hijacking
DNS poisoning
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
Answer Description
The correct answer is credential replay. A credential replay attack occurs when an attacker captures valid credentials (like a username and password) and reuses, or "replays," them to gain unauthorized access to a system. The phishing attack described in the scenario is a common method for obtaining credentials for this purpose. Session hijacking involves stealing an active session token, not static credentials. Cross-site scripting (XSS) is an injection attack that targets other users of a vulnerable website. DNS poisoning is an attack that can redirect users to a malicious site but is not the attack performed with the stolen credentials.
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What is a credential replay attack?
How does phishing help attackers perform credential replay?
How can companies prevent credential replay attacks?
An organization is conducting a Business Impact Analysis. Which metric should be determined to establish the maximum time frame that a critical system can be disrupted before severe impact to business operations occurs?
Determining the maximum tolerable downtime for critical systems, otherwise known as the Recovery Time Objective, is essential for prioritizing their restoration.
Assessing the annual likelihood of a system failure occurring will forecast the potential interruptions in operations.
Establishing the data backup frequency is necessary for scheduling maintenance windows.
Calculating the cost of system outages per day can provide insight into potential financial losses.
Answer Description
Identifying the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) during a Business Impact Analysis is critical because it denotes the maximum duration that a service or system can be unavailable before causing unacceptable detriment to the business. Setting the RTO helps in crafting prioritized recovery strategies, ensuring that the most crucial systems are restored within a timeframe that prevents significant operational or financial loss. The other options, while related to business continuity and disaster recovery, do not directly address the focus on time frame for critical system recovery, like the RTO does.
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What is the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?
How is RTO different from Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
How is the RTO determined during a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?
An organization is reviewing their network log policies to ensure they can effectively identify unauthorized access attempts. Which of the following logging details should the organization prioritize to BEST meet this objective?
Username associated with each session initiation
The total amount of data transferred during each session
Timestamps of data transfer
Record the source IP address for all incoming traffic
Answer Description
Recording the source IP address is vital for tracking the origin of network traffic and identifying potential unauthorized access attempts. Knowing where the traffic originates helps determine whether the attempts come from within the organization or from external sources. Without this information, it would be challenging to locate the source of the security threat and take appropriate actions. Timestamps alone are insufficient because they do not reveal the origin. Usernames are important for application or authentication logs but are not typically present in raw network traffic logs. The total amount of data transferred may indicate exfiltration but is less specific to detecting access attempts.
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What is the importance of logging the source IP address in network traffic?
Why are timestamps insufficient for detecting unauthorized network access?
When are usernames more appropriate in logging compared to source IP addresses?
Which of the following best represents the role of endpoint protection software as a system hardening technique in an organization's cybersecurity strategy?
To optimize the performance and speed of endpoint devices for better user experience
To manage user permissions and access control lists across the network
To backup data periodically and ensure disaster recovery for individual endpoint devices
To provide comprehensive security measures, such as antivirus and personal firewall capabilities, to individual devices within a network
Answer Description
Endpoint protection software's role as a system hardening technique is to enhance the security of individual devices within a network by providing a combination of various security measures against threats such as malware, exploits, and unauthorized access attempts. It typically includes functionalities like antivirus, antimalware, and personal firewalls. The correct answer encapsulates these capabilities. The incorrect answers either misrepresent the scope of endpoint protection or attribute unrelated functions to it.
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What is system hardening and why is it important for cybersecurity?
What specific threats does endpoint protection software defend against?
How does endpoint protection software differ from network-level security tools like firewalls?
A regional healthcare organization regularly faces threats from severe weather events and has tasked the IT department with enhancing their business continuity plan. Leadership's primary goal is to ensure continuous operation of essential systems with no perceptible downtime in the event of a weather disaster. What update to the business continuity plan would BEST reflect leadership's priority for maintaining uninterrupted essential services?
Assemble a control center dedicated to managing communication and coordination during emergency responses
Enhance network infrastructure to manage a higher volume of data traffic during emergency situations
Outline strict targets for the time to restore essential services and schedules for critical data backups
Build and maintain a facility that is prepared and available on-demand for immediate operational takeover of essential systems
Answer Description
Establishing a facility that is fully prepared and available on-demand, equipped with the necessary resources and operational capability to assume control immediately, is essential for ensuring that there is no perceptible downtime for essential services during a disaster. This aligns with the leadership's priority for maintaining uninterrupted operations. While the other options can contribute to a robust business continuity strategy, they do not directly provide the seamless operational capabilities desired. Aggressive metrics for service recovery time and critical data restoration planning do not secure immediate operational capability and a control center mainly improves coordination, not service continuity.
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What is a business continuity plan (BCP)?
What is an on-demand facility in the context of disaster recovery?
Why is 'perceptible downtime' critical in healthcare organizations?
A security administrator is implementing an encryption system that uses two distinct, but related keys. One key is used for encrypting data, and the other is used for decrypting it. What type of cryptography is being implemented?
Block cipher
Hashing
Asymmetric key cryptography
Symmetric key cryptography
Answer Description
Asymmetric key cryptography, also known as public-key cryptography, is the correct answer because it uses a pair of keys for encryption and decryption-a public key and a private key. Symmetric key cryptography uses a single, shared key for both encryption and decryption. Hashing creates a fixed-size, non-reversible output and is used for integrity, not for encrypting and decrypting data. A block cipher is an algorithm that encrypts data in fixed-size blocks; it describes the method of encryption rather than the key management scheme and is commonly used in symmetric encryption.
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What is the main difference between asymmetric and symmetric key cryptography?
How does a public key and private key pair work in asymmetric cryptography?
How is asymmetric encryption different from hashing in terms of functionality?
A financial organization's security team has detected a significant increase in phishing attempts against its employees. In response to this threat, the team has decided to employ a mechanism that verifies the identity of email senders and checks if the emails are from trusted sources before reaching the employees. Which type of security control is the team MOST likely implementing?
Managerial Controls
Physical Controls
Technical Controls
Operational Controls
Answer Description
The team is most likely implementing technical controls in the form of email security technologies, such as Sender Policy Framework (SPF) and Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC). These technologies help to verify sender identities and assess the trustworthiness of the emails, acting as preventive controls to stop phishing attempts before they reach the employees.
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What are SPF and DMARC?
How do technical controls differ from operational controls?
Why are phishing emails a threat to organizations?
Your company has given you the responsibility to implement an appropriate access control scheme. The company wants to control access and permissions for employees based on job function. Which of the following should you use?
RBAC
DAC
RuBAC
MAC
Answer Description
Role based access control (RBAC) is an access control scheme that controls access and permissions by assigning them based on roles. Individuals are assigned roles which grants them the permissions and access assigned to that role(s).
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What is the difference between RBAC and RuBAC?
How does RBAC differ from MAC and DAC?
What are the benefits of using RBAC in a company setting?
When conducting an assessment of a potential third-party service provider, what is the MOST critical factor to establish before proceeding with any formal engagement?
Due diligence
Enforcing a right-to-audit clause
Choosing a vendor based on the lowest bid
Implementing continuous vendor monitoring
Answer Description
Due diligence is the correct answer because it encompasses a comprehensive appraisal of a business, its assets, capabilities, and financial performance before the company enters into an agreement or contract. It is a preventative measure essential for assessing different angles of potential risk, including operational, financial, legal, and compliance aspects. Vendor selection, while important, comes after due diligence has been performed. Right-to-audit clauses and vendor monitoring are parts of the ongoing management and oversight post-engagement, not pre-engagement processes.
Ask Bash
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What does 'due diligence' involve in the context of third-party service providers?
How does a right-to-audit clause differ from due diligence?
Why is continuous vendor monitoring not the primary focus before engagement?
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