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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

An administrator is reviewing the organization's disaster recovery plan and wants to confirm that critical files can be brought back online after a ransomware attack. Which of the following activities BEST demonstrates that the backup strategy will enable a full recovery?

  • Scheduling differential backups to run every hour.

  • Performing a periodic restoration test in a nonproduction environment.

  • Storing backup tapes in an offsite, climate-controlled vault.

  • Encrypting the backup archives with AES-256.

Question 2 of 20

A corporation needs to secure its data while it is sent from the main office to a distant branch. To achieve confidentiality and effective management of cryptographic keys, which protocol should be adopted?

  • IPsec

  • PPTP

  • HTTPS

  • WEP

Question 3 of 20

During a security review, an engineer recommends placing a research lab's file server on a network segment that has absolutely no wired or wireless links to any other network, including the internet. Which term best describes this type of physically isolated environment?

  • Serverless

  • Air-gapped

  • Microservices

  • Virtualized

Question 4 of 20

Under common security-control taxonomies (e.g., NIST SP 800-53 and CompTIA), a periodic security audit that reviews system activity and policy compliance is BEST categorized as which type of control?

  • Detective control

  • Preventive control

  • Deterrent control

  • Corrective control

Question 5 of 20

During the procurement phase for new computing resources, what is the BEST practice to ensure their security while integrating into the organization's existing infrastructure?

  • Choosing products with the newest features

  • Checking compatibility with current systems

  • Negotiating the lowest cost for products

  • Conducting a security review of the vendor and their products

Question 6 of 20

Which of the following actions provides logical (software-defined) segmentation rather than physical segmentation within an enterprise network?

  • Deploying dedicated cabling and standalone switches to isolate the payroll network.

  • Running a point-to-point dark-fiber link between two database servers to separate their traffic from the LAN.

  • Installing an air-gapped workstation that has no network interface card.

  • Configuring separate VLANs and matching IP subnets on existing switch ports to keep voice and data traffic isolated.

Question 7 of 20

A financial services company wants to ensure its critical customer-facing web application is always accessible and performs well, even during periods of high user activity. The primary goals are to prevent any single server failure from causing an outage and to efficiently distribute incoming user requests across the server farm. Which of the following solutions BEST meets both of these requirements?

  • Implementing RAID-10 on all web servers.

  • Deploying a software-defined wide area network (SD-WAN).

  • A single, powerful server with virtualization enabled.

  • A failover cluster combined with a load balancer.

Question 8 of 20

What type of backup is a copy of the entire state of a system and it can be used to restore that system and other similar systems to that exact state/configuration?

  • Image

  • Full

  • Differential

  • Incremental

Question 9 of 20

Which international framework should a multinational corporation adopt to ensure compliance with global data protection and privacy standards?

  • United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods

  • General Data Protection Regulation

  • Shipping Port Security Act

  • Federal Information Security Management Act

Question 10 of 20

During the authentication process, which of the following would be classified as a 'something you know' factor?

  • Passphrase

  • USB security key

  • GPS location data

  • Retina scan

Question 11 of 20

Which of the following best describes the core principle of the Zero Trust Model?

  • Enforcing multi-factor authentication for all access requests

  • Granting least privilege access to all users

  • Assuming no user, device, or network traffic should be trusted by default

  • Trusting all users and devices within the network perimeter

Question 12 of 20

When an employee leaves the organization, the employee’s data is required to be maintained for a specific period of time. In what document within the company would this requirement be specified?

  • COOP

  • DRP

  • Retention policy

  • BCP

Question 13 of 20

An international financial organization has data centers in multiple countries and must comply with the European Union's data protection regulations that prohibit certain types of personal data from being transferred outside the EU. Which of the following architectural considerations is most effective in aligning the organization's data storage and transfer practices with these regulations?

  • Applying strong encryption to data before transferring it between data centers

  • Using redundant data storage across international locations for high availability

  • Implementing geofencing within the data management policies

  • Establishing a policy that requires manual approval for data transfers

  • Introducing a secure web gateway to filter outbound data traffic

  • Deploying a data loss prevention (DLP) solution to monitor data transfer

Question 14 of 20

A security administrator needs to deploy a network security device that will analyze and potentially block malicious traffic without being bypassed if it fails. Which deployment option aligns best with this requirement?

  • Use port mirroring to duplicate traffic to the device.

  • Deploy the device in inline mode with fail-closed configuration.

  • Implement the device as an external monitor that gets copied traffic from a network switch.

  • Set up the device as a network tap to passively monitor traffic.

Question 15 of 20

A security analyst is briefing new employees on mobile-focused social-engineering techniques. She warns that attackers often send fraudulent SMS texts that appear to come from legitimate organizations, luring victims to click malicious links or install rogue apps that steal personal data. Which specific attack vector is she describing?

  • Smishing

  • Pretexting

  • Baiting

  • Whaling

Question 16 of 20

Which of the following best describes the purpose of establishing business continuity procedures within an organization?

  • To maintain essential functions during, and after, a disaster or major incident.

  • To ensure an organization is continually compliant with industry regulations.

  • To protect and secure an organization's data from unauthorized access or theft.

  • To provide a roadmap solely for the recovery of IT infrastructure after an outage.

Question 17 of 20

When implementing password protection measures, which of the following best describes a salt in cryptographic terms?

  • A verification process to confirm that a digital message or document is intact and unaltered

  • A random value added to each password prior to hashing to ensure that the resulting hash will be unique

  • An encryption method that dynamically changes the secret key based on a predefined algorithm

  • The act of repeatedly hashing a password multiple times to extend the amount of time required to hash passwords

Question 18 of 20

A financial organization wishes to safeguard its email communication with encryption and also adhere to internal policies that require recovery of encrypted data in case the encryption keys are misplaced. The organization plans to engage a third party to maintain a store of private keys in a secure manner for this purpose. What is the organization intending to set up?

  • Storing keys with a certificate authority

  • Implementing whole disk encryption

  • Key escrow

  • Appointing a key recovery agent

Question 19 of 20

An organization is undergoing a major upgrade to their existing network infrastructure. Which of the following would BEST ensure that the security implications of the upgrade are appropriately addressed before deployment?

  • Maintenance Window

  • Impact Analysis

  • Updating Diagrams

  • Approval Process

Question 20 of 20

During a routine security audit in your organization, it was discovered that an employee from the research and development department has been transmitting confidential product designs to a competitor. Which type of threat actor is most likely involved in this scenario?

  • Organized crime

  • Nation-state

  • Unskilled attacker

  • Insider threat