CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Your team is in the process of developing a new web application. As a security specialist, you are tasked with performing an assessment to identify potential security flaws. Which technique would allow you to analyze the behavior of the application during execution to identify unexpected outcomes, vulnerabilities or security violations?
Performing a detailed review of the source code of the web application before it is compiled
Utilizing a configuration compliance scanner to ensure that the servers meet the company's baseline security standards
Conducting a run-time evaluation of the web application with a variety of inputs and analysing the response
Inspecting and interpreting web application firewall logs to identify potential security issues
Answer Description
Dynamic analysis involves examining the behavior of an application at runtime. It is more practical and comprehensive for understanding how an application behaves with various inputs in real-time, which is essential for discovering a wide range of potential security issues, including the ones that only arise when a program interacts with an operating system or other applications.
Ask Bash
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What is dynamic analysis in security testing?
What are some common tools used for dynamic analysis?
How does dynamic analysis differ from static analysis?
What distinguishes a soft authentication token from other methods used in multifactor authentication?
It involves the analysis of an individual's physical or behavioral traits and is inherently bound to the user rather than any device.
It is a software-based tool that generates a code or signal used to verify a user's identity, which can be installed on devices the user already owns.
It is an encrypted file used primarily to establish secure sessions between clients and servers, not particularly for generating authentication codes.
It is a physical object that the user possesses and presents as a form of identification to a security checkpoint or device.
Answer Description
A soft authentication token is a software-based mechanism-usually an app installed on a user's smartphone, tablet, or computer-that generates one-time authentication codes. Because it exists purely in software on a device the user already owns, it contrasts with hard tokens (physical devices), biometrics (inherent user traits), and digital certificates (used mainly to establish secure sessions rather than generate one-time codes).
Ask Bash
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What are examples of soft authentication tokens?
How do soft authentication tokens improve security?
What are the benefits of using soft tokens compared to hard tokens?
How can a network administrator secure a switch port to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network, while also mitigating the risk of address flooding attacks?
DHCP snooping
Implementing switch port security measures
Enabling 802.1X authentication
Configuring a captive portal
Answer Description
802.1X authentication provides a method for network devices to authenticate users or devices before allowing them access to the network, which can be effective against unauthorized devices but doesn't address address flooding attacks. Switch port security is indeed the right feature for limiting access to a switch port to a specific number of known devices, thereby preventing both unauthorized network access and mitigating address flooding attacks, which occur when a network device is overwhelmed with data from multiple unknown devices. While a captive portal can restrict access through a web page, it does not inherently prevent device-level access attacks, and DHCP snooping is a security feature that monitors and filters DHCP traffic, which is unrelated to direct switch port security measures.
Ask Bash
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What are switch port security measures?
What is an address flooding attack?
How does 802.1X authentication work?
In the context of cybersecurity, what does the concept of 'Threat Scope Reduction' primarily involve?
Minimizing the number of potential threats to an information system by limiting the attack surface and properly segmenting the network.
Encrypting all data in transit and at rest to ensure confidentiality and integrity.
Responding to security incidents after they occur by developing a comprehensive incident response plan.
Utilizing a security model that trusts all internal systems and requires strict verification for external entities only.
Answer Description
The concept of 'Threat Scope Reduction' involves implementing measures to minimize the number of potential threats to an information system. This could mean reducing the attack surface by closing unnecessary ports, limiting the functionality and access rights to only what is strictly needed, and segmenting the network to limit potential lateral movement by an attacker. The idea is to reduce the number of vectors or paths an attacker can exploit, thus minimizing the overall potential for a security breach.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is meant by 'attack surface' in cybersecurity?
How can network segmentation help in threat scope reduction?
Why is it important to limit access rights in an information system?
In your role as an ISSO within your company, one of your duties is to author policy documents to meet information security mandates. These documents fall under which type of security control category?
Managerial
Technical
Physical
Operational
Answer Description
Managerial security controls include policies and procedures used in the management of security controls and programs.
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What are examples of managerial security controls?
How do managerial controls differ from technical and operational controls?
Why are policies and procedures important in information security?
What type of network is especially vulnerable to eavesdropping due to its broadcast nature, making it essential to encrypt sensitive data?
Wired
Near Field Communication (NFC)
Bluetooth
Wireless
Answer Description
Wireless networks are particularly susceptible to eavesdropping because the data is transmitted over radio waves, which can be intercepted by unauthorized individuals if the network is not secured. Encryption ensures that even if data is intercepted, it cannot be understood without the correct decryption key. Wired networks, while they can also be vulnerable to other forms of interception, do not broadcast data through the air and therefore are generally not susceptible to eavesdropping in the same way as wireless networks. Bluetooth networks also use radio waves but on a more limited range and are typically used for connecting devices over short distances, while NFC is used for very short range communication such as contactless payments.
Ask Bash
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What are some common encryption methods used to secure wireless networks?
How does eavesdropping on a wireless network occur?
What are the risks associated with using unsecured public Wi-Fi networks?
A company has recently deployed a new network-attached storage (NAS) device for shared access among its employees. What should be the FIRST action to secure the device from unauthorized access?
Monitor network traffic going in and out of the device for suspicious activity.
Update the device's firmware to the latest version.
Conduct a regular security audit of the device's configuration and usage.
Change the device's default administration username and password.
Answer Description
Changing the default credentials of a new device is critical to securing it from unauthorized access, as default usernames and passwords are often well-known and easily guessable, making devices with unchanged credentials an easy target for attackers. Updating the device's firmware is important, but it would still be susceptible to attack if the default credentials are left unchanged. While monitoring network traffic and conducting regular security audits are important security practices, they would not prevent an attacker from exploiting default credentials.
Ask Bash
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Why is changing the default username and password critical for security?
What are some best practices for creating strong passwords?
What role does firmware play in the security of a NAS device?
Which type of disaster-recovery site provides immediate failover with minimal downtime by maintaining a fully operational duplicate of the primary environment?
Hot site
Cold site
Warm site
Offsite tape backup only
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully equipped and continuously synchronized duplicate of the primary environment. Because systems and data are already online and up-to-date, operations can shift to the hot site almost instantly, resulting in minimal downtime. Warm sites have some equipment in place but require additional configuration and data restoration, so recovery takes longer. Cold sites provide only basic facilities with no preinstalled systems, leading to the slowest recovery. Offsite tape backups offer data protection but no ready-to-run infrastructure at all.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between a warm site and a hot site in disaster recovery?
What are the other types of disaster recovery sites?
How do businesses determine which type of disaster recovery site to use?
What is the BEST initial approach when conducting a penetration test on an organization's network having no prior knowledge of their security posture, to ensure compliance with security testing protocols and minimize the risk of disruption?
Perform passive reconnaissance to collect information without interacting with the target system to avoid legal repercussions.
Refer to the Rules of Engagement to define the scope and boundaries of the penetration test before starting any probing activities.
Start with network mapping to determine the layout of the target infrastructure and systems.
Initiate an active reconnaissance phase to immediately identify exploitable vulnerabilities in the organization's network.
Answer Description
The best initial approach when performing penetration testing in an environment with no prior knowledge of the organization's security posture is to refer to the Rules of Engagement. These rules define the scope, boundaries, and methods approved for the testing, ensure legal and ethical compliance, and minimize the risk of unintended disruptions to business operations. Simply starting with passive or active reconnaissance without established engagement parameters could lead to legal issues, overstepping authorized boundaries, and potentially causing unintended harm to the target environment. Properly outlined Rules of Engagement ensure that the penetration test is performed ethically, legally, and within the parameters agreed upon by all parties involved.
Ask Bash
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What are the Rules of Engagement in penetration testing?
What is the significance of the initial approach in a penetration test?
What could happen if the Rules of Engagement are not followed during penetration testing?
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between managerial controls and technical controls?
Managerial controls provide the framework for implementing technical controls
Managerial controls are solely responsible for preventing security incidents
Managerial controls are a subset of technical controls
Managerial controls replace the need for technical controls
Answer Description
Managerial controls, such as security policies and risk management, provide the framework and guidelines for implementing technical controls. Technical controls, like firewalls and encryption, are the tools used to enforce the policies and procedures established by managerial controls. Managerial controls do not replace the need for technical controls, but rather work in conjunction with them to create a comprehensive security strategy. While managerial controls can help prevent incidents, they are not solely responsible for incident prevention, as that requires a combination of various control types.
Ask Bash
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What are examples of managerial controls?
How do technical controls enforce managerial controls?
Can you explain the difference between managerial and technical controls further?
A company's competitor has been found to be spreading false information about the company's financial stability, intending to manipulate stock prices and discredit the company in the eyes of investors and customers. This deliberate spread of misleading content is intended to cause harm to the company. What type of activity does this scenario best exemplify?
Hacking
Whaling
Phishing
Disinformation
Answer Description
This scenario is a classic example of disinformation, which is the deliberate creation and distribution of false or misleading information with the intent to deceive and mislead audiences. The objective is often to influence public opinion or obscure the truth. Disinformation is different from misinformation, which is the sharing of false information without the intent to deceive, often due to a lack of knowledge or understanding. Other options like 'Phishing' and 'Hacking' involve direct technical attacks or deception to extract sensitive information, which is not the case here, and 'Whaling' is a specific type of directed phishing targeting high-profile individuals.
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What are some common tactics used in disinformation campaigns?
What are the potential consequences of disinformation for a company?
How does disinformation differ from misinformation?
A healthcare organization based in California is expanding its services to a neighboring state with distinct data privacy laws. To ensure compliance with the new regional regulations, which element of effective security governance should the organization prioritize updating?
Implementing a global encryption standard across all offices
Enhancing physical security measures at the new location
Revising the Incident Response plan based on national guidelines
Updating the Information Security Policies to include state-specific compliance requirements
Answer Description
Updating the Information Security Policies to include state-specific compliance requirements ensures that the organization adheres to local data privacy laws. This adjustment aligns the company's policies with the legal obligations of the new region, mitigating the risk of non-compliance.
Ask Bash
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What are Information Security Policies?
Why is it important to comply with state-specific data privacy laws?
What are some common challenges organizations face when updating their security policies?
Alice, a security administrator, needs to verify that the servers in her organization are in a known and trusted state before they process sensitive data. The process involves generating a set of measurements that reflect the current state of the servers and comparing them against a set of known good values provided by the vendor. Which of the following best describes the process Alice should implement to meet this requirement?
Setting BIOS passwords to prevent unauthorized changes to hardware settings
Configuring the servers to enable remote wiping in case they fail a security check
Hashing system files at startup and sending the hashes to a central server for comparison
Implementing a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to perform remote attestation of the servers during boot-up
Answer Description
Attestation involves creating a secure baseline of system components which are then compared against current system measurements to verify integrity. The verification step compares the current state against a set of known good values (trusted baseline) that could include measurements from binary files, configuration settings, or patches. Remote attestation extends this concept by allowing a system to report its state to a remote verifier. Hashing system files at startup and sending them to a central server compares current file states against known good hashes, but it is not specifically considered remote attestation which implies a challenge-response mechanism between a local and remote entity. Remote wiping a device and BIOS password protection are security controls to prevent unauthorized access and do not attest to the current state of the system's hardware or software.
Ask Bash
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What is a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
What does remote attestation mean in cybersecurity?
How do hashing and attestation differ in security verification?
An organization's server room entry is secured solely by numerical access codes, which has recently led to heightened concerns about the method's vulnerability to systematic guessing attempts. To increase the difficulty for perpetrators attempting to gain unauthorized entry, which enhancement should be taken?
Setting up an audible alert after multiple failed entry attempts.
Intermittent updates to numerical access codes.
Installing a biometric authentication system.
Enhancing video surveillance around the entry area.
Answer Description
Employing a biometric authentication system increases security by requiring personal physical attributes, making it significantly more resistant to systematic guessing and unauthorized entry compared to numerical access codes. Updating numerical access codes intermittently can temporarily prevent unauthorized access but does not inherently improve resistance against a focused attack. An audible alert after a set number of failed attempts might deter but not prevent an intruder who can still continue to attempt access. Video surveillance, although useful for monitoring and recording, does not in itself prevent unauthorized access.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are biometric authentication systems?
What are the advantages of biometric systems over numerical codes?
How does an organization implement a biometric authentication system?
Your organization is handling sensitive government contracts and must ensure that information related to these projects is guarded against unauthorized physical access. In accordance with data classification policies, which of the following is the BEST way to handle such data?
Store the data in a physically secure location and enforce strict access controls
Institute policies for secure disposal of printouts and storage media containing the data
Encrypt all data and frequently change encryption keys
Enable detailed logging of all access to the data for audit purposes
Answer Description
Storing information with a 'Restricted' classification in a secure, access-controlled environment ensures that only authorized personnel with the necessary clearance or permissions have access to that data. Keep in mind the question is regarding physical access to the data. While encryption, logging, and secure disposal are important for the overall security posture, they do not inherently restrict access to the data to the appropriate individuals.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are access controls and why are they important?
What does it mean to store data in a physically secure location?
What are data classification policies and how do they impact data handling?
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