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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 20
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

Under a Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) mobile deployment model, employees are permitted to connect any personal device they prefer to the corporate network, without having to select from a company-approved list of devices.

  • False

  • True

Question 2 of 20

Which risk management strategy is the only one that will completely eliminate the risk associated with an activity?

  • Acceptance

  • Avoidance

  • Mitigation

  • Transference

Question 3 of 20

Which of the following statements BEST describes who is responsible for securing the application layer (for example, patching application code and mitigating application-level vulnerabilities) under the cloud shared-responsibility model?

  • Responsibility shifts by service model: customers secure the application layer in IaaS (and generally in PaaS), but the provider secures it in SaaS.

  • The customer is always responsible, regardless of the service model.

  • In IaaS the provider secures applications, whereas in SaaS the customer does.

  • The cloud service provider is always responsible, no matter which service model is used.

Question 4 of 20

What is the primary benefit of using containerization in a security architecture?

  • It allows unlimited data storage capacity.

  • It completely eliminates the need for physical servers.

  • It integrates all applications into one operating system for better performance.

  • It isolates applications to enhance security and manageability.

  • It automates the process of data recovery.

  • It ensures that applications have direct access to hardware resources.

Question 5 of 20

When maintaining the chain of custody for digital evidence, what is the MOST important aspect to ensure its admissibility in legal proceedings?

  • Encrypting the evidence to preserve confidentiality

  • Maintaining detailed documentation of evidence handling

  • Using write-blockers when acquiring evidence from digital storage media

  • Storing the evidence in a climate-controlled environment

Question 6 of 20

A security technician is decommissioning a hard drive that was used to store sensitive financial records. The technician performs a quick format on the drive before sending it to a recycling facility. Which of the following BEST describes the risk of this action?

  • The quick format procedure sanitizes the drive by overwriting all data with zeros.

  • The action complies with the 'Clear' standard of NIST 800-88 for media sanitization.

  • The data remains on the drive and can be retrieved using data recovery tools.

  • The drive's firmware is wiped, rendering the stored data permanently inaccessible.

Question 7 of 20

In a recent audit of a secure facility, it was noted that the employee access system employs badges that are not programmed to confirm the identity of the badge reader before transmitting data. Which specific vulnerability are these badges most at risk of?

  • Email compromise

  • Encryption breaking

  • Radio-Frequency Identification (RFID) cloning

  • Social engineering tactics

Question 8 of 20

Which of the following types of disaster recovery sites is typically partially equipped with network connections and other resources, allowing a company to resume operations within a few days after a disaster, but not immediately?

  • Cold site

  • Lukewarm site

  • Hot site

  • Warm site

Question 9 of 20

In the context of security program management, what type of document typically specifies the minimum technical requirements for user password complexity within an organization?

  • Procedures

  • Policies

  • Standards

  • Guidelines

Question 10 of 20

A company has been monitoring the performance of its network routers over a 2-year period and observed the following outages: Year 1 experienced 4 outages, totaling 16 hours, and Year 2 experienced 2 outages, totaling 12 hours. Assuming the network was operational for a total of 17,520 hours across both years, what is the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) for the network routers?

  • 2,752 hours

  • 3,004 hours

  • 2,500 hours

  • 2,920 hours

Question 11 of 20

Which physical threat involves natural disasters impacting organizational assets?

  • RFID cloning

  • Environmental threat

  • Logic bomb

  • Brute force attack

Question 12 of 20

An organization that handles top-secret defense research maintains a database server containing classified schematics. To comply with policy, the server must be completely unable to send or receive data over any wired or wireless network, thus preventing remote compromise or accidental data exfiltration. Which strategy best satisfies this requirement?

  • Using network segmentation with VLANs

  • Deploying an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

  • Implementing an air-gapped system

  • Enabling a host-based firewall

Question 13 of 20

What is the primary goal of employing uniform configuration standards across a company's technological environment?

  • To tailor each system’s settings for user preference, thereby improving individual productivity.

  • To maintain a consistent set of configurations for enhanced security and simplified management.

  • To diversify system configurations, which in turn makes it harder for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities.

  • To allow systems to operate independently of one another, minimizing the impact of network-wide updates.

Question 14 of 20

A large financial institution is preparing to revise its security protocols to enhance the protection of client data. The institution has multiple international offices and must comply with various regional encryption standards. Which of the following should be the primary consideration when updating the company-wide encryption standard?

  • Implement the least strict regional encryption standard to minimize complications in international operations.

  • Develop a new encryption standard internally that is different from all regional standards but meets the minimum required security level.

  • Follow only the regional encryption standards of the country where the financial institution's headquarters is located.

  • Adopt the strictest regional encryption standard as the company-wide standard to ensure compliance across all locations.

Question 15 of 20

As a network architect, you have been asked to design a network infrastructure for a financial services provider that requires extremely high levels of security due to the sensitive nature of the data being processed. The client also demands that certain systems must remain operational and isolated even in the event of a catastrophic network failure. Which of the following solutions would BEST meet these requirements?

  • Creating logical segmentation of the network using VLANs

  • Implementing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) for all internal communications

  • Deploying an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) throughout the network

  • Implementing an air-gapped network for those critical systems

Question 16 of 20

Your organization has just finalized an incident-response playbook for suspected data breaches. During a tabletop exercise, a junior analyst asks where to look in the document to determine who is responsible for tasks such as notifying management, containing affected systems, and coordinating with legal counsel. Which section of the playbook should the analyst consult first to identify these assignments?

  • Recovery Methods

  • Roles and Responsibilities

  • Incident Response Procedures

  • Communication Plan

Question 17 of 20

An attacker modifies a web application's URL by adding "../" sequences to access resources outside of the application's authorized files. What type of attack is being performed?

  • Buffer overflow

  • SQL injection

  • Directory traversal

  • Cross-site scripting

Question 18 of 20

An employee at a company receives a message on their mobile device that appears to come from the company's IT department. The message urges the employee to click on a link to update their password due to a security issue. The employee is suspicious because the company usually communicates such matters via official channels. What type of social engineering attack is the employee likely being targeted with?

  • Smishing

  • Pharming

  • Pretexting

  • Vishing

Question 19 of 20

Alice, a security administrator, needs to verify that the servers in her organization are in a known and trusted state before they process sensitive data. The process involves generating a set of measurements that reflect the current state of the servers and comparing them against a set of known good values provided by the vendor. Which of the following best describes the process Alice should implement to meet this requirement?

  • Implementing a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to perform remote attestation of the servers during boot-up

  • Hashing system files at startup and sending the hashes to a central server for comparison

  • Setting BIOS passwords to prevent unauthorized changes to hardware settings

  • Configuring the servers to enable remote wiping in case they fail a security check

Question 20 of 20

Your organization is experiencing rapid growth and expects a significant increase in online transaction volume over the next year. As a security professional assessing the infrastructure to accommodate future demands, which of the following would be the BEST measure to ensure the infrastructure can scale securely and effectively?

  • Invest in a more powerful server to replace the current one, ensuring that the new hardware can handle the anticipated load for the next year.

  • Vertically scale the existing infrastructure by upgrading the current server to a model with more processing power and memory.

  • Consolidate all data storage into a single geographic region to reduce complexity and ensure all users access the same resources.

  • Plan for horizontal scaling by adding additional servers or utilizing cloud-based resources to distribute the load evenly across multiple hardware platforms.