CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An organization is considering updating their wide area network architecture to improve the management of security policies and the application of security updates across the network. What is the PRIMARY security benefit of transitioning to a Software-Defined Wide Area Network?
Centralized management of security policies and updates
Reduction in operational costs by utilizing virtualization
Optimized performance through application-aware routing
Dynamic path selection for bandwidth optimization
Answer Description
A Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN) provides centralized management, enabling organizations to apply security policies and updates uniformly across the network with ease. This centralized approach not only simplifies the administration of the network but also ensures consistent security measures are in place throughout, addressing the organization's need for improved security management. While the option of improved performance through optimized routing is a benefit of SD-WAN, it is not inherently a security benefit. Reduction in operational costs mainly pertains to financial aspects rather than direct security enhancements. Similarly, the ability to dynamically change network paths is a performance-related benefit, but it's not the primary security advantage that SD-WAN offers.
Ask Bash
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What is SD-WAN, and how does it differ from traditional WAN architectures?
How does centralized management in SD-WAN enhance security?
What role does application-aware routing play in SD-WAN performance?
A network administrator needs to devise a strategy to optimize resource utilization when web-traffic spikes unpredictably, while also avoiding a single point of failure in the web-service infrastructure. Which configuration best meets these business requirements?
Introduce a load balancer to distribute the traffic
Create a server cluster for redundancy
Deploy a reverse proxy to manage web requests
Implement RAID configurations for all web servers
Answer Description
Placing a load balancer in front of a pool of identical web servers distributes each client request according to algorithms such as round-robin or least-connections. This evens out utilization, prevents any one server from being overwhelmed during traffic spikes, and automatically stops sending traffic to a failed node, eliminating that node as a single point of failure.
Clustering technologies focus on node redundancy and failover; in common active-passive clusters only one node actively serves traffic at a time, so they do not automatically spread day-to-day load. A reverse proxy can perform security, caching, and-depending on the product-may include load-balancing features, but the term alone does not guarantee request distribution. RAID protects disk storage and has no effect on HTTP traffic flow.
Ask Bash
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What is a load balancer?
How does a load balancer differ from clustering?
Can a reverse proxy perform load balancing?
A company's security team has recently upgraded the network firewall to a newer model to enhance security features. As a security analyst, what is the MOST important action to perform following the upgrade to ensure ongoing operational efficiency?
Implement additional firewall rules to immediately increase the security posture without a scheduled review.
Update the security policies and network configuration documentation to reflect changes made by the new firewall.
Schedule a meeting with the stakeholders to discuss the possibility of future upgrades.
Perform a complete network penetration test to identify potential new vulnerabilities introduced.
Answer Description
The documentation should be updated whenever changes are made to the security infrastructure. This includes major upgrades such as the implementation of a new firewall. Updating the documentation ensures that accurate information is available for the operation and maintenance of the security controls, as well as for audit purposes. Failing to update documentation can lead to confusion, improper configuration, and weaknesses in security. The incorrect options, while they may be important in other contexts, do not directly address the primary need for keeping an accurate historical record of system configurations and policy changes that affect security operations.
Ask Bash
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Why is updating security policies and network documentation critical after a firewall upgrade?
What kind of information should be included in the updated documentation after a firewall upgrade?
How does failing to update documentation impact security and operations?
A security administrator is tasked with selecting an authentication framework that can be deployed on both a new WPA3-Enterprise Wi-Fi network and several legacy PPP dial-up links. The solution must allow the company to swap among smart-card logons, one-time passwords, or certificate-based credentials without changing the underlying transport. Which authentication framework satisfies these requirements?
Kerberos
Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol (PEAP)
Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
Answer Description
Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) is an authentication framework, not a single method. Defined in RFC 3748, EAP runs directly over data-link layers such as PPP and IEEE 802 (used by 802.1X). Because it is extensible, the organization can choose among many credential types-smart cards (EAP-TLS), one-time passwords (EAP-OTP), or password-based tunneling (PEAP)-without altering the framework. WPA/WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise all rely on 802.1X and EAP for client authentication, so the same framework works across Wi-Fi and PPP links. RADIUS and Kerberos are authentication servers/protocols rather than link-layer frameworks, while PEAP is only one EAP method, not the overarching framework.
Ask Bash
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What are the differences between EAP and PEAP?
How does EAP work in wireless networks like WPA2?
What are some common EAP methods and their use cases?
Your organization has entered into an agreement with a third-party vendor for cloud storage services. As part of the due-diligence process, it is important to assess the security responsibilities assigned to the vendor. Which document should you review to understand the security tasks that the vendor is obligated to perform?
Network topology diagram
Incident report
Responsibility matrix
Vendor's security policy documents
Answer Description
A responsibility matrix-sometimes called a customer or shared responsibility matrix-lists each security control and specifies whether the cloud service provider or the customer is responsible for implementing and maintaining it. Reviewing this matrix (often embedded in the SLA or an attachment to it) allows the client to verify who handles patching, incident response, access management, and other controls so that no gaps or overlaps exist.
Ask Bash
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What is a responsibility matrix and why is it important?
How is a responsibility matrix different from an SLA (Service Level Agreement)?
What are some examples of controls listed in a responsibility matrix?
Which type of sensor is typically utilized to detect motion through emitted microwave signals that reflect off moving objects?
Infrared sensor
Ultrasonic sensor
Microwave sensor
Pressure sensor
Answer Description
A microwave sensor is used to detect motion by emitting microwave pulses and then measuring the reflection of moving objects, making it an effective motion detector. Infrared sensors detect heat signatures, ultrasonic sensors utilize sound waves, and pressure sensors respond to physical force or weight.
Ask Bash
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How does a microwave sensor work in motion detection?
What are the key differences between microwave and infrared sensors?
In what scenarios are microwave sensors preferred over ultrasonic sensors?
You are conducting a penetration test on a web application recently purchased by the HR department of your employer. You find that when creating a new user account in the Web UI you can delete data from the database by entering '; DROP TABLE Users' into the field for the user account. What type of vulnerability have you discovered?
SQL injection
Request forgery
XML Injection
Drop database vulnerability
Answer Description
This is a Structured Query Language (SQL) injection. SQL is a standard language for relational database management. It's common for an application to take data from a user, create a SQL script and pass this to the underlying database. When an application has a SQL injection vulnerability the application is not validating user input to check for SQL. This allows a malicious user to send SQL commands through the application and into the database for execution.
Ask Bash
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What is the purpose of input validation in defending against SQL injection?
How does a SQL injection attack impact a database?
What is the difference between SQL injection and XML injection?
What is the primary purpose of implementing automation in vulnerability management processes?
To eliminate the necessity of establishing secure baselines for systems.
To ensure manual processes are the primary method for vulnerability detection.
To increase efficiency and consistency in vulnerability detection and response.
To completely eliminate user error in vulnerability management.
Answer Description
The primary purpose of implementing automation in vulnerability management is to increase efficiency and consistency in identifying and responding to security vulnerabilities. Automated tools can consistently monitor systems for known vulnerabilities, help in scheduling scans, and manage patch deployment without the need for manual intervention. While automation certainly helps in maintaining minimum security baselines and reduces the chances of user error, its main role in the context of vulnerability management is to streamline the detection and remediation of vulnerabilities within a system.
Ask Bash
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What are some common tools used in automated vulnerability management?
How does automation improve consistency in vulnerability management?
What limitations should organizations consider when implementing automation in vulnerability management?
A security administrator at a mid-size company is selecting an algorithm for secure email encryption that relies on a public/private key pair rather than a shared secret, to implement digital signatures as well. Which of the following algorithms satisfies this requirement?
Blowfish
AES
RSA
RC4
Answer Description
RSA uses mathematically linked public and private keys to encrypt or sign data, making it an asymmetric algorithm. The other listed algorithms-AES, Blowfish, and RC4-are all symmetric ciphers that rely on the same shared key for both encryption and decryption.
Ask Bash
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What is RSA and why is it suitable for secure email encryption?
How does RSA differ from symmetric encryption algorithms like AES or Blowfish?
What role do digital signatures play in RSA and email encryption?
Which of the following best describes how an access control list (ACL) can be applied on a router interface to control packet flow?
It can be applied in either direction, but once applied you cannot have both an inbound and an outbound ACL on the same interface.
It can only be applied in the outbound direction and filters traffic leaving the router.
It can be applied inbound and/or outbound on the same interface, allowing filtering of packets entering or leaving the interface according to defined rules.
It can only be applied in the inbound direction and filters traffic entering the router.
Answer Description
An ACL can be bound to an interface in the inbound direction to inspect packets as they arrive and/or in the outbound direction to inspect packets as they leave. Administrators may place separate ACLs in each direction on the same interface, providing granular control over traffic entering and exiting the device.
Ask Bash
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What is an access control list (ACL)?
What is the difference between inbound and outbound ACLs?
How do routers process packets using ACL rules?
Which of the following security functions is provided by DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)?
It encrypts the entire email message during transit to ensure confidentiality.
It verifies that the message body and attachments have not been altered since the sender signed the message.
It blocks email from unauthorized IP addresses by checking the envelope sender against an allow list.
It enforces domain-level policies instructing receivers how to handle failed SPF and DKIM checks.
Answer Description
DKIM adds a cryptographic signature to selected headers and the entire message body, which includes any MIME attachments. When the recipient's server retrieves the sender's public key from DNS and verifies the signature, it can confirm that the signed portions of the message-including attachments-have not been altered in transit. DKIM does not encrypt email content, block senders by IP address, or impose domain-wide handling rules for failed checks; those capabilities are provided by TLS, SPF, and DMARC, respectively.
Ask Bash
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What is DKIM and how does it improve email security?
How does DKIM differ from SPF and DMARC?
What role does DNS play in DKIM verification?
Deciding not to apply a software patch to a non-critical system immediately because the patch may disrupt operations can be indicative of an organization's risk tolerance.
False
True
Answer Description
This statement is true because it illustrates a scenario where an organization chooses to accept the risk (delaying a patch) due to the potential of disrupting operations. Risk tolerance influences such decisions, where the risk of immediate disruption is seen as more significant than the risk of a potential vulnerability being exploited. This falls under vulnerability response and remediation, as organizations must balance the risks and costs of immediate action against potential security incidents.
Ask Bash
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What is risk tolerance in the context of cybersecurity?
What is a vulnerability response process?
Why might applying a patch immediately disrupt operations?
Which physical security measure is designed to prevent unauthorized access by controlling the entry and exit of individuals through the use of two interlocking doors?
Turnstile
Security Camera
Bollard
Access Control Vestibule
Answer Description
An access control vestibule uses two interlocking doors to control the passage of individuals into a secure area. This configuration enhances security by verifying credentials before granting access. Turnstiles control pedestrian flow but typically do not use interlocking doors. Bollards are physical barriers that prevent vehicle access but do not control pedestrian entry. Security cameras monitor areas but do not physically restrict access.
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How do access control vestibules work to enhance physical security?
What is tailgating in the context of physical security, and how does an access control vestibule prevent it?
How does an access control vestibule differ from turnstiles in physical security?
When managing operations across multiple countries, each with their own unique privacy and data handling laws, what is the BEST approach a company can adopt to ensure ongoing compliance in its handling of personal customer data?
Adopting a comprehensive data inventory and retention policy
Establishing generic organizational policies for data handling
Enhancing employee awareness through training programs
Regularly engaging with third-party auditors for compliance checks
Answer Description
The most effective approach to ensure compliance with different countries' privacy and data laws is to adopt a robust data inventory and retention policy. This policy allows the company to keep a clear record of what data it has, where it is stored, and how long it should be retained according to each jurisdiction's legal requirements. By systematically categorizing data and its lifecycles, the company can tailor its compliance strategy region by region, adequately addressing the nuances of local privacy laws. Though establishing organizational policies and awareness training are beneficial, they are supplementary measures and don't directly manage data handling practices as per legal requirements. Similarly, engaging with third-party auditors can identify risks but doesn't inherently maintain compliance with varying international regulations.
Ask Bash
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Why is a data inventory essential for compliance with international data privacy laws?
How can data retention policies align with different countries' regulations?
What challenges might a company face when implementing an international data inventory and retention policy?
A company wants to minimize the exposure of sensitive customer credit card data within its e-commerce environment. Which of the following data protection strategies would BEST reduce the risk of credit card data breaches while maintaining the ability to perform transactional operations?
Geolocation
Encryption
Masking
Tokenization
Answer Description
Tokenization is the best answer because it substitutes the sensitive data with non-sensitive equivalents, known as tokens, which have no exploitable value. This allows the company to process transactions without exposing actual credit card data, significantly reducing the risk of breaches while still enabling business functionality.
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What is the difference between tokenization and encryption?
Why is tokenization preferred for compliance with PCI DSS standards?
How does tokenization work in a transactional system?
During a security audit, an administrator needs to ensure that only company-approved laptops can connect to the office's wired switches. Which network technology should be configured on each switch port so a user or device must successfully authenticate before any LAN or WLAN traffic is permitted?
Create IPSec VPN tunnels between endpoints and the core router for secure connectivity.
Enable WPA3 encryption on the wired interfaces to secure all transmitted data.
Deploy a next-generation firewall module in each switch to filter traffic at Layer 7.
Configure 802.1X authentication on the switch ports to require credentials before granting access.
Answer Description
IEEE 802.1X is a port-based network access-control protocol that works at the data-link layer. A supplicant (client) must authenticate through the switch (authenticator) to a backend RADIUS server before the port transitions from an unauthorized to an authorized state. This prevents unauthorized devices from gaining network access. 802.1X itself does not define encryption, provide VPN tunneling, or perform firewall functions-those are handled by other mechanisms.
Ask Bash
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How does 802.1X differ from other authentication mechanisms like WPA2-Enterprise?
What role does the RADIUS server play in 802.1X authentication?
Which protocols are commonly used with 802.1X for device authentication?
A security analyst needs to investigate a potential data breach that is suspected to have occurred over the past week. The investigation requires correlating log data from firewalls, servers, and intrusion detection systems to identify suspicious patterns and trace the timeline of events. Which of the following tools is BEST suited for this type of historical analysis and data correlation?
A security operations dashboard
A real-time network performance monitor
A system vulnerability scanner
A packet capture utility
Answer Description
The correct answer is a security operations dashboard. These dashboards, typically integrated with a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system, are specifically designed to aggregate, correlate, and visualize log data from numerous sources over time. This makes them the ideal tool for historical analysis and identifying trends or patterns indicative of a breach. A real-time network performance monitor focuses on current bandwidth and latency, not historical log correlation. A packet capture utility provides deep, low-level data but is cumbersome for analyzing long-term, aggregated trends across multiple systems. A system vulnerability scanner is used to identify unpatched systems and misconfigurations, not for analyzing event logs to investigate an active or past incident.
Ask Bash
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What is a SIEM system and how does it function?
How does a security operations dashboard differ from a packet capture utility?
Why are real-time network performance monitors unsuitable for historical data analysis?
An organization's server room entry is secured solely by numerical access codes, which has recently led to heightened concerns about the method's vulnerability to systematic guessing attempts. To increase the difficulty for perpetrators attempting to gain unauthorized entry, which enhancement should be taken?
Setting up an audible alert after multiple failed entry attempts.
Enhancing video surveillance around the entry area.
Installing a biometric authentication system.
Intermittent updates to numerical access codes.
Answer Description
Employing a biometric authentication system increases security by requiring personal physical attributes, making it significantly more resistant to systematic guessing and unauthorized entry compared to numerical access codes. Updating numerical access codes intermittently can temporarily prevent unauthorized access but does not inherently improve resistance against a focused attack. An audible alert after a set number of failed attempts might deter but not prevent an intruder who can still continue to attempt access. Video surveillance, although useful for monitoring and recording, does not in itself prevent unauthorized access.
Ask Bash
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Why is biometric authentication more secure than numerical access codes?
What types of biometric authentication methods are commonly used?
What are some potential challenges in implementing a biometric security system?
An attacker forces a system to use a weaker encryption protocol that has known vulnerabilities. What type of cryptographic attack is being performed?
Replay attack
Birthday attack
Side-channel attack
Downgrade attack
Answer Description
By forcing a system to use a weaker encryption protocol with known vulnerabilities, an attacker is performing a downgrade attack. This attack leverages older, less secure versions of protocols or ciphers, making it easier to exploit the system. In contrast, a side-channel attack gathers information from the physical implementation of a cryptosystem, a birthday attack exploits the mathematics of hash functions to find collisions, and a replay attack involves reusing valid data transmissions to deceive a system or gain unauthorized access.
Ask Bash
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What is a downgrade attack?
How does a downgrade attack differ from a replay attack?
How can systems be protected against downgrade attacks?
A member of the IT department received a call from an individual claiming to be from the telecommunications company that provides services to the organization. The caller requested the IT staff member to confirm sensitive configuration details about the company's PBX system to help resolve an alleged network issue. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the IT staff member to take?
Place the caller on a brief hold to inform a supervisor about the request and then return to share the information
Verify the caller's identity by calling back on a known, official number of the telecommunications company before providing any information
Tell the caller to send an official request for information through email and then proceed with the call
Share the requested information to resolve the network issue promptly as the caller seems knowledgeable about the company's telecommunications setup
Answer Description
The best action is to verify the identity of the caller through a callback to a known, official phone number for the telecommunications provider before discussing sensitive information. This is because providing such details over the phone without verification can lead to potential security breaches. Unverified calls, especially those requesting sensitive information, are likely to be vishing attacks where attackers attempt to extract critical information by impersonating legitimate entities. Unlike the incorrect options, immediate verification is critical and proper protocol in such situations; informing a supervisor is also advisable but does not directly address the potential immediate threat. Sharing the requested information or placing the caller on a brief hold without attempting to verify their identity doesn't reduce the risk associated with the potential vishing attempt.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a PBX system?
What is vishing?
Why is verifying a caller's identity essential in cybersecurity?
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