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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

An enterprise is evaluating new servers from various vendors for a high-security environment. Which of the following criteria should be prioritized to BEST ensure the hardware provider meets the company's stringent security policies and risk management?

  • Validating the security of the server's firmware at the time of delivery

  • Obtaining comprehensive documentation for all hardware components

  • Ensuring the hardware provider has no direct affiliations with foreign governments

  • Choosing hardware providers that the enterprise has worked with in the past

Question 2 of 20

Your company is planning to deploy a critical server infrastructure that must maintain high availability. As a security architect, you are responsible for recommending a solution to ensure that the infrastructure remains operational in the event of a power outage. Which of the following would provide the best protection?

  • Establish a large array of battery banks to provide additional power.

  • Use surge protectors to prevent damage from power surges.

  • Install an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) for the critical servers.

  • Implement redundant power supplies in each critical server.

Question 3 of 20

A company's primary data center is located in a region prone to earthquakes. A security administrator is tasked with implementing a backup strategy to ensure data can be recovered even if the data center is completely destroyed. Which of the following backup strategies would be the MOST effective in mitigating this specific risk?

  • Implement RAID-6 arrays for all critical servers onsite.

  • Store encrypted backups at a geographically separate, offsite location.

  • Back up data to tapes and store them in a fireproof safe located in the same building.

  • Create daily snapshots stored on a separate storage area network (SAN) within the same data center.

Question 4 of 20

What is the fundamental flaw in a security system that utilizes implicit trust zones as part of its network architecture?

  • They use continuous monitoring, which can lead to privacy issues for users within the network.

  • They create an environment where once inside, users and systems are trusted without further verification.

  • They operate without firewalls, which can lead to increased risk from external threats.

  • They always require multi-factor authentication for any access, slowing down network performance.

Question 5 of 20

During a routine update, an IT administrator accidentally overwrites crucial configuration files, causing incorrect data to be displayed to users. Which fundamental security principle is most impacted by this incident?

  • Availability

  • Integrity

  • Authentication

  • Confidentiality

Question 6 of 20

As a security architect, you are evaluating the implementation of network appliances that should be primarily utilized for the identification of malfeasance occurring within the internal company network. In this scenario, which of the following solutions strategically placed within the network would best suit the continuous observation and timely reporting of anomalous activities without actively interfering with data flow?

  • Jump Server

  • IPS

  • IDS

  • Unified Threat Management

Question 7 of 20

In a scenario where a regional healthcare provider is implementing a strategy to segregate its administrative, clinical, and guest networks to both minimize its attack surface and comply with health information privacy regulations, which technology should be utilized to not only separate the segments but also enforce distinct security policies and control inter-segment traffic?

  • Next-generation firewall (NGFW)

  • Quality of Service (QoS) configuration for traffic prioritization

  • Transport Layer Security (TLS) for secure communications

  • Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) for routing control

Question 8 of 20

A security administrator is configuring policies for corporate-owned, personally enabled (COPE) smartphones. The administrator must ensure that any data exchanged between paired devices over Bluetooth cannot be intercepted by nearby attackers. Which of the following configurations BEST meets this requirement?

  • Enable Secure Simple Pairing with the Numeric Comparison method.

  • Require six-character alphanumeric unlock passcodes.

  • Restrict wireless connectivity to WPA3-encrypted Wi-Fi only.

  • Enforce full-device encryption (FDE) on the smartphones.

Question 9 of 20

A security analyst is reviewing the security posture of a manufacturing plant's Industrial Control System (ICS). The system is considered highly critical and is physically isolated from the company's main IT network. Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate security principle to apply when establishing a baseline for this ICS?

  • The primary security control is the air gap, so baseline configurations should focus exclusively on preventing network bridging.

  • The security baseline can be less stringent than corporate IT systems because the air gap effectively mitigates all major threats.

  • A stringent, specialized baseline is required because critical systems must be protected from a wide range of threats, including those that do not originate from the network.

  • The vendor is solely responsible for providing security patches, so a custom baseline is unnecessary.

Question 10 of 20

Who is typically referred to as the individual whose personal data is processed by a controller or processor in a security compliance context?

  • Data Subject

  • Data Processor

  • Data Custodian

  • Data Controller

Question 11 of 20

A security administrator is reviewing the system logs of a recently compromised server. They notice several log entries with failed login attempts followed by a single successful login attempt from an unfamiliar remote IP address. After the successful login, there are commands executed that elevate the privileges of the newly logged-in user. Which of the following actions should the security administrator prioritize to mitigate the immediate threat?

  • Conduct an immediate forensic analysis on the server.

  • Change the passwords for all user accounts.

  • Review and update firewall settings to restrict remote access.

  • Disable the compromised user account.

Question 12 of 20

An international company must keep its clients’ personal information in regions where data is collected. Which approach enforces location-based requirements for data storage?

  • Rely on customized encryption keys stored in a different territory

  • Deploy widely distributed servers that automatically copy data to any node

  • Protect data with advanced credentials and a robust login policy

  • Use a hosting service physically located in each region to store local records

Question 13 of 20

Which type of digital certificate allows an organization to secure all subdomains of a domain with a single certificate?

  • Self-signed certificate

  • Wildcard certificate

  • Root certificate

  • Extended Validation certificate

Question 14 of 20

What technique should be used to restrict dedicated administrative access to only the necessary times when it is needed, thereby reducing the exposure time of elevated privileges?

  • Password vaulting

  • Just-in-time permissions

  • Security group assignments

  • Multifactor authentication

Question 15 of 20

A company wants to automate the provisioning and management of its infrastructure by defining configurations in code-like templates that can be version-controlled and reused. This approach aims to ensure consistent deployments across environments. Which strategy should the company adopt to achieve these objectives?

  • Implementing Configuration Management Policies.

  • Utilizing Continuous Integration tools.

  • Adopting an Infrastructure as Code approach.

  • Deploying Virtualization Technologies.

Question 16 of 20

Which of the following BEST minimizes the attack surface of a server deployed in a public cloud environment?

  • Limiting the number of running services on the server to only those necessary for its function

  • Regularly applying all available security patches to the operating system and applications

  • Implementing strong encryption for data transmitted to and from the server

  • Performing a weekly vulnerability scan to identify potential security weaknesses

Question 17 of 20

An American hospital discovers that attackers accessed one of its databases. Investigators estimate that records belonging to more than 500 patients have been exposed, triggering a legal obligation to notify both the affected individuals and local media outlets. Which type of data was most likely compromised?

  • PHI

  • PII

  • PDI

  • PCI

Question 18 of 20

What term describes a concept in which automation tools are utilized to handle repetitive tasks, allowing the security team to focus on more complex responsibilities and effectively increasing the team's productivity without necessarily increasing the number of team members?

  • Workforce enhancer

  • Team scaler

  • Workforce multiplier

  • Efficiency optimizer

Question 19 of 20

An organization implements a set of policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors regarding information security. What type of security control is this an example of?

  • Preventive control

  • Directive control

  • Corrective control

  • Detective control

Question 20 of 20

When a hypervisor reallocates previously used memory pages or disk blocks to a different virtual machine without securely wiping them first, which specific security risk does this resource-reuse vulnerability create?

  • Denial-of-service caused by excessive CPU scheduling of VMs

  • Bypass of network segmentation through a virtual-switch flaw

  • Privilege escalation from the guest VM to the host hypervisor

  • Data remanence that could expose residual information to another VM