CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A healthcare institution recently hired you to review their security measures. You discover that they have not been monitoring access to publicly available information that could be used for social engineering attacks. Which type of reconnaissance is the institution most vulnerable to?
Active scanning
Active reconnaissance
Passive reconnaissance
Penetration testing
Answer Description
The institution is most vulnerable to passive reconnaissance. This is because passive reconnaissance involves collecting information without directly interacting with the target system, often by gathering accessible data such as company records, employee social media profiles, or public documents. This kind of information is exactly what the institution has not been monitoring, which could lead to an attacker collecting data without detection to facilitate social engineering or other types of attacks.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is passive reconnaissance?
What are some examples of data that can be used in passive reconnaissance?
How can healthcare institutions protect themselves from passive reconnaissance?
A company is reviewing their security controls for critical infrastructure and needs to decide on the deployment of a mechanism that should ensure maximum uptime. However, during a network outage or a device failure, they want the mechanism to prioritize network availability over strict security to maintain business operations. Which of the following configurations would BEST align with the company's requirements?
Implement a fail-open mechanism on security devices.
Configure a high availability cluster for all critical systems.
Deploy an additional layer of intrusion prevention systems.
Set all security devices to a fail-close setting.
Answer Description
A fail-open configuration is designed to allow traffic to pass through when the security device experiences a failure, such as a malfunction or a loss of power, thus ensuring that network availability is prioritized. While this might introduce a security risk by allowing potentially unsecured traffic during the failure event, it supports the company's requirement for maximum uptime. The other provided responses either incorrectly relate to device security postures not focused on availability (such as fail-close), or do not relate to failure modes directly affecting traffic (such as a high availability cluster, which is designed for redundancy but not specifically addressing the company's need for availability during a security device failure).
Ask Bash
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What is a fail-open mechanism?
What are the risks of using a fail-open configuration?
What is the difference between fail-open and fail-close mechanisms?
Which of the given options is a hashing algorithm that creates a 128 bit fixed output?
SHA2
MD5
SHA1
RIP128
Answer Description
MD5 (Message Digest 5) creates a 128 bit fixed output. SHA1 creates 160 bit outputs, SHA2 creates 256 bit outputs and RIP128 is a thing we made up that sounds pretty cool.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is MD5 and how is it used in security?
Why is hashing important in cybersecurity?
What are the differences between SHA-1 and SHA-2?
A security audit of a financial application reveals a critical vulnerability. The application first checks a user's account balance to authorize a transfer (time-of-check) and then, in a separate step, processes the withdrawal (time-of-use). An attacker found that by sending multiple, simultaneous requests, they could withdraw funds exceeding their actual balance because the balance was not locked during the transaction. Which of the following vulnerabilities does this scenario describe?
Race condition
Privilege escalation
SQL injection
Buffer overflow
Answer Description
This scenario describes a race condition, specifically a Time-of-check to Time-of-use (TOCTOU) vulnerability. The application checks a condition (the account balance) at one point in time but uses the result of that check at a later point. An attacker can exploit the delay between the check and the use to change the state (in this case, by initiating another withdrawal), leading to unexpected and insecure behavior like withdrawing more money than is available in the account.
Ask Bash
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What are time-of-check and time-of-use in relation to race conditions?
How can race conditions be mitigated in software development?
What are some real-world examples of race condition exploitation?
In the context of security control types, which of the following BEST describes the primary purpose of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
Preventive control
Detective control
Corrective control
Deterrent control
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System monitors network or host activity and generates alerts when suspicious behavior is detected. Because it identifies potential incidents rather than blocking or remediating them, it is categorized as a detective control. Preventive controls (e.g., firewalls) attempt to stop incidents, corrective controls focus on recovery, and deterrent controls primarily discourage attackers.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between Detective Controls and Preventive Controls?
Can you explain how an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) works?
What are some examples of Preventive Controls?
Users within a company are experiencing intermittent inability to access critical file-sharing services, while internet connectivity is unaffected. The IT department notes unusually high network traffic directed at the servers during these outages. What is the MOST likely cause behind the file-sharing service being inaccessible?
A DDoS attack on the company's file-sharing servers.
Switching infrastructure failure leading to intermittent network partitioning.
A misconfigured ACL blocking access to the file-sharing service.
An ARP spoofing attack causing content redirection.
Answer Description
The correct answer is a DDoS attack. This type of attack floods the server with an excessive amount of traffic, intending to exceed the server's capacity to handle requests, leading to inaccessibility for legitimate users. The described symptoms—high traffic volume and service-specific disruption without affecting the entire network—are indicative of such an attack. Incorrect answers offer alternatives such as ARP spoofing, which might lead to network connectivity problems, but does not typically cause a massive surge in traffic to one particular service. Likewise, problems with the switching infrastructure or a misconfigured ACL, while they can cause network issues, wouldn't typically result in a sudden increase in traffic and would be more likely to affect multiple services or result in different symptoms.
Ask Bash
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What are the signs that indicate a DDoS attack is happening?
How does a DDoS attack work?
What measures can be taken to mitigate DDoS attacks?
A company's mobile workforce requires a method of authentication that significantly reduces the likelihood of unauthorized access in the event of credential theft. Which of the following types of authentication factors is the BEST to implement to meet this requirement?
Token-based authentication
Biometric authentication
Physical location verification
One-time codes sent through message protocols
Answer Description
Biometric authentication is tied to individual physiological characteristics, making it a more secure option compared to other authentication methods. It is something an individual 'is' and is, therefore, less susceptible to being stolen or replicated. Establishing biometric controls such as fingerprint scanners or facial recognition provides a higher level of assurance that access is being granted to the authenticated user. Token-based methods, although secure, can still be vulnerable if the physical token is lost or stolen. One-time codes sent over widely used message protocols, despite their convenience, can be intercepted or redirected by attackers. Using the physical location of the user as an authentication factor is not as secure on its own, as it does not directly verify the user's identity.
Ask Bash
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What are the different types of biometric authentication methods?
How does biometric authentication work to ensure security?
What are the advantages and disadvantages of biometric authentication?
An organization's security department has detected an ongoing attack that is highly sophisticated, seems to be targeting specific data related to national defense, and is suspected to have significant financial backing. Which type of threat actor is MOST likely responsible for this attack?
Insider threat
Unskilled attacker
Hacktivist
Nation-state
Answer Description
Given the high level of sophistication, targeted nature of the attack, and significant funding implied by the ongoing attack method, a nation-state actor is the most probable responsible party. Nation-state actors often engage in espionage and target sensitive government-related data. They possess the capabilities and funding to carry out advanced and persistent threats. An unskilled attacker is unlikely to have the required sophistication; a hacktivist would more likely be motivated by political beliefs and not typically target defense data for espionage; an insider threat would have access but may not have the same level of sophistication or require significant external resources.
Ask Bash
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What defines a nation-state threat actor?
How does funding influence the capabilities of threat actors?
What differentiates a hacktivist from a nation-state actor?
A company is migrating its services to a cloud provider and needs to determine which security controls are managed by them and which are managed by the provider. Which document should they refer to for this information?
The cloud provider's incident response plan
The cloud provider's responsibility matrix
The cloud provider's service level agreement
The company's internal policies
Answer Description
The cloud provider's responsibility matrix outlines the division of security responsibilities between the provider and the customer. It specifies which security controls are managed by the provider and which are the customer's responsibility. The service level agreement (SLA) typically covers performance metrics like uptime and availability, not the specifics of security responsibilities. The incident response plan details how incidents are managed but doesn't define the division of security controls. The company's internal policies are important but do not inform them of the provider's responsibilities.
Ask Bash
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What is a cloud provider's responsibility matrix?
How does the shared responsibility model impact cloud security?
What should be included in a service level agreement (SLA)?
An IT staff member is tasked with the day-to-day management of information assets, including implementing backup and recovery procedures and maintaining security controls, but does not have authority to make policy decisions regarding the data. What role does this staff member hold in the organization?
Data Owner
Data Custodian
Data Processor
Data Controller
Answer Description
The IT staff member in this scenario is fulfilling the role of a Data Custodian. Data Custodians are responsible for the technical management and operations of data assets, ensuring that data is properly backed up, secured, and maintained. They implement the policies and controls specified by Data Owners but do not set or decide on those policies themselves.
A Data Owner is typically a senior individual who has authority over and accountability for a specific set of data, making decisions about data classification, access permissions, and policy decisions.
A Data Controller is an entity or individual that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data, often in the context of privacy laws, which is not directly relevant to the described duties.
A Data Processor is an entity that processes data on behalf of a Data Controller, but again, this role is more about processing activities rather than managing and maintaining data assets.
Ask Bash
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What are the specific responsibilities of a Data Custodian?
How does the role of a Data Owner differ from that of a Data Custodian?
What are the implications of not having a defined Data Custodian role in an organization?
What type of access control restricts user access to systems based on the current time?
Time-of-day restrictions
Role-based access controls
Attribute-based access controls
Least privilege
Answer Description
Time-of-day restrictions are a type of access control mechanism that limit user access to systems based on predefined time periods. This is to prevent users from accessing the system during times when they should not, such as non-business hours or during maintenance windows. This is not related to the attributes of the user (attribute-based) or their role within the organization (role-based), and it does not necessarily reflect the least privilege principle on its own. Instead, it specifies when the access is permitted, regardless of other attributes or roles.
Ask Bash
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What are some common applications of time-of-day restrictions?
How can time-of-day restrictions be implemented in a system?
How do time-of-day restrictions differ from other access control methods?
During a security awareness training session, you want to ensure employees are equipped to identify fraudulent emails attempting to obtain sensitive company data by impersonating a trusted source. Which type of security threat should the training primarily focus on?
Vishing
Tailgating
Phishing campaigns
Spear phishing
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Phishing campaigns' because they involve the use of communications, typically emails, that attempt to fraudulently obtain sensitive information by impersonating a trusted organization or individual. 'Spear phishing' is a more targeted version of phishing, and while it is related, the question is asking about the broader term. 'Vishing' refers to voice call scams, and 'Tailgating' is a physical security breach method, which does not fit the context of identifying fraudulent emails.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly are phishing campaigns?
What distinguishes spear phishing from regular phishing?
What is vishing and how is it different from phishing?
A company's web server suddenly experiences an overwhelming amount of traffic, causing legitimate users to be unable to access the website. Investigation reveals that the traffic surge is due to a flood of network requests with spoofed IP addresses, indicating a possible DDoS attack. Which type of DDoS attack is most likely occurring if the attack traffic is magnified by the attackers using public network services without the need for a botnet?
Reflected DDoS attack
Ping flood attack
SYN flood attack
Amplified DDoS attack
Answer Description
An Amplified DDoS attack relies on the use of public network services to enlarge the volume of traffic directed at the victim's network. The attacker sends requests to these services with spoofed source IP addresses so that the large responses are redirected to the victim's server, thus amplifying the attack traffic without the need for a botnet. Reflected attacks also use spoofed IP addresses, but the amplification factor is not their defining characteristic. A SYN flood attack does not inherently use amplification techniques; it primarily exhausts resources by initiating numerous incomplete TCP connection requests. Similarly, a Ping flood is a straightforward attack that sends numerous ICMP Echo request packets to overwhelm the target but does not involve amplification through public network services.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is an Amplified DDoS attack?
What is the difference between an Amplified DDoS attack and a Reflected DDoS attack?
What are some common public network services used in Amplified DDoS attacks?
What best describes a risk assessment that is conducted to evaluate the potential impact of a new business initiative before its launch?
Ad Hoc
Continuous
Recurring
One-Time
Answer Description
A 'One-Time' risk assessment is a standalone evaluation conducted to assess the risks associated with a specific event or change, such as the introduction of a new business initiative. It helps in identifying potential risks before proceeding with the project and is not part of the regular, scheduled assessments. This type of assessment is critical for making informed decisions about one-off projects or changes that are not part of the routine operational activities. 'Ad Hoc', 'Recurring', and 'Continuous' assessments are incorrect because they respectively describe assessments that are unscheduled and irregular, regularly scheduled, and ongoing monitoring.
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What is a risk assessment?
Why is a One-Time risk assessment important for new initiatives?
What differentiates a One-Time risk assessment from other types?
Which of the following best ensures that an application has not been modified by an unauthorized party and truly comes from the claimed source?
Setting secure cookies on the application
Enabling multifactor authentication on the application login
Installing the latest antivirus software on the system where the application is running
Implementing code signing certificates
Answer Description
The use of code signing certificates by the developers ensures that the application is legitimately from the source it claims to be, and that it has not been tampered with after being signed. Code signing provides a digital signature mechanism where a certificate issued by a trusted Certificate Authority (CA) is used to sign the software, enhancing trust and security. Although all answers may relate to software security, secure cookies, multifactor authentication, and antivirus are not directly relevant to establishing the authenticity and integrity of an application's source code or executable.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are code signing certificates and how do they work?
What is a Certificate Authority (CA) and why is it important?
What other methods exist to ensure application integrity besides code signing?
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