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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

What type of security exercise involves a discussion-based activity where team members analyze and resolve hypothetical scenarios to enhance cybersecurity preparedness?

  • Tabletop exercise

  • Simulation

  • Fire drill

  • Automated report training

Question 2 of 15

Your employer allows BYOD because the companies software landscape is entirely based on SaaS applications on the internet. Recently an employee's various accounts were accessed by a hacker. The user tells you they had different passwords for all of the applications. No one else has reported similar issues. After helping the user conduct a malware scan on their personal device you find that they have malware that records input given to the PC by the user. What option best describes the type of malware found?

  • Worm

  • Virus

  • RAT

  • Keylogger

Question 3 of 15

An organization wants to ensure its systems are protected against known security vulnerabilities promptly while maintaining operational stability. Which of the following approaches would BEST achieve this objective?

  • Restrict user permissions to prevent unauthorized software changes

  • Discontinue the use of software that requires frequent updates

  • Schedule annual security assessments to identify vulnerabilities

  • Implement an automated testing and deployment process for software fixes

Question 4 of 15

During the offboarding of an employee, which action MOST effectively reduces the risk of unauthorized access to the organization's information systems?

  • Immediately disable the employee's system accounts and collect all badges and keys.

  • Wait until the next scheduled quarterly access review to remove the employee's accounts.

  • Permit the former employee to keep their physical badge for occasional on-site visits.

  • Leave network credentials active for 30 days to facilitate knowledge transfer.

Question 5 of 15

When evaluating high availability systems in security architecture, what does the consideration of 'Cost' primarily refer to?

  • The complexity of technologies involved in setting up high availability systems.

  • The individual salaries of the IT staff managing the high availability infrastructure.

  • The financial investment and ongoing expenses to maintain constant operational uptime.

  • The computational resources required to achieve maximum scalability.

Question 6 of 15

Which is the most compelling reason to use an agentless monitoring approach in a mixed environment that includes both newer and older systems?

  • Agentless solutions are naturally more secure due to the absence of additional software on the monitored endpoints.

  • Agentless solutions ensure adaptability and integration with a wide array of system types, including out-of-date systems.

  • Agentless solutions limit the amount of network traffic by transmitting data to the monitoring center less frequently.

  • Agentless solutions simplify the management process by obviating the need for regular updates that agent-based solutions require.

Question 7 of 15

Within an organization's information security governance framework, what is the primary responsibility of a security or risk committee?

  • To set information security strategy, endorse policies, and provide ongoing oversight of the program

  • To draft detailed runbooks and standard operating procedures for configuring security devices

  • To perform vulnerability assessments, penetration tests, and corrective remediation

  • To staff the security operations center and handle real-time alert triage

Question 8 of 15

An organization mandates that all employees use smart cards for secure access to the building. However, a group of contractors does not have smart cards due to administrative delays. What is the BEST action the organization can take to ensure these contractors can access the building securely?

  • Exempt the contractors from access controls until they receive smart cards

  • Provide a shared access key for the contractors to use

  • Allow contractors to follow employees through secure entrances

  • Provide temporary access badges to the contractors

Question 9 of 15

Your organization is a U.S.-based e-commerce retailer that sells products to customers in the European Union and California and allows employees to work remotely from Brazil. The security manager must design a privacy compliance program that minimizes legal exposure while keeping operations as simple as possible. Which of the following strategies BEST accomplishes this goal?

  • Comply only with U.S. federal privacy laws because the company is incorporated in the United States.

  • Implement a single privacy program that meets the most stringent requirements across GDPR, CCPA/CPRA, and LGPD, and apply it to all data processing worldwide.

  • Maintain separate privacy policies and technical controls for each jurisdiction but enforce them only in the local office located there.

  • Rely exclusively on user consent pop-ups to satisfy all international privacy obligations.

Question 10 of 15

Which system is responsible for examining network traffic to identify undesirable activity and can actively intervene to prevent or block such activities?

  • A system that optimizes web traffic by caching frequently accessed resources for better performance.

  • A system that actively engages to interrupt or block potential security threats detected in network traffic.

  • A system that reinforces network architecture by enhancing data packet routing efficiency.

  • A system dedicated to monitoring for compliance with data governance and regulatory standards.

Question 11 of 15

When using a cloud service provider, which matrix is typically used to delineate the security responsibilities held by the customer versus the service provider?

  • Cloud Control Matrix

  • Service Level Agreement Matrix

  • Cloud Security Alliance Matrix

  • Shared Responsibility Model

Question 12 of 15

A banking application verifies a user's account balance before processing a withdrawal. However, due to a delay between the balance check and the withdrawal transaction, an attacker manages to initiate multiple withdrawals before the balance is updated, resulting in an overdraft. What type of vulnerability does this scenario illustrate?

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerability in the input fields.

  • Brute force attack targeting user authentication mechanisms.

  • SQL injection flaw due to improper query handling.

  • Race condition allowing exploitation of timing gaps between operations.

Question 13 of 15

Which type of policy specifies the proper use of IT resources, including computers, networks, and data within an organization?

  • Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) Policy

  • Business Continuity Plan

  • Disaster Recovery Plan

  • Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

Question 14 of 15

A security analyst discovers a minor, non-critical vulnerability in a production web application's login form. The development team has already created a patch to fix the issue. According to security best practices, what is the MOST appropriate next step for deploying this patch?

  • Activate the incident response plan because a security vulnerability was discovered.

  • Deploy the patch directly to the production server to resolve the vulnerability immediately.

  • Initiate a new Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) to manage the patch development and deployment.

  • Submit the patch for review, testing, and approval through the formal change management process.

Question 15 of 15

Which of the following best describes the process hollowing technique used by attackers to execute malicious code while evading process-based defenses?

  • Encrypt malware in memory and decrypt only small chunks immediately before execution to avoid static detection.

  • Replace the import address table (IAT) of a process so that API calls are redirected to attacker-controlled functions.

  • Launch a legitimate process in a suspended state, hollow out its memory, inject a malicious payload, and resume the process so the payload runs under the trusted process name.

  • Force an existing process to load a malicious DLL by calling LoadLibrary through a remote thread.