CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Which type of social engineering attack specifically targets high-level executives through email in an attempt to steal sensitive information?
Typosquatting
Spear phishing
Whaling
Watering hole attack
Pharming
Vishing
Answer Description
Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-level executives with the purpose of stealing sensitive information from a company. The term 'whaling' is used because it refers to going after the 'big fish' or high-value targets within an organization. Unlike typical phishing attacks, whaling emails are highly customized and often include specific details relevant to the target to make them appear more legitimate.
Ask Bash
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What distinguishes whaling from general phishing attacks?
How do attackers gather information to craft whaling emails?
What are some methods to prevent falling victim to a whaling attack?
Which of the following best describes the primary focus of operational security controls?
Establishing security policies and procedures
Implementing and managing security technologies
Protecting physical assets and premises
Focusing on day-to-day security operations and tasks
Answer Description
Operational controls are focused on the day-to-day operations and tasks related to security management. This includes activities such as incident response, which involves detecting, analyzing, and responding to security incidents; change management, which ensures that changes to systems and processes are properly authorized, tested, and documented; and access controls, which regulate who can access specific resources and under what conditions. While the other options are important aspects of security, they are not the primary focus of operational controls.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between operational controls and strategic controls in security?
What is change management in the context of operational security controls?
How do operational controls contribute to incident response?
During a routine vulnerability assessment of the network, an analyst receives a notification of potential malicious traffic that, upon further investigation, turns out to be legitimate and normal network activity. What does this notification exemplify?
A false negative
An intrusion attempt
A true positive
A false positive
Answer Description
A false positive occurs when a security system incorrectly identifies benign activity as a threat. In this scenario, the system erroneously flagged normal network traffic as potentially malicious, which is a classic example of a false positive. It is crucial for security analysts to recognize and address false positives to avoid unnecessary responses to non-threatening activities.
Ask Bash
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What causes a false positive in cybersecurity tools?
How do false positives differ from false negatives?
How can analysts reduce the occurrence of false positives?
An IT department wants to reduce the time it takes to grant new employees access to necessary systems and applications by automating this process. Which use case of automation and scripting best addresses this need?
Ticket creation
Security groups
Continuous integration and testing
User provisioning
Answer Description
User provisioning automates the creation of user accounts and the assignment of appropriate access rights, effectively streamlining the onboarding process. While ticket creation can help manage access requests, it does not automate the provisioning itself. Continuous integration and testing are related to software development practices, and security groups organize users but do not automate access provisioning.
Ask Bash
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What is user provisioning in automation?
How does user provisioning differ from ticket creation?
What role do security groups play in user provisioning?
Which legal principle establishes the right of individuals to request the removal of their personal information from organizational databases or records, especially in cases where the information is no longer relevant or accurate?
Data Retention
Right to Be Forgotten
Data Sovereignty
Information Custodian
Answer Description
The legal principle known as the 'Right to Be Forgotten' empowers individuals to have their personal data removed from the records of an organization, particularly when it is no longer necessary or pertinent. This principle is an important aspect of privacy law in many jurisdictions and requires organizations to take action upon such requests, subject to certain conditions and exceptions. The term 'Data Retention' refers to the policies that establish how long data should be kept before disposition, which is a separate topic. 'Data Sovereignty' describes the legal implications of data being subject to the laws of the country where it is stored, which does not deal directly with data removal requests by individuals. Lastly, 'Information Custodian' pertains to the roles and responsibilities associated with the protection and care of data, which does not entail an individual's right to request deletion.
Ask Bash
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What laws or regulations support the 'Right to Be Forgotten'?
What are some exceptions to the 'Right to Be Forgotten'?
How do organizations ensure compliance with 'Right to Be Forgotten' requests?
An employee in a financial institution accidentally visited a website by mistyping the URL of a popular financial news portal. Subsequently, the employee reported that their workstation displayed unusual behavior, such as the browser opening on its own and displaying advertisements. The IT security team suspects a security incident through domain impersonation. What is the likely method used by the threat actor to compromise the employee's workstation?
Phishing attempt through a deceptive email
Typosquatting
Domain kiting
Domain slamming
Answer Description
Typosquatting relies on users making mistakes while typing a URL, leading them to land on a malicious site that mimics a legitimate one. Once the user visits the fake website, the threat actor can execute various malicious activities including malware infection. Incorrect spelling variants in URLs are a hallmark of this technique, therefore, visiting a website with a misspelled URL that resulted in these symptoms indicates a typosquatting attack. Misdirecting and phishing attempts, while also deceptive, typically involve more direct interaction, such as fake emails or links, not the accidental misspelling of a URL. Similarly, domain kiting and domain slamming are related to domain registration practices, not user typos.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is typosquatting, and how does it work?
How can organizations detect and prevent typosquatting attacks?
What are the differences between typosquatting, phishing, and domain kiting?
Firewall logs exclusively show outbound traffic and therefore do not provide sufficient data to detect potential inbound intrusion attempts.
True
False
Answer Description
Firewall logs typically contain information on both inbound and outbound traffic. This information is useful for detecting both types of intrusion attempts, as inbound logs could show unsolicited incoming connections that might be indicative of an attack or reconnaissance activity, while outbound logs can help in identifying potentially compromised systems reaching out to malicious hosts or command-and-control servers. The statement is false because firewall logs are not exclusively for outbound traffic and are indeed significant for detecting inbound threats as well.
Ask Bash
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What kind of information do firewall logs typically capture?
Why is it important to monitor both inbound and outbound firewall traffic?
How can analyzing firewall logs help detect potential intrusion attempts?
After a risk assessment it is decided that security controls will be applied to a system to lower the likelihood of an incident occurring from a risk being exploited. Which risk management strategy is being used?
Acceptance
Transference
Mitigation
Avoidance
Answer Description
Risk mitigation is the process of using security controls/countermeasures in reducing risk exposure and minimizing the likelihood of an incident.
Ask Bash
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What are security controls in risk mitigation?
How does mitigation differ from other risk management strategies like transference or avoidance?
Can mitigation fully eliminate risks?
You have been called to the office of the CEO for a confidential meeting. In the meeting the CEO informs you he 'has a virus that won't let him login without paying a fee.' You begin to investigate the issue and find that the CEO downloaded a file from a website a friend shared on a social media site. After downloading the file his computer restarted and now will not allow anyone to login unless they enter credit card information. Which option best describes the attack used in this scenario based on the information available?
The CEO executed a Rootkit which gave backdoor access to a hacker
The CEO downloaded and executed Ransomware
A botnet is attacking the CEO's computer and disabling login attempts
The CEO was the target of a spear phishing social engineering attack
Answer Description
This type of malware is called Ransomware. It holds data or information ransom until a fee is paid after which point it will return the information or data (or so it says...). Based on the information available in the question this is the only conclusion we can make. It is possible as the CEO of the company they were targeted specifically via social media (spear phishing) but there isn't definitive evidence of this yet.
Ask Bash
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How does Ransomware work?
What is the difference between Ransomware and a Rootkit?
How can you prevent Ransomware attacks?
A cloud administrator is deprovisioning a virtual machine (VM) that was used to process sensitive financial data. The underlying physical server hosts multiple VMs from different clients. The administrator needs to ensure that no data from the deprovisioned VM can be accessed by the next VM allocated to the same physical memory space. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be the administrator's PRIMARY concern to mitigate?
Race condition
Resource reuse
VM escape
Buffer overflow
Answer Description
The correct answer is resource reuse. This vulnerability occurs when a resource, such as a physical memory block, is not properly sanitized before being reallocated. In this scenario, remnants of the sensitive financial data could remain in memory (a concept known as data remanence) and become accessible to the next VM that uses that same memory space. VM escape is an attack where a process breaks out of a VM and interacts with the host OS, which is a different threat. Buffer overflow and race conditions are application-level vulnerabilities and are not the primary concern related to sanitizing shared hardware after deprovisioning a VM.
Ask Bash
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What is data remanence?
What techniques can be used to sanitize memory to mitigate resource reuse vulnerabilities?
How does VM escape differ from resource reuse as a vulnerability?
An organization wants to implement a system where users authenticate once and gain access to multiple related systems without re-entering credentials. What authentication method should they deploy?
Biometric Authentication
Single Sign-On
Federated Identity Management
Multifactor Authentication
Answer Description
Single Sign-On (SSO) is the appropriate authentication method because it enables users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple applications without re-entering credentials. This streamlines the login process and enhances user experience while maintaining security. Multifactor Authentication (MFA) increases security by requiring multiple authentication factors but does not allow access to multiple systems without additional logins. Federated Identity Management allows sharing of identity information across different organizations or domains, which may not be applicable here. Biometric Authentication uses unique physical traits for identity verification but doesn't provide access to multiple systems with a single authentication.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between Single Sign-On (SSO) and Federated Identity Management (FIM)?
How does Single Sign-On (SSO) enhance security compared to traditional login systems?
What technologies or protocols are commonly used to implement SSO?
What is the primary purpose of a Gateway when related to enterprise network security?
To exclusively monitor the performance of network devices and services
To encrypt data stored on endpoints within the network
To act as an access or exit point between two networks, often controlling data traffic
To authenticate user identities before granting access to network resources
Answer Description
A Gateway in the context of enterprise network security primarily acts as a point of access or exit between two networks, often controlling data traffic between an internal network and the internet or another external network. It manages the flow of data and can provide security functions like filtering, monitoring, and routing to ensure secure and efficient data transmission.
Ask Bash
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What additional security functions can a Gateway perform?
How does a Gateway differ from a Firewall?
What types of Gateways are commonly used in enterprise networks?
An organization is still using several workstations that run an operating system whose vendor ended support last year. Which of the following security concerns is MOST directly associated with continuing to operate this unsupported system?
The only impact is higher power and cooling costs due to outdated hardware.
The operating system will automatically disable network services when weaknesses are detected.
User productivity will decrease because the OS lacks new usability features.
The system contains unpatched vulnerabilities that attackers can exploit.
Answer Description
When a product reaches end-of-support, the vendor no longer supplies security patches. Any newly discovered vulnerability therefore remains permanently unpatched, leaving the system open to exploitation. This lack of patching-not power consumption, lost features, or self-protective shutdowns-is the primary security risk. Compensating controls such as network isolation can help, but they do not eliminate the root issue.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'end-of-support' mean for an operating system?
What are unpatched vulnerabilities, and why are they dangerous?
How can network isolation help protect unsupported systems?
Which password policy most effectively enhances security by ensuring passwords are difficult to guess or crack?
Enforcing passwords to be at least 12 characters long and include uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters.
Implementing a maximum password age of 90 days to ensure regular password changes.
Allowing users to reuse their previous six passwords to simplify password management.
Encouraging users to create passwords using easily memorable phrases.
Answer Description
Requiring passwords to be long and include a combination of uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters significantly increases their complexity, making them harder to guess or crack. Allowing password reuse or limiting password age does not directly enhance password strength and can lead to weaker security practices.
Ask Bash
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Why does increasing password length and complexity make it harder to crack?
What is the purpose of implementing a maximum password age policy?
Why is allowing password reuse considered a poor security practice?
Which deception technology involves deploying a decoy system or service that imitates a genuine production asset in order to attract, engage, and monitor attackers?
Honeypot
Honeyfile
Honeynet
Honeytoken
Answer Description
A honeypot is an intentionally vulnerable, stand-alone system or service that appears legitimate to threat actors. Any interaction with it is automatically suspicious, allowing defenders to record, analyze, and learn from attacker activity without exposing production assets. A honeynet is a larger collection of multiple honeypots that emulates an entire network. A honeyfile is a single decoy document placed to detect unauthorized access, and a honeytoken is a small piece of fake data (such as bogus credentials) embedded in real systems for the same purpose. These alternatives are also forms of deception, but none of them is a single decoy system.
Ask Bash
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What is the primary purpose of a honeypot?
How does a honeypot differ from a honeynet?
What are the key differences between honeyfiles, honeytokens, and honeypots?
During a regular security scan of the network you find that several user laptops are infected with the same malware. After cross-referencing the laptop users with the reverse proxy logs you find that they all accessed a industry news website the day before. You believe your organization may have been specifically targeted for this malware. What type of attack would best describe this theory?
SYN Flood
Watering hole
SQL injection
Spoofing
Answer Description
In a watering hole attack the attacker infects a website that is known to be commonly used by an organisation or industry. For example a specific industry news site to attack a business in that industry or the entire industry in general. With the knowledge that users frequent the website the attackers are able to target them with malware and if the attack is successful to install malicious software.
Ask Bash
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What is a watering hole attack?
How do attackers typically choose websites for a watering hole attack?
What preventative measures can organizations take to minimize the risks of watering hole attacks?
A security administrator is implementing an encryption system that uses two distinct, but related keys. One key is used for encrypting data, and the other is used for decrypting it. What type of cryptography is being implemented?
Symmetric key cryptography
Asymmetric key cryptography
Hashing
Block cipher
Answer Description
Asymmetric key cryptography, also known as public-key cryptography, is the correct answer because it uses a pair of keys for encryption and decryption-a public key and a private key. Symmetric key cryptography uses a single, shared key for both encryption and decryption. Hashing creates a fixed-size, non-reversible output and is used for integrity, not for encrypting and decrypting data. A block cipher is an algorithm that encrypts data in fixed-size blocks; it describes the method of encryption rather than the key management scheme and is commonly used in symmetric encryption.
Ask Bash
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What is the main difference between asymmetric and symmetric key cryptography?
How does a public key and private key pair work in asymmetric cryptography?
How is asymmetric encryption different from hashing in terms of functionality?
Crucial Technologies employs software to restrict employees from accessing certain websites or receiving certain types of emails. They are employing what type of control?
IDS
DLP
IPS
Content filter
Answer Description
A content filter is a security control used to block or restrict access to certain websites and/or emails based on their content. This is frequently used by companies to protect the network from malicious sites, prevent phishing attempts, and enforce acceptable use policies by blocking access to unauthorized content. While a DLP system also inspects content, its primary focus is preventing data exfiltration, not blocking inbound access. IDS is a detection-only control, and while an IPS can block traffic, it is primarily focused on blocking malicious activity and exploits, whereas a content filter is policy-based for blocking specific categories of content.
Ask Bash
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What is a content filter, and how does it work?
How is a content filter different from DLP systems?
Why is a content filter preferred over IDS or IPS for policy enforcement?
An organization needs a backup facility that can quickly take over full operations with minimal downtime in the event of a disaster. Which type of site should they implement?
Warm site
Hot site
Reciprocal site
Cold site
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully equipped backup facility that is operational and ready to activate immediately after a disaster. It maintains up-to-date copies of data, hardware, and software, allowing an organization to resume normal operations rapidly. Warm sites are partially equipped and require additional time to become fully functional, while cold sites have only the basic infrastructure and need significant time to set up equipment and restore data.
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Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the main difference between a hot site and a warm site?
How does a hot site stay synchronized with the primary site?
Why might an organization choose a cold site instead of a hot site?
As a security consultant evaluating an organization's data management practices, you determine that there is a need to appoint an individual responsible for making decisions about the data, establishing control mechanisms, and determining data classification levels. Which role is best suited for these responsibilities?
Controller
Owner
Processor
Custodian/Steward
Answer Description
The Owner of the data is responsible for making decisions about the data, establishing control mechanisms, and determining data classification levels. They are accountable for ensuring that the data is properly protected and used in compliance with legal and organizational requirements. The Processor is responsible for processing data on behalf of the Controller as per their instructions. The Custodian (also known as the Steward) is responsible for maintaining and protecting the data assets on a day-to-day basis. The Controller determines the purposes for which and the means by which personal data is processed but may not own the data or the process.
Ask Bash
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What is the role of a Data Owner in an organization?
How does the role of a Data Custodian differ from a Data Owner?
What is the role of a Data Processor in data management?
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