CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An enterprise is evaluating new servers from various vendors for a high-security environment. Which of the following criteria should be prioritized to BEST ensure the hardware provider meets the company's stringent security policies and risk management?
Validating the security of the server's firmware at the time of delivery
Obtaining comprehensive documentation for all hardware components
Ensuring the hardware provider has no direct affiliations with foreign governments
Choosing hardware providers that the enterprise has worked with in the past
Answer Description
Validating the security of the server's firmware at the time of delivery is critical, as firmware vulnerabilities can compromise the entire system. Ensuring that the hardware provider has a secure firmware delivery and update process helps protect against supply chain attacks. While obtaining documentation, checking for government connections, and working with familiar brands provide different levels of assurance, they do not offer the same direct mitigation against hardware-based vulnerabilities and firmware integrity as validating the server's firmware security.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are firmware vulnerabilities, and why are they a serious concern in high-security environments?
What measures can organizations take to validate firmware security during delivery?
What is a supply chain attack, and how does it relate to firmware validation?
Your company is planning to deploy a critical server infrastructure that must maintain high availability. As a security architect, you are responsible for recommending a solution to ensure that the infrastructure remains operational in the event of a power outage. Which of the following would provide the best protection?
Establish a large array of battery banks to provide additional power.
Use surge protectors to prevent damage from power surges.
Install an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) for the critical servers.
Implement redundant power supplies in each critical server.
Answer Description
An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) provides backup power to the infrastructure in the event of a power outage, ensuring the servers remain operational until either the main power is restored or a longer-term solution like a generator can take over. Surge protectors, while they protect against voltage spikes, do not provide power during an outage. Redundant power supplies ensure the servers can continue to operate if one power supply fails, but they require power from an external source and will not protect against an outage. Battery banks can store power but generally do not switch as rapidly as a UPS to provide uninterrupted power.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the main components of a UPS and how do they work?
How does a UPS differ from a generator in terms of backup power?
What limits the effectiveness of a UPS during extended outages?
A company's primary data center is located in a region prone to earthquakes. A security administrator is tasked with implementing a backup strategy to ensure data can be recovered even if the data center is completely destroyed. Which of the following backup strategies would be the MOST effective in mitigating this specific risk?
Implement RAID-6 arrays for all critical servers onsite.
Store encrypted backups at a geographically separate, offsite location.
Back up data to tapes and store them in a fireproof safe located in the same building.
Create daily snapshots stored on a separate storage area network (SAN) within the same data center.
Answer Description
Storing encrypted backups at a geographically separate, offsite location is the most effective strategy. This approach ensures that if a physical disaster like an earthquake destroys the primary data center, a complete copy of the data is safe and available for recovery at a different location. Onsite solutions like RAID or local snapshots would be destroyed along with the data center, and a fireproof safe in the same building would not protect against the building's collapse.
Ask Bash
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What does 'geographically separate, offsite location' mean in the context of data backups?
Why is encryption important when storing backups at an offsite location?
How does RAID-6 differ from an offsite backup strategy in disaster recovery?
What is the fundamental flaw in a security system that utilizes implicit trust zones as part of its network architecture?
They use continuous monitoring, which can lead to privacy issues for users within the network.
They create an environment where once inside, users and systems are trusted without further verification.
They operate without firewalls, which can lead to increased risk from external threats.
They always require multi-factor authentication for any access, slowing down network performance.
Answer Description
Implicit trust zones are areas within a network where once access is granted, there is an assumption that all users and activities within that zone are trustworthy. This is a flaw because it does not adhere to the principle of 'least privilege' and inherently trusts the entities within the zone without continuously verifying their trustworthiness. This can lead to unauthorized access and potential breaches if a malicious actor gains access to the trusted zone and operates without restrictions. The Zero Trust model, on the other hand, never trusts and always verifies, even within the network, and is designed to operate without implicit trust zones.
Ask Bash
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What are implicit trust zones?
How does the Zero Trust model differ from implicit trust zones?
What is lateral movement and why is it a risk in implicit trust zones?
During a routine update, an IT administrator accidentally overwrites crucial configuration files, causing incorrect data to be displayed to users. Which fundamental security principle is most impacted by this incident?
Availability
Integrity
Authentication
Confidentiality
Answer Description
Integrity refers to the accuracy and reliability of data. When the IT administrator overwrote the configuration files, it led to incorrect data being presented, thus compromising data integrity. Confidentiality involves protecting information from unauthorized access, which is not the issue here. Availability ensures that systems and data are accessible when needed, but the systems are still operational. Authentication relates to verifying the identity of users or systems, which is not impacted in this scenario.
Ask Bash
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What does data integrity mean in cybersecurity?
What are some common methods to ensure data integrity?
How does a lack of integrity differ from a breach of confidentiality?
As a security architect, you are evaluating the implementation of network appliances that should be primarily utilized for the identification of malfeasance occurring within the internal company network. In this scenario, which of the following solutions strategically placed within the network would best suit the continuous observation and timely reporting of anomalous activities without actively interfering with data flow?
Jump Server
IPS
IDS
Unified Threat Management
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is adept at continuously monitoring network traffic for abnormal behavior and is specifically designed to alert the security team about potential threats without modifying, discarding, or preventing the flow of traffic, which aligns with the requirement in the given scenario. On the other hand, an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) not only detects but also takes action to prevent the identified threats, which could interfere with data flow. A Jump Server is a hardened and monitored device that acts as a bridging point for administrators to connect to other servers but does not perform real-time threat monitoring. A Unified Threat Management (UTM) device combines several security functions into one, yet its threat detection capabilities are broader and not solely focused on network traffic monitoring.
Ask Bash
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What is the primary difference between an IDS and an IPS?
How does an IDS detect anomalies in network traffic?
Where is the best place to position an IDS within a network?
In a scenario where a regional healthcare provider is implementing a strategy to segregate its administrative, clinical, and guest networks to both minimize its attack surface and comply with health information privacy regulations, which technology should be utilized to not only separate the segments but also enforce distinct security policies and control inter-segment traffic?
Next-generation firewall (NGFW)
Quality of Service (QoS) configuration for traffic prioritization
Transport Layer Security (TLS) for secure communications
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) for routing control
Answer Description
A next-generation firewall (NGFW) provides the advanced functionality needed for logical network segmentation, augmenting classic firewall capabilities with features such as application awareness and intrusion prevention. NGFWs ensure that strict security policies can be enforced and managed between segmented zones, which is perfect for an environment handling sensitive health records. This technology provides the required granularity for compliance with healthcare regulations, making it the optimal choice over other options that either lack the sophistication in policy management or are not primarily designed for inter-segment traffic control within the same network.
Ask Bash
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What is a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW)?
How does NGFW help with compliance in healthcare networks?
How is NGFW different from a traditional firewall?
A security administrator is configuring policies for corporate-owned, personally enabled (COPE) smartphones. The administrator must ensure that any data exchanged between paired devices over Bluetooth cannot be intercepted by nearby attackers. Which of the following configurations BEST meets this requirement?
Enable Secure Simple Pairing with the Numeric Comparison method.
Require six-character alphanumeric unlock passcodes.
Restrict wireless connectivity to WPA3-encrypted Wi-Fi only.
Enforce full-device encryption (FDE) on the smartphones.
Answer Description
Enabling Secure Simple Pairing (SSP) with the Numeric Comparison method establishes an elliptic-curve Diffie-Hellman key during pairing and encrypts the Bluetooth link, providing protection against eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks. Full-device (at-rest) encryption and strong unlock passcodes safeguard data stored on the handset, not data in transit. Limiting connectivity to WPA3 affects Wi-Fi, not Bluetooth.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Secure Simple Pairing (SSP) with Numeric Comparison?
How does elliptic-curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH) enhance Bluetooth security?
Why doesn't full-device encryption (FDE) protect Bluetooth data in transit?
A security analyst is reviewing the security posture of a manufacturing plant's Industrial Control System (ICS). The system is considered highly critical and is physically isolated from the company's main IT network. Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate security principle to apply when establishing a baseline for this ICS?
The primary security control is the air gap, so baseline configurations should focus exclusively on preventing network bridging.
The security baseline can be less stringent than corporate IT systems because the air gap effectively mitigates all major threats.
A stringent, specialized baseline is required because critical systems must be protected from a wide range of threats, including those that do not originate from the network.
The vendor is solely responsible for providing security patches, so a custom baseline is unnecessary.
Answer Description
The correct principle is that ICS environments require stringent security baselines tailored to their unique operational needs, regardless of network isolation. Even physically isolated or 'air-gapped' systems are vulnerable to threats from removable media (like USB drives), insider threats, and supply chain attacks. Therefore, assuming isolation negates the need for strong security is a dangerous misconception. While an ICS baseline may differ from a standard IT baseline in its priorities (e.g., emphasizing availability and safety over confidentiality) and implementation details (e.g., patch management schedules), it must be comprehensive and robust. Relying on the vendor for all security or applying a less stringent baseline are both inadequate security practices.
Ask Bash
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What is an ICS and why is it considered critical?
What does 'air-gapped' mean, and does it guarantee security?
Why is relying solely on the vendor for security patches insufficient?
Who is typically referred to as the individual whose personal data is processed by a controller or processor in a security compliance context?
Data Subject
Data Processor
Data Custodian
Data Controller
Answer Description
The term 'Data Subject' refers to the individual to whom the personal data belongs and who is the subject of that personal data. This person possesses certain rights in terms of privacy laws, such as the right to access, correct, and request the deletion of their personal data. The other terms provided do not accurately describe this individual in the context of data processing.
Ask Bash
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What rights does a data subject typically have under privacy laws?
Who are the main entities involved in data processing besides the data subject?
What is the difference between a Data Controller and a Data Custodian in data management?
A security administrator is reviewing the system logs of a recently compromised server. They notice several log entries with failed login attempts followed by a single successful login attempt from an unfamiliar remote IP address. After the successful login, there are commands executed that elevate the privileges of the newly logged-in user. Which of the following actions should the security administrator prioritize to mitigate the immediate threat?
Conduct an immediate forensic analysis on the server.
Change the passwords for all user accounts.
Review and update firewall settings to restrict remote access.
Disable the compromised user account.
Answer Description
The security administrator should immediately disable the compromised account to prevent the attacker from maintaining access and causing further damage. While changing the passwords of other accounts and reviewing the firewall settings are important measures, they do not directly address the immediate threat of the continued unauthorized access. Performing a forensic analysis is a subsequent step after containing the threat.
Ask Bash
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Why is disabling the compromised user account the priority action?
What is privilege escalation, and why is it significant in this scenario?
How can system logs help in identifying compromises like this one?
An international company must keep its clients’ personal information in regions where data is collected. Which approach enforces location-based requirements for data storage?
Rely on customized encryption keys stored in a different territory
Deploy widely distributed servers that automatically copy data to any node
Protect data with advanced credentials and a robust login policy
Use a hosting service physically located in each region to store local records
Answer Description
Storing data within a country’s own data center or approved hosting service ensures data does not leave that territory, meeting legal compliance. Methods such as strong passcodes do not guarantee data remains in a location. Encryption is valuable for confidentiality but does not constrain the physical location of data. Replicating data globally may violate those region-specific obligations.
Ask Bash
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Why do some countries require data to be stored locally?
What is the role of hosting services in data localization?
How does data replication differ from data localization?
Which type of digital certificate allows an organization to secure all subdomains of a domain with a single certificate?
Self-signed certificate
Wildcard certificate
Root certificate
Extended Validation certificate
Answer Description
A wildcard certificate allows an organization to secure a domain and all of its subdomains with a single certificate. This is achieved by using an asterisk (*) in the domain name portion of the certificate, representing all possible subdomains. Self-signed certificates are generated by the owner and are not trusted by default by browsers and operating systems. Extended Validation (EV) certificates provide higher levels of trust through a rigorous authentication process but do not inherently support multiple subdomains. Root certificates are used to sign other certificates in a certificate hierarchy but are not used to secure specific domains or subdomains.
Ask Bash
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What is a wildcard certificate?
How are wildcard certificates different from Extended Validation (EV) certificates?
How does a root certificate differ from a wildcard certificate?
What technique should be used to restrict dedicated administrative access to only the necessary times when it is needed, thereby reducing the exposure time of elevated privileges?
Password vaulting
Just-in-time permissions
Security group assignments
Multifactor authentication
Answer Description
Just-in-time permissions restrict the timeframe during which administrative or elevated rights are granted to users, minimizing the potential for misuse of those privileges. By limiting access to only when it is required for a specific task and automatically revocating those permissions after a set time, the attack window is reduced. This prevents risks associated with standing privileged accounts, which could be exploited if compromised.
Ask Bash
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What are just-in-time (JIT) permissions?
How are JIT permissions implemented in practice?
What are some benefits of using JIT permissions over traditional administrative accounts?
A company wants to automate the provisioning and management of its infrastructure by defining configurations in code-like templates that can be version-controlled and reused. This approach aims to ensure consistent deployments across environments. Which strategy should the company adopt to achieve these objectives?
Implementing Configuration Management Policies.
Utilizing Continuous Integration tools.
Adopting an Infrastructure as Code approach.
Deploying Virtualization Technologies.
Answer Description
By adopting an Infrastructure as Code approach, the company can define and manage its infrastructure using code-like templates, enabling automation, version control, and consistency across deployments. This practice treats infrastructure configurations similarly to software code, allowing for reuse, sharing, and collaboration, which reduces errors and improves reliability.
Implementing Configuration Management Policies may help in standardizing configurations but does not inherently use code-like templates or enable version control of infrastructure definitions. Utilizing Continuous Integration tools focuses on automating software build and test processes, not infrastructure provisioning. Deploying Virtualization Technologies allows running multiple virtual machines but does not address automating or version-controlling infrastructure configurations.
Ask Bash
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What is Infrastructure as Code (IaC)?
How does version control work with Infrastructure as Code?
What are the benefits of consistent deployments with Infrastructure as Code?
Which of the following BEST minimizes the attack surface of a server deployed in a public cloud environment?
Limiting the number of running services on the server to only those necessary for its function
Regularly applying all available security patches to the operating system and applications
Implementing strong encryption for data transmitted to and from the server
Performing a weekly vulnerability scan to identify potential security weaknesses
Answer Description
Limiting the number of running services to only those that are essential for the server's operation significantly reduces the available entry points for an attacker, thus minimizing the attack surface. Unnecessary services can introduce vulnerabilities or become potential targets. Other options, like applying security patches or conducting a vulnerability scan, are important for maintaining security but do not directly minimize the attack surface. The use of strong encryption is essential for protecting the confidentiality of data in transit, but it does not impact the number of attack vectors.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'minimizing the attack surface' mean in cybersecurity?
Why is limiting running services more effective at minimizing the attack surface than applying security patches?
What are examples of unnecessary services that should be disabled to minimize the attack surface?
An American hospital discovers that attackers accessed one of its databases. Investigators estimate that records belonging to more than 500 patients have been exposed, triggering a legal obligation to notify both the affected individuals and local media outlets. Which type of data was most likely compromised?
PHI
PII
PDI
PCI
Answer Description
Protected health information (PHI) is any individually identifiable health data-such as diagnoses, treatment details, or prescriptions-maintained or transmitted by a covered entity. Under the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule, a breach involving the unsecured PHI of more than 500 residents of a state or jurisdiction requires the covered entity to notify the affected individuals and prominent media outlets within 60 days. Because that 500-person threshold and media-notice requirement apply specifically to PHI, the stolen data was almost certainly PHI, not general PII, payment-card data (PCI), or another category.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between PHI and PII?
What is the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule?
How is PHI commonly secured to prevent breaches?
What term describes a concept in which automation tools are utilized to handle repetitive tasks, allowing the security team to focus on more complex responsibilities and effectively increasing the team's productivity without necessarily increasing the number of team members?
Workforce enhancer
Team scaler
Workforce multiplier
Efficiency optimizer
Answer Description
The term 'workforce multiplier' refers to the use of technology, especially automation and orchestration tools, that enables a security team to be more productive by handling tasks that would otherwise require greater staffing. By automating repetitive and tedious tasks, the organization can maximize the effectiveness of its existing workforce, therefore multiplying its capabilities. The incorrect choices are designed to test the student's ability to distinguish between similar terms and concepts in the context of security operations.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of automation tools that act as workforce multipliers?
How do workforce multipliers benefit organizations with limited staffing?
What security tasks are most commonly automated with workforce multipliers?
An organization implements a set of policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors regarding information security. What type of security control is this an example of?
Preventive control
Directive control
Corrective control
Detective control
Answer Description
Policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors are examples of directive controls. Directive controls are designed to guide or instruct individuals or systems to ensure compliance with security requirements. They establish guidelines and expectations to influence behavior. Detective controls are intended to identify and detect unwanted events or incidents after they occur. Corrective controls focus on minimizing the impact of a security incident after it has occurred. Preventive controls aim to stop unwanted events from happening in the first place.
Ask Bash
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What are directive controls in information security?
How do directive controls differ from preventive controls?
Why are policies considered a type of directive control?
When a hypervisor reallocates previously used memory pages or disk blocks to a different virtual machine without securely wiping them first, which specific security risk does this resource-reuse vulnerability create?
Denial-of-service caused by excessive CPU scheduling of VMs
Bypass of network segmentation through a virtual-switch flaw
Privilege escalation from the guest VM to the host hypervisor
Data remanence that could expose residual information to another VM
Answer Description
Data remanence is the primary risk. If RAM or storage blocks are not sanitized before being reassigned, residual information from the previous VM can persist. A new VM might be able to read that leftover data, exposing sensitive information. While privilege escalation, denial-of-service conditions, and virtual-switch misconfigurations are genuine virtualization issues, none of them directly stem from reusing uncleared resources.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is data remanence and why is it a security concern?
How can hypervisors prevent data remanence vulnerabilities?
What are some real-world risks if data remanence is exploited in a virtualized environment?
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