CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
You are the system administrator for your company. You notice that a large number of accounts have been locked out due to incorrect password entries. This is most likely an indicator of which type of malicious attack?
Brute force
Trojan
Keylogger
Ransomware
Answer Description
A brute force attack involves trying random passwords on user accounts in an attempt to gain access. If accounts are set up to auto lock after a certain number of failed login attempts this can be a sign of an attacker's attempt to brute force accounts.
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What is a brute force attack?
How can account lockout policies prevent brute force attacks?
What tools do attackers use for brute force attacks?
In an organization's risk management framework, when might an exemption be most appropriately granted?
When compliance with a security policy or control is either not feasible or not cost-effective relative to the reduction in risk it would bring
Whenever a key stakeholder dislikes the constraints imposed by a certain policy or standard
As a habitual practice for lower-priority systems to minimize the effort spent on security
When there is insufficient budget to implement any security measures and all risks need to be accepted
Answer Description
An exemption is appropriately granted when adherence to a specific security policy or control would not be feasible, such as when it would interfere with operational requirements or when the associated cost far outweighs the benefit. It is not a means to avoid implementing security measures altogether but a considered decision that requires approval by the appropriate level of management. The approval process must include an understanding of the potential risks and agreement that such risks are acceptable. This distinguishes exemptions from other risk strategies, like mitigation where risks are reduced, or transference where risks are shared.
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What is the difference between an exemption and risk acceptance in risk management?
What operational scenarios might make granting an exemption appropriate?
What approval process is typically required for exemptions in risk management?
Which of the following best describes the role of sensors within an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
Optimizing network traffic flow to ensure high availability and performance
Analyzing network traffic to detect patterns that might indicate a security threat
Blocking traffic that originates from untrusted sources to prevent network intrusions
Logging all inbound and outbound traffic without performing analysis for potential threats
Answer Description
Within an Intrusion Detection System (IDS), sensors are responsible for the analysis of network traffic and detection of suspicious patterns that may indicate a security breach or malicious activity. They do not execute preventive measures such as blocking traffic, nor do they merely log traffic without analysis or serve to optimize traffic throughput.
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What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
How does a sensor in an IDS detect threats?
What is the difference between IDS and IPS?
What aspect of data retention policies is MOST crucial for ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory frameworks?
The encryption strength used to protect data during the retention period
The length of time that data must be stored before it can be destroyed or archived
The storage costs associated with different types of data
The categorization of data as sensitive, confidential, or public
Answer Description
Data retention timeframes are pivotal to compliance since they dictate the specific duration for which data must be stored according to various legal and regulatory frameworks. Organizations are often required to retain certain records for a defined period to comply with laws and industry regulations. Retaining data for either too short or too long a period can lead to non-compliance and associated penalties. Having too broad or too narrow scopes in retention policies can be non-compliant or inefficient, respectively, but the actual retention period is the key factor that relates directly to legal and regulatory requirements.
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Why is the length of data retention timeframes so critical for compliance?
How do organizations determine the appropriate data retention periods for compliance?
What are the risks of retaining data for longer than necessary under compliance guidelines?
An organization has noticed that employees are accessing sensitive files unrelated to their responsibilities. The company wants to ensure that users can access only the data required for their tasks. Which of the following methods would BEST address this issue?
Implementing role-based access control
Encrypting all sensitive files
Applying network segmentation
Enforcing multi-factor authentication
Answer Description
Implementing role-based access control (RBAC) allows the organization to assign permissions to users based on their job responsibilities. This ensures that employees have access only to the resources necessary for their tasks, reducing unauthorized access to sensitive files. Encrypting files protects data confidentiality but doesn't prevent authorized users from accessing data beyond their responsibilities. Enforcing multi-factor authentication strengthens login security but doesn't control access permissions. Applying network segmentation divides the network but doesn't directly manage user access to specific files.
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What is Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)?
How does RBAC differ from other access control methods like DAC or MAC?
How is RBAC implemented in real-world systems?
A security analyst implements intrusion detection sensors and automated log analysis tools. The primary purpose of these tools is to identify anomalies or disruptions in network traffic and system activities and then trigger an alert. Which type of security control does this implementation represent?
Preventive
Deterrent
Detective
Corrective
Answer Description
This scenario describes a detective control. Detective controls are designed to find and alert on security incidents after they have already occurred or as they are happening. Intrusion detection systems (IDS) and log analysis tools fit this description perfectly as they monitor for and report on suspicious activity, rather than stopping it outright.
- Preventive controls aim to stop an incident before it happens (e.g., a firewall blocking a malicious IP address).
- Corrective controls are used to limit the damage and restore systems after an incident has been detected (e.g., restoring from a backup after a ransomware attack).
- Deterrent controls are meant to discourage potential attackers (e.g., warning banners).
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What is the main difference between detective and preventive controls?
How does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) work?
What are examples of automated log analysis tools, and why are they important?
A multinational company has recently launched a cloud service platform and is considering introducing a bug bounty program to enhance its security measures. What is the most important reason for the company to integrate a bug bounty program into its vulnerability management process?
To ensure the company's compliance with international cybersecurity regulations and standards.
To uncover otherwise undetected vulnerabilities by leveraging the collective efforts of the global security research community.
To focus specifically on mitigating zero-day exploits by having them reported through the program.
To promote the company's dedication to transparency and foster trust among its user base.
Answer Description
Bug bounty programs invite external security researchers to test systems for rewards. This crowdsourced approach greatly expands the range of skills, tools, and perspectives applied to security testing, which helps uncover vulnerabilities that may slip past automated scanners, internal assessments, and periodic penetration tests. Increased transparency or compliance benefits can flow from a program, and zero-day exploits might be caught as a result, but those are secondary effects-not the fundamental purpose of adding the program to vulnerability identification.
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How does a bug bounty program differ from traditional penetration testing?
What is a zero-day exploit, and can bug bounty programs effectively address them?
What are the key considerations when launching a bug bounty program?
When configuring a network appliance to view traffic without altering it, which device attribute should it have?
Active
Passive
Tap/Monitor in active mode
Inline
Answer Description
A passive device attribute allows the network appliance to observe traffic without interacting or making changes to it, enabling monitoring and analysis without affecting data flow. This contrasts with an active device, which is designed to interact with or change the traffic passing through it, performing actions such as blocking or modifying packets.
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What is the difference between a passive and active device in network monitoring?
How does a network tap differ from a passive device?
When should inline devices be used instead of passive devices?
What describes an environment where the cloud provider dynamically manages the allocation of machine resources?
Users manually scale and manage virtual machine instances to meet the application's workload
A system where applications, dependencies, and systems are packaged together in a computing environment
The cloud provider's automatic management of resource allocation for executing code without requiring the user to manage infrastructure
Applications are constructed as a suite of small, independent services that perform specific business functions
Answer Description
A serverless architecture refers to a cloud computing model in which the cloud provider automatically provisions, scales, and manages the infrastructure required to run code. Developers can write and deploy code without worrying about the underlying infrastructure. Traditional cloud services typically require users to manage and scale virtual machine instances, whereas microservices are a design approach to build a single application as a suite of small services, and containers provide a standard way to package code and its dependencies.
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What are the key benefits of serverless architecture?
How does serverless compare to traditional virtual machines in resource management?
What is the difference between serverless and container-based architectures?
Under what type of control would you classify antivirus software?
Physical
Administrative
Operational
Technical
Answer Description
Antivirus is a technical control. It is software installed on the computer whose job it is to protect the system against viruses.
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Why is antivirus software classified as a technical control?
What are the other categories of controls and how do they differ from technical controls?
How does antivirus software detect and prevent viruses?
Which of the following techniques is specifically designed to obscure sensitive data by replacing it with realistic but fictitious values so that the data set remains usable for developers and testers while protecting the original information from unauthorized disclosure?
Differential backup
Data masking
Multifactor authentication
Lossless compression
Answer Description
Data masking intentionally substitutes realistic but fake values (for example, shuffling or substituting names, account numbers, or dates) for the original sensitive data. Because the format and fields remain consistent, developers, testers, and analysts can still use the data set, but the real values cannot be reconstructed. Techniques such as lossless compression, differential backup, and multifactor authentication do not serve this purpose: compression reduces file size, backup provides data recovery, and multifactor authentication verifies user identity rather than altering data.
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What is the difference between data masking and data encryption?
What are some common techniques used in data masking?
In what scenarios is data masking typically used?
A network administrator is deploying an inline intrusion prevention system (IPS). Security policy dictates that if the IPS software crashes or the appliance loses power, no traffic may bypass inspection. Which of the following failure modes should the administrator configure on the IPS to satisfy this requirement?
Failover
Fail-open
Fail-closed
Fail-safe
Answer Description
Fail-closed (sometimes called fail-secure) means that when a security control becomes unavailable, it blocks or denies traffic instead of allowing it to pass unchecked. Configuring the IPS to fail-closed therefore prevents uninspected packets from traversing the network during an outage. Fail-open does the opposite-it allows all traffic for the sake of availability. Fail-safe focuses on protecting other components, often by bypassing the device rather than dropping traffic, and failover relies on redundant equipment rather than a traffic-blocking posture.
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What is the difference between fail-closed and fail-open?
How does an intrusion prevention system (IPS) work?
What is the role of 'failover' in security systems?
Which type of disaster-recovery site provides immediate failover with minimal downtime by maintaining a fully operational duplicate of the primary environment?
Cold site
Warm site
Hot site
Offsite tape backup only
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully equipped and continuously synchronized duplicate of the primary environment. Because systems and data are already online and up-to-date, operations can shift to the hot site almost instantly, resulting in minimal downtime. Warm sites have some equipment in place but require additional configuration and data restoration, so recovery takes longer. Cold sites provide only basic facilities with no preinstalled systems, leading to the slowest recovery. Offsite tape backups offer data protection but no ready-to-run infrastructure at all.
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What is the difference between a hot site and a warm site in disaster recovery?
How does a hot site stay synchronized with the primary environment?
What are the cost trade-offs of using a hot site versus a cold site?
A government institution is assessing potential threats and identifies an actor with significant financial resources and advanced technical skills aiming to steal sensitive customer data. Which threat actor best fits this profile?
Unskilled attacker
Insider threat
Hacktivist
Nation-state
Answer Description
Nation-state actors typically have substantial financial resources and advanced technical capabilities, enabling them to conduct sophisticated attacks such as data exfiltration. Other threat actors like unskilled attackers or hacktivists generally lack the extensive resources and expertise required for such complex operations.
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What is a nation-state actor in cybersecurity?
How do nation-state actors differ from hacktivists?
How does financial backing impact a cyber threat actor's capabilities?
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a security policy?
To specify encryption standards for data at rest and in transit
To detail specific incident response procedures
To define access control lists for network resources
To provide a high-level framework for an organization's approach to security
Answer Description
A security policy is a high-level document that outlines an organization's approach to protecting its assets, including data, systems, and personnel. It establishes the framework for security controls and procedures, defining roles, responsibilities, and expected behavior. While security policies may include specific guidelines and procedures, their primary purpose is to provide overarching guidance and direction for the organization's security posture. Incident response plans, access control lists, and encryption standards are examples of more specific security controls that are typically guided by the security policy but are not the primary purpose of the policy itself.
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What are some key components of a security policy?
How does a security policy differ from security procedures?
Why is it essential for organizations to have a security policy?
Which of the following statements BEST explains why legacy hardware systems remain attractive targets for cybercriminals?
They often lack security patches and modern controls, making them easier to exploit.
Their proprietary hardware makes exploits prohibitively expensive, so attackers avoid them.
They are automatically isolated from networks, preventing remote attacks.
They are less likely to be targeted because outdated technology deters attackers.
Answer Description
Legacy hardware frequently runs unsupported operating systems or firmware that no longer receive security patches. Because known vulnerabilities remain uncorrected and modern security controls (such as endpoint detection, strong authentication, or encryption) are often absent, attackers can exploit these weaknesses with minimal effort. In many organizations these older systems still process critical data, so a successful compromise can yield high value to the attacker. Therefore, the lure for cybercriminals is the combination of easier exploitation and potentially lucrative data or disruption.
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Why don’t legacy systems receive security patches anymore?
What modern security controls are often missing in legacy systems?
Why do organizations continue to use legacy systems despite the risks?
An organization needs to securely establish encryption keys with external partners over the internet without any prior shared secrets. Which cryptographic method BEST facilitates this secure key establishment?
MD5 hashing algorithm
Diffie-Hellman algorithm
Symmetric key distribution
RSA digital signatures
Answer Description
The Diffie-Hellman algorithm is specifically designed for secure key exchange over insecure channels without requiring prior shared secrets. It enables two parties to independently generate a shared secret key, which can then be used for symmetric encryption. Symmetric key distribution assumes that keys are already shared or delivered securely, which doesn't address the need to establish keys without prior arrangement. RSA digital signatures provide authentication and integrity but are not primarily used for key establishment. MD5 is a hashing algorithm used for data integrity verification, not for key exchange or encryption key establishment.
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What is the Diffie-Hellman algorithm and how does it work?
Why isn’t symmetric key distribution the best choice in this scenario?
How does Diffie-Hellman differ from RSA in key exchange?
A security analyst is concerned about the risk of VM escape attacks in the company's virtualized datacenter. Which of the following strategies provides the most comprehensive mitigation against this type of vulnerability?
Exclusively using process isolation to separate the guest VM from the host's kernel.
Deploying host-based intrusion detection systems (HIDS) on all guest virtual machines.
A defense-in-depth approach, including keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched, implementing strict access controls, and network segmentation.
Encrypting all data-at-rest on the virtual machines' storage volumes.
Answer Description
While process isolation is the fundamental mechanism that prevents VM escape, it is not foolproof, as vulnerabilities in the hypervisor can still be exploited. A comprehensive, defense-in-depth strategy is the most effective approach. This includes keeping both the hypervisor and guest operating systems fully patched, using network segmentation to limit an attacker's reach, and applying the principle of least privilege through strict access controls. HIDS on guest VMs and data encryption are valuable security layers, but they do not directly prevent the hypervisor compromise that enables a VM escape.
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What is VM escape?
Why is keeping the hypervisor and guest OS patched critical to prevent VM escape?
How does network segmentation help mitigate VM escape risks?
During the procurement phase for new computing resources, what is the BEST practice to ensure their security while integrating into the organization's existing infrastructure?
Negotiating the lowest cost for products
Checking compatibility with current systems
Conducting a security review of the vendor and their products
Choosing products with the newest features
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Conducting a security review of the vendor and their products', because ensuring the security of computing resources begins with a thorough evaluation of the vendors and their offerings. This evaluation should cover the vendor's security policies, compliance with relevant standards, and the security features of the products they are providing. Reviewing vendor security practices mitigates the risk of introducing vulnerabilities into the network through third-party products or services. 'Checking compatibility with current systems' is also a step in the process, but it does not directly strengthen security. 'Choosing products with the newest features' or 'Negotiating the lowest cost for products' may be important from a functionality or budget perspective, but they do not necessarily reflect the security posture of the products or the vendor.
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Why is conducting a security review during procurement important?
What should be included in a vendor security evaluation?
How does a vendor’s compliance certification impact procurement decisions?
An employee of a financial institution receives a text message prompting them to urgently verify their login credentials due to suspicious account activities by clicking on a link provided in the message. The employee was not expecting any such communication and finds the request unusual. To best describe this situation, which of the following terms is most applicable?
Smishing
Typosquatting
Vishing
Whaling
Answer Description
This scenario is indicative of a phishing attack carried out via SMS, commonly known as 'Smishing'. The attacker sends a deceptive message attempting to trick the recipient into providing sensitive information. Given that the message includes a link for verification and mentions urgent action required due to 'suspicious account activities,' it's designed to create a sense of urgency and lure the employee into compromising their credentials. Smishing attacks exploit the trust people generally have in text messages and the limited verification measures available on mobile platforms compared to email systems.
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What differentiates smishing from phishing?
How can you recognize a smishing attempt?
What steps can you take to avoid falling victim to smishing?
Smashing!
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