CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
More reading:
Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An administrator is reviewing the organization's disaster recovery plan and wants to confirm that critical files can be brought back online after a ransomware attack. Which of the following activities BEST demonstrates that the backup strategy will enable a full recovery?
Scheduling differential backups to run every hour.
Performing a periodic restoration test in a nonproduction environment.
Storing backup tapes in an offsite, climate-controlled vault.
Encrypting the backup archives with AES-256.
Answer Description
Periodically restoring data from backup media in a test (or otherwise nonproduction) environment proves that the data can actually be recovered and that the organization's procedures meet recovery-time and recovery-point objectives. Encrypting archives, storing tapes off-site, and scheduling differential backups all improve aspects of confidentiality, availability, or frequency, but none of them confirms that the data can be restored successfully.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is a periodic restoration test in a nonproduction environment important?
What is the difference between recovery-time objective (RTO) and recovery-point objective (RPO)?
How does encrypting backups with AES-256 differ from actually testing the restoration process?
A corporation needs to secure its data while it is sent from the main office to a distant branch. To achieve confidentiality and effective management of cryptographic keys, which protocol should be adopted?
IPsec
PPTP
HTTPS
WEP
Answer Description
End-to-end encryption is necessary for safeguarding data transmitted over an unsecured network. Among the available methods, Internet Protocol Security ensures both the encryption of data and strong key management capabilities through its embedded protocols. Protocols like HTTPS are typically limited to web traffic encryption, rather than a comprehensive solution for all office communications. Methods relying on outdated protocols or suited for specific services fail to meet the security and key management requirements for sensitive data in wide-area corporate environments.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does IPsec ensure confidentiality and manage cryptographic keys?
What are the different embedded protocols in IPsec and their roles?
Why is HTTPS insufficient for securing office communications compared to IPsec?
During a security review, an engineer recommends placing a research lab's file server on a network segment that has absolutely no wired or wireless links to any other network, including the internet. Which term best describes this type of physically isolated environment?
Serverless
Air-gapped
Microservices
Virtualized
Answer Description
An air-gapped environment is a security measure in which a computer or network is physically isolated from all external networks. With no wired or wireless interfaces connected to outside systems, data cannot enter or leave electronically, creating a strong barrier against remote attacks. Serverless, microservices, and virtualized environments may still rely on network connectivity, so they do not provide the same level of isolation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is an air-gapped system considered highly secure?
How is an air-gapped system used in real-world scenarios?
What are the challenges of maintaining an air-gapped system?
Under common security-control taxonomies (e.g., NIST SP 800-53 and CompTIA), a periodic security audit that reviews system activity and policy compliance is BEST categorized as which type of control?
Detective control
Preventive control
Deterrent control
Corrective control
Answer Description
A security audit examines logs, configurations, and practices after activities have occurred. Its purpose is to uncover inappropriate actions, policy violations, or anomalies so the organization can investigate and respond. Because it detects events rather than preventing or discouraging them, it falls into the detective control category. Deterrent controls (such as warning signs or visible cameras) strive to discourage wrongdoing, preventive controls block actions outright, and corrective controls minimize damage after an incident.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the purpose of a detective control?
How does a detective control differ from a preventive control?
Can you explain more about NIST SP 800-53's role in security control categorization?
During the procurement phase for new computing resources, what is the BEST practice to ensure their security while integrating into the organization's existing infrastructure?
Choosing products with the newest features
Checking compatibility with current systems
Negotiating the lowest cost for products
Conducting a security review of the vendor and their products
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Conducting a security review of the vendor and their products', because ensuring the security of computing resources begins with a thorough evaluation of the vendors and their offerings. This evaluation should cover the vendor's security policies, compliance with relevant standards, and the security features of the products they are providing. Reviewing vendor security practices mitigates the risk of introducing vulnerabilities into the network through third-party products or services. 'Checking compatibility with current systems' is also a step in the process, but it does not directly strengthen security. 'Choosing products with the newest features' or 'Negotiating the lowest cost for products' may be important from a functionality or budget perspective, but they do not necessarily reflect the security posture of the products or the vendor.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is conducting a security review during procurement important?
What should be included in a vendor security evaluation?
How does a vendor’s compliance certification impact procurement decisions?
Which of the following actions provides logical (software-defined) segmentation rather than physical segmentation within an enterprise network?
Deploying dedicated cabling and standalone switches to isolate the payroll network.
Running a point-to-point dark-fiber link between two database servers to separate their traffic from the LAN.
Installing an air-gapped workstation that has no network interface card.
Configuring separate VLANs and matching IP subnets on existing switch ports to keep voice and data traffic isolated.
Answer Description
Configuring separate VLANs and matching IP subnets on the existing switch infrastructure isolates traffic at Layers 2-3 using software-defined settings. This is a logical segmentation method because it relies on switch port configuration and IP addressing, not on additional physical hardware or cabling. Installing air-gapped systems, dedicating separate switches/cabling, or running a stand-alone dark-fiber link all require new physical infrastructure and therefore constitute physical segmentation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between logical segmentation and physical segmentation in networks?
How do VLANs work to create logical segmentation?
Why is logical segmentation often preferred over physical segmentation?
A financial services company wants to ensure its critical customer-facing web application is always accessible and performs well, even during periods of high user activity. The primary goals are to prevent any single server failure from causing an outage and to efficiently distribute incoming user requests across the server farm. Which of the following solutions BEST meets both of these requirements?
Implementing RAID-10 on all web servers.
Deploying a software-defined wide area network (SD-WAN).
A single, powerful server with virtualization enabled.
A failover cluster combined with a load balancer.
Answer Description
The best solution is to use a failover cluster combined with a load balancer. A failover cluster, a type of high-availability cluster, ensures service continuity by having redundant servers ready to take over if one fails. A load balancer distributes incoming traffic across the active servers in the cluster, which improves performance and responsiveness. While often used together, virtualization alone on a single server still represents a single point of failure. RAID provides storage redundancy but does not ensure service availability or distribute traffic. SD-WAN is a networking solution for managing WAN connections and is not the primary tool for application-level high availability.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a failover cluster and how does it work?
How does a load balancer distribute traffic across servers?
How does SD-WAN differ from a solution like load balancing?
What type of backup is a copy of the entire state of a system and it can be used to restore that system and other similar systems to that exact state/configuration?
Image
Full
Differential
Incremental
Answer Description
A system image is a copy of the entire state of a system. That image can be used as a way to restore the system it came from to that exact state or it can be copied onto other similar system to bring them all to a uniform state.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between an image backup and a full backup?
What does 'system state' include in an image backup?
How does an image backup differ from incremental and differential backups?
Which international framework should a multinational corporation adopt to ensure compliance with global data protection and privacy standards?
United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods
General Data Protection Regulation
Shipping Port Security Act
Federal Information Security Management Act
Answer Description
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a comprehensive data privacy framework that imposes strict rules on data protection and privacy for individuals within the European Union. As it is one of the strictest privacy and security laws in the world, adopting GDPR-compliant policies will likely ensure compliance with a wide range of international data protection standards. The regulation requires businesses to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens. Additionally, because the GDPR has extraterritorial applicability, meaning it applies to organizations outside the EU that process data of EU residents, adhering to its standards can help a multinational corporation align with global data protection regulations. The other options are either national and not globally focused (like the Federal Information Security Management Act), industry-specific (such as acts related to shipping port security), or limited in scope with regards to data protection (for example, the United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods).
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the extraterritorial applicability of GDPR?
What are the penalties for non-compliance with GDPR?
How does GDPR compare with other data protection laws, like CCPA?
During the authentication process, which of the following would be classified as a 'something you know' factor?
Passphrase
USB security key
GPS location data
Retina scan
Answer Description
A 'something you know' factor is an authentication method based on information that is memorized and provided by the user. A passphrase is a multi-word form of a password and falls under this category. In contrast, a biometric pattern, such as a retina scan, is 'something you are,' and a USB security key is 'something you have.' GPS location data would be categorized under 'somewhere you are,' as it provides information on the user's geographical location.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the three primary factors of authentication?
Why is a passphrase considered more secure than a traditional password?
How does GPS location data fit into multi-factor authentication?
Which of the following best describes the core principle of the Zero Trust Model?
Enforcing multi-factor authentication for all access requests
Granting least privilege access to all users
Assuming no user, device, or network traffic should be trusted by default
Trusting all users and devices within the network perimeter
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the Zero Trust Model assumes that no user, device, or network traffic should be trusted by default, even if it originates from within the network perimeter. This is the fundamental principle of the Zero Trust approach, which shifts away from the traditional "trust but verify" model to a "never trust, always verify" mindset. The other answers, while related to security concepts, do not accurately capture the essence of the Zero Trust Model. Least privilege access and multi-factor authentication are important security practices, but they are not the core defining characteristics of the Zero Trust approach.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is the Zero Trust Model necessary in modern networks?
How does Zero Trust differ from traditional security models?
What technologies support the implementation of Zero Trust?
When an employee leaves the organization, the employee’s data is required to be maintained for a specific period of time. In what document within the company would this requirement be specified?
COOP
DRP
Retention policy
BCP
Answer Description
The data retention policies within an organization are a set of guidelines that describes which data will be archived, how long it will be kept, what happens to the data at the end of the retention period (archive or destroy) and other factors concerning the retention of the data.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a retention policy?
How is a retention policy different from DRP or BCP?
Why is a retention policy important for compliance?
An international financial organization has data centers in multiple countries and must comply with the European Union's data protection regulations that prohibit certain types of personal data from being transferred outside the EU. Which of the following architectural considerations is most effective in aligning the organization's data storage and transfer practices with these regulations?
Applying strong encryption to data before transferring it between data centers
Using redundant data storage across international locations for high availability
Implementing geofencing within the data management policies
Establishing a policy that requires manual approval for data transfers
Introducing a secure web gateway to filter outbound data traffic
Deploying a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data transfer
Answer Description
Implementing geofencing within the data management policies is the most effective way to ensure that data does not leave the European Union, as it provides controls that can enforce the physical boundaries set by the regulations. Geofencing uses GPS or RFID-enabled software to trigger a pre-programmed action when a mobile device enters or exits a virtual boundary set up around a geographical location, in this case, the EU. Other options like redundant data storage or encryption do not inherently restrict the transfer of data across geographical lines. Data loss prevention focuses on monitoring and protecting data in use, in motion, and at rest, but does not pertain specifically to geographical restrictions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is geofencing, and how does it work in data management?
Why is strong encryption not enough to comply with geographic data regulations?
How do data management policies integrate geofencing to meet compliance requirements?
A security administrator needs to deploy a network security device that will analyze and potentially block malicious traffic without being bypassed if it fails. Which deployment option aligns best with this requirement?
Use port mirroring to duplicate traffic to the device.
Deploy the device in inline mode with fail-closed configuration.
Implement the device as an external monitor that gets copied traffic from a network switch.
Set up the device as a network tap to passively monitor traffic.
Answer Description
An inline device is deployed directly on the network path; all traffic must pass through it. This is ideal for scenarios where traffic analysis and blocking potential threats is necessary. Furthermore, since the device must not be bypassed even if it fails, an inline device must be used instead of a tap or monitor mode, which allows traffic to bypass the device if it fails or is not active.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'inline mode' mean in the context of network devices?
What does 'fail-closed' configuration mean, and why is it important?
How does deploying a network tap or using port mirroring differ from inline mode?
A security analyst is briefing new employees on mobile-focused social-engineering techniques. She warns that attackers often send fraudulent SMS texts that appear to come from legitimate organizations, luring victims to click malicious links or install rogue apps that steal personal data. Which specific attack vector is she describing?
Smishing
Pretexting
Baiting
Whaling
Answer Description
Smishing combines SMS text messaging with phishing tactics. Attackers craft convincing text messages that appear to come from trusted sources, enticing users to click links or download malicious apps. This can lead to credential theft, malware installation, or other compromises on the victim's smartphone. Whaling targets high-value executives via phishing emails, pretexting invents a scenario to obtain information, and baiting offers something enticing to trick the user, so none of those describe SMS-based attacks.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What makes smishing different from regular phishing?
How can you identify a smishing attempt?
What steps can you take to protect yourself from smishing attacks?
Which of the following best describes the purpose of establishing business continuity procedures within an organization?
To maintain essential functions during, and after, a disaster or major incident.
To ensure an organization is continually compliant with industry regulations.
To protect and secure an organization's data from unauthorized access or theft.
To provide a roadmap solely for the recovery of IT infrastructure after an outage.
Answer Description
Business continuity procedures are designed to ensure that an organization can maintain essential functions during, and after, a disaster or major disruption. Their main focus is not solely on IT infrastructure, data protection, or compliance with industry regulations, although these may be components of a business continuity plan. It's important for a business to have a clear strategy that includes processes and procedures to mitigate downtime and ensure operational resilience.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between business continuity and disaster recovery?
What are some key components of a business continuity plan?
How does business continuity relate to organizational resilience?
When implementing password protection measures, which of the following best describes a salt in cryptographic terms?
A verification process to confirm that a digital message or document is intact and unaltered
A random value added to each password prior to hashing to ensure that the resulting hash will be unique
An encryption method that dynamically changes the secret key based on a predefined algorithm
The act of repeatedly hashing a password multiple times to extend the amount of time required to hash passwords
Answer Description
A salt in cryptography refers to a randomly generated value that is added to the password before hashing. The salt is not intended to remain secret; its primary purpose is to be unique for each user's password. This uniqueness prevents attackers from using precomputed tables (such as rainbow tables) to reverse hash values into passwords. It also ensures that even if two users have the same password, their hashed values will be distinct.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is a salt important in password hashing?
What is the difference between a salt and a hash?
Is the salt stored with the hashed password?
A financial organization wishes to safeguard its email communication with encryption and also adhere to internal policies that require recovery of encrypted data in case the encryption keys are misplaced. The organization plans to engage a third party to maintain a store of private keys in a secure manner for this purpose. What is the organization intending to set up?
Storing keys with a certificate authority
Implementing whole disk encryption
Key escrow
Appointing a key recovery agent
Answer Description
The organization is intending to set up a key escrow system. A key escrow refers to a secure process where a third party holds a copy of the encryption key, which can be used to access encrypted data if the user's private key is lost or becomes inaccessible. Using a certificate authority explicitly for encryption does not imply that key escrow services are provided; a certificate authority usually authenticates identities and issues digital certificates. Designating a key recovery agent does not necessarily indicate the use of a key escrow system, as this role is meant for retrieving keys from the escrow but is not the service itself. Full-disk encryption is unrelated to key management or recovery, as it pertains to protecting data at rest and does not encompass storing or handling keys.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is key escrow?
How is key escrow different from appointing a key recovery agent?
Why is engaging a third party important for key escrow?
An organization is undergoing a major upgrade to their existing network infrastructure. Which of the following would BEST ensure that the security implications of the upgrade are appropriately addressed before deployment?
Maintenance Window
Impact Analysis
Updating Diagrams
Approval Process
Answer Description
Conducting an impact analysis ensures that any potential consequences of a planned change-such as a major network upgrade-are identified and mitigated ahead of time. By analyzing the impact, the organization can recognize security risks, adjust controls, and prepare countermeasures before deployment. While the other choices are valid components of change management, they do not specifically focus on assessing security implications.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an impact analysis in the context of network upgrades?
How does an impact analysis differ from an approval process?
Why is updating diagrams insufficient for addressing security implications?
During a routine security audit in your organization, it was discovered that an employee from the research and development department has been transmitting confidential product designs to a competitor. Which type of threat actor is most likely involved in this scenario?
Organized crime
Nation-state
Unskilled attacker
Insider threat
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Insider threat' because the employee who is part of the organization, had access to sensitive data and abused that access to provide information to a competitor, typically for personal gain or due to a grievance. 'Nation-state' would not usually target a company for product designs unless it has national security implications. An 'Unskilled attacker' is less likely to have specific internal knowledge about the organization's confidential projects. 'Organized crime' groups generally target financial gain through more direct means such as extortion or large scale data breaches for credit card information.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What motivates insider threats to act against their organization?
How can an organization detect and prevent insider threats?
How does an insider threat differ from an external threat actor?
Gnarly!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.