CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which of the following best describes the concept of availability in the context of high availability systems?
The capability of a system to facilitate the immediate processing of data inputs and outputs
The assurance that systems and services are reliable and can operate without excessive downtime
A security measure that involves ensuring a computer or network is physically isolated from other networks
The ability of a system to quickly restore operations and functionality following an outage
Answer Description
Availability refers to the concept that systems, functions, or data should be accessible when required by the user. High availability systems are designed to be operational and available for use a very high percentage of the time, often through redundant or fault-tolerant components. An 'Air-gapped network' refers to a security measure to physically isolate a computer or network from other networks, including the internet, which doesn't directly pertain to its ability to be available. 'Ease of recovery' is associated with the ability to restore system capabilities or access to data after a disruption, not the continuous availability. 'Real-time processing' refers to the capability of systems to process data as it comes in without delay, which is not exclusively about the system’s ability to be continuously operational and available.
Ask Bash
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What are high availability systems?
What does fault-tolerant mean?
How does redundancy improve availability?
You are taking a walk around the neighborhood. You see a sign in one of your neighbor’s unfenced yards that reads “No trespassing!” in large red letters. The sign is what type of control?
Preventive
Corrective
Detective
Deterrent
Compensating
Answer Description
A deterrent control is a control that simply deters from taking an action. The control in no way prevents the action from being taken but is only there to persuade not to. The other choices are other types of controls that serve other purposes.
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What are the different types of security controls?
Can you provide examples of deterrent controls?
How do deterrent controls fit into an overall security strategy?
An IT staff member is tasked with the day-to-day management of information assets, including implementing backup and recovery procedures and maintaining security controls, but does not have authority to make policy decisions regarding the data. What role does this staff member hold in the organization?
Data Processor
Data Controller
Data Owner
Data Custodian
Answer Description
The IT staff member in this scenario is fulfilling the role of a Data Custodian. Data Custodians are responsible for the technical management and operations of data assets, ensuring that data is properly backed up, secured, and maintained. They implement the policies and controls specified by Data Owners but do not set or decide on those policies themselves.
A Data Owner is typically a senior individual who has authority over and accountability for a specific set of data, making decisions about data classification, access permissions, and policy decisions.
A Data Controller is an entity or individual that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data, often in the context of privacy laws, which is not directly relevant to the described duties.
A Data Processor is an entity that processes data on behalf of a Data Controller, but again, this role is more about processing activities rather than managing and maintaining data assets.
Ask Bash
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What are the specific responsibilities of a Data Custodian?
How does the role of a Data Owner differ from that of a Data Custodian?
What are the implications of not having a defined Data Custodian role in an organization?
A regional healthcare organization regularly faces threats from severe weather events and has tasked the IT department with enhancing their business continuity plan. Leadership's primary goal is to ensure continuous operation of essential systems with no perceptible downtime in the event of a weather disaster. What update to the business continuity plan would BEST reflect leadership's priority for maintaining uninterrupted essential services?
Assemble a control center dedicated to managing communication and coordination during emergency responses
Build and maintain a facility that is prepared and available on-demand for immediate operational takeover of essential systems
Enhance network infrastructure to manage a higher volume of data traffic during emergency situations
Outline strict targets for the time to restore essential services and schedules for critical data backups
Answer Description
Establishing a facility that is fully prepared and available on-demand, equipped with the necessary resources and operational capability to assume control immediately, is essential for ensuring that there is no perceptible downtime for essential services during a disaster. This aligns with the leadership's priority for maintaining uninterrupted operations. While the other options can contribute to a robust business continuity strategy, they do not directly provide the seamless operational capabilities desired. Aggressive metrics for service recovery time and critical data restoration planning do not secure immediate operational capability and a control center mainly improves coordination, not service continuity.
Ask Bash
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What does 'business continuity plan' mean?
What is meant by 'on-demand operational takeover'?
Why is having a facility for operational takeover more effective than just having a control center?
Your company has a policy that requires all stored user passwords to be protected. Which method would be MOST appropriate to use when storing these passwords to maintain security while allowing user authentication to continue to work effectively?
Hashing passwords
Encrypting passwords with a symmetric key
Encoding passwords with Base64
Storing passwords in plaintext
Answer Description
Hashing is the most appropriate method for storing passwords securely. It converts the password into a fixed-size string of characters that is difficult to reverse-engineer. In the event of a data breach, hashed passwords are not readily usable by attackers, unlike if they were stored in plaintext. Hashing is a one-way function, which is why it is suitable for password storage, as the original password cannot be easily retrieved from the hash during the authentication process or if the hash is compromised.
Ask Bash
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What is hashing and how does it work?
What are the benefits of using hashing for password storage?
What is the difference between hashing and encryption?
What type of security device passively monitors network traffic and alerts administrators or other systems when it detects suspicious activities or known threats?
Firewall
Load balancer
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed for the passive monitoring of network traffic and alerting when suspicious activities or known threats are detected. Unlike an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS), an IDS does not actively block potential threats; it instead focuses on the detection aspect and relies on others to respond to the threats it identifies. A Firewall controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on an applied rule set and is not designed solely for the detection of threats. A Load balancer distributes network or application traffic across a number of servers to optimize resource use, maximize throughput, reduce response time, and avoid overload on any one server.
Ask Bash
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What are the main differences between an IDS and an IPS?
How does an IDS identify suspicious activities?
Can an IDS integrate with other security measures?
A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing a threat intelligence report detailing an attack on a national power grid. The attack did not involve ransomware or data exfiltration for financial purposes but instead caused widespread service outages. Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely responsible for this type of attack?
Organized crime
Hacktivist
Nation-state
Insider threat
Answer Description
Nation-state actors are the most likely perpetrators of attacks on critical national infrastructure, such as a power grid, where the primary motive is disruption rather than direct financial gain. Their goals are often political, military, or strategic. Organized crime is primarily motivated by financial profit and is less likely to conduct an attack without a clear monetization strategy. While a hacktivist might also have political motivations to disrupt services, they typically lack the high level of resources and sophistication required to successfully attack national critical infrastructure. An insider threat could potentially cause significant disruption, but an attack on a national scale is more characteristic of a well-funded, external actor like a nation-state.
Ask Bash
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What are nation-state actors in the context of cyberwarfare?
What are some examples of cyberwarfare tactics used by nation-state actors?
How does cyberwarfare impact critical infrastructure?
Your organization is rolling out a new line of laptops to employees who handle sensitive data. These devices will be storing encryption keys, digital certificates, and passwords. The IT department is required to ensure that the keys used for disk encryption are stored in a way that is resistant to tampering and can provide platform integrity verification. What embedded solution on the laptops should be utilized to achieve this level of security?
Apply a Key Management System for all user credentials.
Use the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) on the laptops.
Implement a Secure Enclave within the laptop's central processing unit.
Integrate a separate Hardware Security Module (HSM) for each laptop.
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Use the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) on the laptops.' A TPM is a specialized chip on an endpoint device that stores RSA encryption keys specific to the host system for hardware authentication. The keys stored in the TPM are used for different security applications, such as disk encryption, which is critical for securing sensitive data on employee laptops. Moreover, the TPM can provide platform integrity verification, enhancing the overall security posture. While an HSM and Secure Enclave can offer secure storage for keys and perform cryptographic operations, they are typically external devices or isolated areas within a CPU, not embedded solutions specifically tailored for endpoint devices like laptops. A Key Management System is more of an overarching system to manage cryptographic keys throughout their lifecycle and does not provide the hardware-level storage necessary for this scenario.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
How does the TPM provide platform integrity verification?
What is the difference between a TPM and a Hardware Security Module (HSM)?
During a review process against the organization's security objectives and regulatory compliance needs, disparities were discovered, indicating that certain control measures are inadequate. Which course of action best aligns with recommended practice for addressing these deficiencies?
Create an actionable remediation plan outlining steps to bridge the identified security gaps and align with the desired benchmarks.
Initiate a series of in-depth security training sessions to address every gap identified in the review.
Deploy an advanced intrusion detection system immediately across the network to mitigate any vulnerabilities.
Revise security policies immediately to the levels of the industry standards discovered during the review, without a structured plan.
Answer Description
After completing a gap analysis, best practice is to develop a structured remediation plan that prioritizes and assigns actions to close the identified gaps. Implementing individual technologies, rewriting policies, or launching broad training programs before establishing such a plan can waste resources and may not fully resolve the deficiencies discovered.
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What should be included in an actionable remediation plan?
Why is a structured remediation plan important over immediate actions?
How often should organizations review and update their remediation plans?
Which access control model requires continuous verification and context-aware authorization to ensure the security of resources?
Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Zero Trust Model (ZTM)
Answer Description
The Zero Trust Model (ZTM) never assumes trust and always requires verification for anyone trying to access resources, making decisions based on multiple contextual factors such as user location, device security posture, and data sensitivity. This dynamic approach is in contrast to more static models such as Discretionary Access Control (DAC) or Role-Based Access Control (RBAC), which grant access based on predefined policies that do not change in real-time. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) enforces access policies based on classification levels but does not adapt to context after initial access is granted.
Ask Bash
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What are the key principles of the Zero Trust Model?
How does the Zero Trust Model differ from traditional access control models?
What role does context play in the Zero Trust Model?
What is the primary function of a hashing algorithm within the realm of cybersecurity?
To serve as the public key within a public-private key pair used for asymmetric encryption
To encrypt data so that it can be securely transmitted over public networks
To generate a unique 'fingerprint' of data that can be used to verify its integrity
To compress data to save storage space before transmitting over a network
Answer Description
The primary function of a hashing algorithm is to take an input (or 'message') and return a fixed-size string of bytes. The output, known as the hash, is typically a digest that represents the original data in a unique way. If the input changes by even a small amount, the hash will change significantly, known as the avalanche effect. The key aspect of a hash function is that it is a one-way function – data can be turned into a hash, but the hash cannot be turned back into the original data, ensuring data integrity. Hashes are broadly used to verify data integrity because they can reveal if data has been altered. This is crucial in many applications, such as verifying the integrity of downloaded files or the storage of passwords.
Ask Bash
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What is the avalanche effect in hashing algorithms?
How are hashing algorithms used to verify data integrity?
In what scenarios are hashing algorithms particularly important?
Which solution is employed to collect and analyze security-related data from various hardware and software sources in order to identify unusual patterns and alert on potential security incidents?
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
Unified Threat Management (UTM)
Automated Vulnerability Scanning tool
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Answer Description
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) is the solution that aggregates data from different sources across an organization's network to provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. It helps in identifying suspicious activities that could indicate a security incident and assists with incident response, making it a critical security tool within an organization.
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What are the main components of a SIEM system?
How does a SIEM identify unusual patterns?
What is the difference between SIEM and other security tools like UTM or IPS?
Which security measure enforces policies to control data storage and access within designated boundaries to meet regional regulatory requirements?
File transfer limitations
Network address translation
Site-to-site VPN use
Geographic restrictions
Answer Description
Geographic restrictions are security measures that control where digital information is stored and accessed, ensuring that an organization complies with laws that dictate where data must reside, such as laws that aim to protect personal information by keeping it within certain borders.
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What are some examples of regional regulatory requirements?
How do geographic restrictions impact data storage solutions?
What are the potential consequences of not adhering to geographic restrictions?
When an employee suspects that an email message is a sophisticated spear phishing attempt, what is the most prudent immediate action for the security team?
Send out a company-wide alert about the potential spear phishing attempt
Immediately shut down network services to prevent a potential breach
Quarantine the message to initiate a review process
Reply to the sender to confirm the validity of the email
Answer Description
The most prudent immediate action is to quarantine the message to prevent any potential harm while maintaining its integrity for further investigation. Initiating a review process entails examining headers, sender information, and URLs using automated or manual procedures without activating any potentially malicious elements. Initiating a company-wide alert may cause unnecessary panic before the threat is confirmed, replying to the sender could lead to further compromise, and shutting down network services is premature and disruptive without evidence of a widespread issue.
Ask Bash
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What is spear phishing, and how does it differ from regular phishing?
What steps are involved in the review process after quarantining a suspected spear phishing email?
Why is it important not to reply to a suspected spear phishing email?
What type of security control is implemented when the primary control cannot be used due to technical, financial, or operational constraints?
Detective controls
Preventive controls
Compensating controls
Deterrent controls
Answer Description
Compensating controls are used as a substitute for primary controls when the primary control is not feasible or practical to implement. They provide an alternative way to mitigate risks and achieve the same level of security. For example, if a company cannot afford to implement a firewall (a preventive control), they may use a virtual private network (VPN) as a compensating control to protect their network traffic.
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What are some examples of compensating controls?
How do compensating controls differ from preventive controls?
In what situations might an organization need to implement compensating controls?
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