CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Under a Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) mobile deployment model, employees are permitted to connect any personal device they prefer to the corporate network, without having to select from a company-approved list of devices.
False
True
Answer Description
The statement is false. The Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) model requires employees to select a device from a curated list of company-approved options. This approach allows the organization to ensure that devices meet its security and compatibility standards, giving IT more control than a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) model. The scenario described, where any personal device is allowed, is characteristic of a BYOD policy, not CYOD.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between CYOD and BYOD?
Why does CYOD offer better security than BYOD?
What tools can organizations use to manage CYOD devices?
Which risk management strategy is the only one that will completely eliminate the risk associated with an activity?
Acceptance
Avoidance
Mitigation
Transference
Answer Description
Risk avoidance involves not preforming an activity to avoid the associated risk. Not preforming the activity means the risk from that activity is zero. Each other method still leaves some level of risk.
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What is the difference between risk avoidance and risk mitigation?
Can risk avoidance be applied to all risk scenarios?
What is an example of risk transference, and how does it differ from avoidance?
Which of the following statements BEST describes who is responsible for securing the application layer (for example, patching application code and mitigating application-level vulnerabilities) under the cloud shared-responsibility model?
Responsibility shifts by service model: customers secure the application layer in IaaS (and generally in PaaS), but the provider secures it in SaaS.
The customer is always responsible, regardless of the service model.
In IaaS the provider secures applications, whereas in SaaS the customer does.
The cloud service provider is always responsible, no matter which service model is used.
Answer Description
Under the shared-responsibility model, duties move up the stack as you transition from IaaS to SaaS:
- IaaS: The customer controls and secures the guest OS and anything above it, including the application code.
- PaaS: The provider secures the underlying OS and runtime, but the customer still secures any applications they develop and deploy on the platform.
- SaaS: The provider operates and patches the application itself, while the customer focuses on data protection, identity, and configuration. Therefore, the most accurate statement is that responsibility varies by service model: the customer handles the application layer in IaaS and usually in PaaS, whereas the provider handles it in SaaS.
Ask Bash
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What is the shared-responsibility model in cloud computing?
What does the customer secure in the IaaS service model?
How does responsibility differ between PaaS and SaaS in the shared-responsibility model?
What is the primary benefit of using containerization in a security architecture?
It allows unlimited data storage capacity.
It completely eliminates the need for physical servers.
It integrates all applications into one operating system for better performance.
It isolates applications to enhance security and manageability.
It automates the process of data recovery.
It ensures that applications have direct access to hardware resources.
Answer Description
Containerization provides a lightweight alternative to full virtualization by encapsulating an application in a container with its own operating environment. This isolation ensures that applications do not interfere with each other and can be managed independently, enhancing security by containing potential breaches within the isolated environment of the container.
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How does containerization differ from full virtualization?
What security benefits does containerization provide?
What is a practical example of using containerization in security?
When maintaining the chain of custody for digital evidence, what is the MOST important aspect to ensure its admissibility in legal proceedings?
Encrypting the evidence to preserve confidentiality
Maintaining detailed documentation of evidence handling
Using write-blockers when acquiring evidence from digital storage media
Storing the evidence in a climate-controlled environment
Answer Description
Maintaining detailed documentation of evidence handling is the most important aspect to ensure the admissibility of digital evidence in legal proceedings. This documentation often includes who collected the evidence, when and where it was collected, how it was collected, any changes in the evidence, who has had custody of the evidence, and how it was secured throughout the handling process. Without this detailed documentation, evidence may be considered tampered with or contaminated, leading to its rejection in a court of law.
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What does 'chain of custody' mean in the context of digital evidence?
Why is detailed documentation critical in preserving the chain of custody?
How is digital evidence typically documented in the chain of custody?
A security technician is decommissioning a hard drive that was used to store sensitive financial records. The technician performs a quick format on the drive before sending it to a recycling facility. Which of the following BEST describes the risk of this action?
The quick format procedure sanitizes the drive by overwriting all data with zeros.
The action complies with the 'Clear' standard of NIST 800-88 for media sanitization.
The data remains on the drive and can be retrieved using data recovery tools.
The drive's firmware is wiped, rendering the stored data permanently inaccessible.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the data remains on the drive and can be recovered. A quick format only removes the pointers to the files in the file system's index (like a table of contents), but it does not erase the actual data stored on the disk. Specialized data recovery tools can easily scan the drive and reconstruct the files, creating a significant data breach risk. Proper sanitization methods, such as those outlined in NIST 800-88 (e.g., overwriting, degaussing, or physical destruction), are required to ensure data is truly unrecoverable.
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What happens during a quick format?
What does NIST 800-88 recommend for proper media sanitization?
What are data recovery tools and how do they work?
In a recent audit of a secure facility, it was noted that the employee access system employs badges that are not programmed to confirm the identity of the badge reader before transmitting data. Which specific vulnerability are these badges most at risk of?
Email compromise
Encryption breaking
Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID) cloning
Social engineering tactics
Answer Description
The badges in question are at risk of Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID) cloning. The lack of a mutual authentication process in the badge system permits an attacker to easily capture the badge's signal and create a duplicate without being verified by the reader. This process leads to unauthorized individuals potentially gaining access to secured facilities. Mutual authentication is a security feature where a badge and its reader verify each other before any data is transmitted. Options such as 'Email compromise' and 'Social engineering tactics' are not directly related to the scenario described where radio-frequency signals could be exploited. 'Encryption breaking' is also incorrect as it doesn't directly pertain to the cloning of an RFID signal, which is an issue distinct from cryptographic weaknesses.
Ask Bash
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What is RFID cloning and how does it work?
What is mutual authentication, and why is it important for RFID badges?
How can organizations secure their RFID-based access systems?
Which of the following types of disaster recovery sites is typically partially equipped with network connections and other resources, allowing a company to resume operations within a few days after a disaster, but not immediately?
Cold site
Lukewarm site
Hot site
Warm site
Answer Description
A warm site has more equipment in place than a cold site but does not have active data in place like a hot site. It is a compromise between the two other backup sites.
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What is the key difference between a warm site and a hot site?
Why would a company choose a warm site over a hot site or cold site?
What types of organizations typically use warm sites for disaster recovery?
In the context of security program management, what type of document typically specifies the minimum technical requirements for user password complexity within an organization?
Procedures
Policies
Standards
Guidelines
Answer Description
Standards are documents that define the technical requirements and are designed to be used consistently as rules. Policies provide high-level overall plans that embrace the general goals and directives of an organization, but they do not delve into specifics. Guidelines suggest a course of action for meeting policies and standards but are not mandatory. Procedures are detailed instructions on how to perform a particular task.
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What is the difference between policies and standards in security program management?
Why are standards important in enforcing password complexity?
How do guidelines and standards differ in the context of security management?
A company has been monitoring the performance of its network routers over a 2-year period and observed the following outages: Year 1 experienced 4 outages, totaling 16 hours, and Year 2 experienced 2 outages, totaling 12 hours. Assuming the network was operational for a total of 17,520 hours across both years, what is the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) for the network routers?
2,752 hours
3,004 hours
2,500 hours
2,920 hours
Answer Description
To calculate MTBF, divide the total operational time by the total number of failures. The total operational time over the 2-year period is 17,520 hours, and there were 4+2=6 outages. Therefore, the MTBF is 17,520 hours / 6 outages = 2,920 hours. Accurate calculation of MTBF is essential for gauging the reliability of equipment and scheduling maintenance to minimize downtime.
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What does MTBF mean in network reliability calculations?
Why is calculating MTBF important for maintenance planning?
What other metrics complement MTBF in system reliability analysis?
Which physical threat involves natural disasters impacting organizational assets?
RFID cloning
Environmental threat
Logic bomb
Brute force attack
Answer Description
Environmental threats involve natural disasters like floods, earthquakes, and fires that can physically damage an organization's assets and infrastructure. Unlike human-driven attacks, these threats originate from environmental factors. Brute force attacks are attempts to guess credentials through trial and error, RFID cloning involves duplicating access badges, and logic bombs are malicious code triggered by specific conditions. Recognizing environmental threats is crucial for comprehensive security planning.
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What are some examples of environmental threats?
How can organizations prepare for environmental threats?
How do environmental threats differ from human-driven threats?
An organization that handles top-secret defense research maintains a database server containing classified schematics. To comply with policy, the server must be completely unable to send or receive data over any wired or wireless network, thus preventing remote compromise or accidental data exfiltration. Which strategy best satisfies this requirement?
Using network segmentation with VLANs
Deploying an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Implementing an air-gapped system
Enabling a host-based firewall
Answer Description
An air-gapped system is physically isolated from all other networks, including the Internet. Because no network interfaces remain connected, data cannot enter or leave electronically, providing maximum protection for highly sensitive assets. A host-based firewall, VLAN segmentation, or an IDS can restrict or monitor traffic, but all still depend on an active network connection and therefore cannot guarantee total isolation.
Ask Bash
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What is an air-gapped system?
How does an air-gapped system differ from using a firewall, VLAN, or IDS?
What are the challenges of maintaining an air-gapped system?
What is the primary goal of employing uniform configuration standards across a company's technological environment?
To tailor each system’s settings for user preference, thereby improving individual productivity.
To maintain a consistent set of configurations for enhanced security and simplified management.
To diversify system configurations, which in turn makes it harder for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities.
To allow systems to operate independently of one another, minimizing the impact of network-wide updates.
Answer Description
The primary goal of uniform configuration standards is to establish a consistent security posture and operational behavior among the company's numerous devices and systems. This not only reduces the potential for errors but also simplifies administration and strengthens the organization's defense against common threats. Consistency makes it easier to manage updates, apply security policies, and ensure compliance with both internal guidelines and external regulations.
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Why is consistency important in system configurations for security?
What tools can help enforce consistent configuration standards?
What are some risks of not using uniform configuration standards?
A large financial institution is preparing to revise its security protocols to enhance the protection of client data. The institution has multiple international offices and must comply with various regional encryption standards. Which of the following should be the primary consideration when updating the company-wide encryption standard?
Implement the least strict regional encryption standard to minimize complications in international operations.
Develop a new encryption standard internally that is different from all regional standards but meets the minimum required security level.
Follow only the regional encryption standards of the country where the financial institution's headquarters is located.
Adopt the strictest regional encryption standard as the company-wide standard to ensure compliance across all locations.
Answer Description
The correct answer is the one that aligns with the goal of adhering to the highest regulatory requirements across regions. This ensures that the financial institution complies with all regional regulations while maintaining a uniform standard of security. Implementing the strictest regulatory standard as the company-wide standard is a common approach to simplifying compliance and ensuring the highest security posture is maintained throughout the organization, regardless of location. Options involving conflicting national and local standards, as well as those suggesting the development of new internal standards or solely following the least strict, do not address the overarching need to meet all regional compliance requirements efficiently.
Ask Bash
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What are regional encryption standards?
Why is adopting the strictest encryption standard necessary?
What challenges arise from different encryption standards in international operations?
As a network architect, you have been asked to design a network infrastructure for a financial services provider that requires extremely high levels of security due to the sensitive nature of the data being processed. The client also demands that certain systems must remain operational and isolated even in the event of a catastrophic network failure. Which of the following solutions would BEST meet these requirements?
Creating logical segmentation of the network using VLANs
Implementing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) for all internal communications
Deploying an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) throughout the network
Implementing an air-gapped network for those critical systems
Answer Description
An air-gapped network is the best solution for ensuring high security and operational isolation as it is a physical isolation technique that completely separates the critical systems from unsecured networks, preventing any form of external access or data breach. Logical segmentation, while useful, doesn't offer physical isolation and can be bypassed if the network is compromised. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides secure remote access but does not address the requirement for physical isolation of the system. Using an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) will add a layer of security but does not create isolated operational systems.
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What is an air-gapped network?
Why is logical segmentation not as secure as an air-gapped network?
When is using a VPN insufficient for high-security environments?
Your organization has just finalized an incident-response playbook for suspected data breaches. During a tabletop exercise, a junior analyst asks where to look in the document to determine who is responsible for tasks such as notifying management, containing affected systems, and coordinating with legal counsel. Which section of the playbook should the analyst consult first to identify these assignments?
Recovery Methods
Roles and Responsibilities
Incident Response Procedures
Communication Plan
Answer Description
A well-designed playbook dedicates a Roles and Responsibilities section to map specific duties to job titles or teams. Consulting this section lets responders immediately see who owns each critical task, enabling a faster and more organized reaction to a breach. The other sections focus on step-by-step technical actions (Incident Response Procedures), messaging rules (Communication Plan), or system restoration steps (Recovery Methods), but they do not enumerate who performs the work.
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What is the importance of the Roles and Responsibilities section in an incident-response playbook?
How does the Roles and Responsibilities section differ from the Incident Response Procedures section?
Why is it critical to consult the Roles and Responsibilities section first during an incident?
An attacker modifies a web application's URL by adding "../" sequences to access resources outside of the application's authorized files. What type of attack is being performed?
Buffer overflow
SQL injection
Directory traversal
Cross-site scripting
Answer Description
This attack is a directory traversal. By inserting "../" into the URL, the attacker navigates the file system hierarchy to access files and folders that are outside the intended scope of the web application. This can lead to unauthorized access to sensitive files. Directory traversal exploits occur when input validation is insufficient on file path parameters. The other options are distinct types of attacks: SQL injection involves injecting malicious SQL queries into a database query, cross-site scripting (XSS) entails injecting malicious scripts into web content viewed by other users, and a buffer overflow occurs when too much data is sent to a fixed-length memory buffer, potentially allowing an attacker to execute arbitrary code.
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What is insufficient input validation, and why is it important in preventing directory traversal attacks?
How do web applications typically mitigate directory traversal attacks?
What types of sensitive files are commonly targeted in directory traversal attacks?
An employee at a company receives a message on their mobile device that appears to come from the company's IT department. The message urges the employee to click on a link to update their password due to a security issue. The employee is suspicious because the company usually communicates such matters via official channels. What type of social engineering attack is the employee likely being targeted with?
Smishing
Pharming
Pretexting
Vishing
Answer Description
The correct answer is Smishing. Smishing is a form of phishing attack that uses SMS text messages to trick users into revealing personal information or clicking on malicious links. In this scenario, the employee received a deceptive message on their mobile device urging them to click a link, which is characteristic of a smishing attack. Vishing involves voice calls to deceive individuals, so it's not applicable here. Pretexting is a social engineering tactic where the attacker creates a fabricated scenario to obtain information, but it typically involves more elaborate interaction than a simple message. Pharming redirects users to fraudulent websites without their knowledge, which doesn't match the scenario described.
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What is smishing and how is it different from phishing?
How can someone recognize a smishing attempt?
What should I do if I accidentally clicked on a smishing link?
Alice, a security administrator, needs to verify that the servers in her organization are in a known and trusted state before they process sensitive data. The process involves generating a set of measurements that reflect the current state of the servers and comparing them against a set of known good values provided by the vendor. Which of the following best describes the process Alice should implement to meet this requirement?
Implementing a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to perform remote attestation of the servers during boot-up
Hashing system files at startup and sending the hashes to a central server for comparison
Setting BIOS passwords to prevent unauthorized changes to hardware settings
Configuring the servers to enable remote wiping in case they fail a security check
Answer Description
Attestation involves creating a secure baseline of system components which are then compared against current system measurements to verify integrity. The verification step compares the current state against a set of known good values (trusted baseline) that could include measurements from binary files, configuration settings, or patches. Remote attestation extends this concept by allowing a system to report its state to a remote verifier. Hashing system files at startup and sending them to a central server compares current file states against known good hashes, but it is not specifically considered remote attestation which implies a challenge-response mechanism between a local and remote entity. Remote wiping a device and BIOS password protection are security controls to prevent unauthorized access and do not attest to the current state of the system's hardware or software.
Ask Bash
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What is a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
How does remote attestation work with TPM?
Why is hashing system files not the same as remote attestation?
Your organization is experiencing rapid growth and expects a significant increase in online transaction volume over the next year. As a security professional assessing the infrastructure to accommodate future demands, which of the following would be the BEST measure to ensure the infrastructure can scale securely and effectively?
Invest in a more powerful server to replace the current one, ensuring that the new hardware can handle the anticipated load for the next year.
Vertically scale the existing infrastructure by upgrading the current server to a model with more processing power and memory.
Consolidate all data storage into a single geographic region to reduce complexity and ensure all users access the same resources.
Plan for horizontal scaling by adding additional servers or utilizing cloud-based resources to distribute the load evenly across multiple hardware platforms.
Answer Description
Implementing scalability in the infrastructure planning ensures that the system can handle growth in user demand without performance degradation or security compromise. Vertical scaling might offer an immediate increase in resources but often leads to downtime during upgrades and has limitations on how much can be scaled up. On the other hand, selecting a more powerful server might provide temporary relief but doesn't provide a long-term scalable solution. Using a single geographic region for data storage may reduce complexity but doesn't consider the increased load that comes with growth. Horizontal scaling, which involves adding more servers or using cloud resources, offers flexibility, improved fault tolerance, and seamless scalability, making it the most effective option for sustained growth.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between vertical and horizontal scaling?
Why is horizontal scaling more fault-tolerant than vertical scaling?
How do cloud-based resources support secure horizontal scaling?
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