CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
An employee in your organization received a call from an individual claiming to be from the IT department. The caller stated they were conducting routine security checks and needed the employee's username and password to ensure his account is secure. The caller is exceptionally polite and knowledgeable about company protocols. Which type of social engineering attack is MOST likely occurring?
Phishing
Baiting
Pretexting
Quid pro quo
Answer Description
Pretexting involves the creation of a fabricated scenario designed to persuade a victim to release information or perform some action. In this case, the attacker is pretending to be a familiar and legitimate entity—such as an IT department representative—to gain the trust of the employee and obtain sensitive information. This is a common tactic where attackers carefully craft a believable story that seems legitimate to the victim.
Ask Bash
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What is pretexting and how is it different from other social engineering attacks?
Can you provide an example of another pretexting scenario?
What steps can employees take to protect against pretexting attacks?
What defines the term 'reputational damage' when considering the consequences of non-compliance with security policies and regulations?
An ethical violation that occurs due to an organization not adhering to agreed-upon moral standards.
Harm to a company's prestige or esteem that can lead to a loss of customers and difficulty in attracting talent.
The time when company operations are not functioning, often due to system maintenance or failures.
A temporary loss of consumer or partner confidence in a company's products or services.
Answer Description
Reputational damage refers to the harm to a company’s prestige or esteem that occurs following a detrimental event, such as a security breach. This can result in lost customers, partners, reduced sales, and difficulty in attracting talent. Understanding this concept is essential because it transcends the immediate financial impact and can have long-term effects on the organization's success. 'Loss of confidence' refers to a more temporary or individualistic perception which might not necessarily translate into widespread damage to the organization's reputation. 'Ethical violation' is a specific behavior of non-compliance but does not directly equate to reputational damage. 'Operational downtime' refers to periods when systems or services are not operational; while it can contribute to reputational damage if it results from a security incident, on its own it does not encapsulate the broader implications of reputational damage.
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What are some examples of events that can cause reputational damage?
How can a company mitigate reputational damage?
What is the role of compliance in preventing reputational damage?
An organization wants to enhance its vulnerability management program by integrating additional intelligence sources. Which feature of proprietary or third-party threat feeds can be most beneficial when prioritizing vulnerabilities based on the current threat landscape?
General security best practices that apply to most organizations.
Actionable intelligence that is directly relevant to the organization's environment.
Network traffic data unrelated to the organization's industry vertical.
Detailed configuration guidelines for a multitude of unrelated software products.
Answer Description
Proprietary or third-party threat feeds often provide actionable intelligence that can be directly mapped to an organization's existing vulnerabilities. By offering this tailored information, security teams can prioritize threats based on relevance and direct applicability to the organization's environment. This level of specificity assists in making informed decisions, as opposed to more generic information that could lead to misprioritization or resource waste on lower-risk vulnerabilities.
Ask Bash
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What is actionable intelligence in the context of threat feeds?
How do third-party threat feeds collect and analyze data?
What are the risks of relying on general security best practices instead of actionable intelligence?
Your company’s network is configured to always check authentication/authorization each time a user tries to access data. The company is using which security model?
Zero trust
Intranet
Extranet
VLAN
Answer Description
The zero trust security model works on the basis of “never trust, always verify.” Devices and users on the network are always required to be authenticated even if they were previously.
Ask Bash
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What does 'never trust, always verify' mean in the context of zero trust?
What are some key technologies used in implementing a zero trust model?
How does the zero trust model differ from traditional security models?
Which legal principle establishes the right of individuals to request the removal of their personal information from organizational databases or records, especially in cases where the information is no longer relevant or accurate?
Data Sovereignty
Right to Be Forgotten
Information Custodian
Data Retention
Answer Description
The legal principle known as the 'Right to Be Forgotten' empowers individuals to have their personal data removed from the records of an organization, particularly when it is no longer necessary or pertinent. This principle is an important aspect of privacy law in many jurisdictions and requires organizations to take action upon such requests, subject to certain conditions and exceptions. The term 'Data Retention' refers to the policies that establish how long data should be kept before disposition, which is a separate topic. 'Data Sovereignty' describes the legal implications of data being subject to the laws of the country where it is stored, which does not deal directly with data removal requests by individuals. Lastly, 'Information Custodian' pertains to the roles and responsibilities associated with the protection and care of data, which does not entail an individual's right to request deletion.
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What does the Right to Be Forgotten include?
How does the Right to Be Forgotten differ by jurisdiction?
What are the implications of the Right to Be Forgotten for organizations?
Which U.S. federal law establishes national standards that require healthcare providers, health plans, and their business associates to implement administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to protect the privacy and security of patients' protected health information (PHI)?
Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)
Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
Answer Description
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) includes the Privacy Rule and Security Rule, which mandate safeguards to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of PHI handled by covered entities and their business associates. PCI DSS focuses on payment-card data, SOX addresses financial reporting controls, and GLBA governs the security of consumers' financial information; none of these specifically set nationwide requirements for safeguarding medical records.
Ask Bash
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What is HIPAA and what does it entail?
What are the consequences of non-compliance with HIPAA?
What are the types of safeguards required under HIPAA?
Which of the following BEST describes the main purpose of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
It provides detailed reports of system performance for auditing purposes.
It blocks unauthorized access by filtering incoming network traffic.
It encrypts data to prevent unauthorized access during transmission.
It monitors network traffic for suspicious activities and alerts administrators.
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is designed to monitor network or system activities for malicious actions or policy violations. Its primary purpose is to detect suspicious activities and generate alerts so that administrators can take appropriate action. Unlike preventive controls that block or prevent attacks, IDS serves as a detective control, identifying potential threats without necessarily stopping them.
Ask Bash
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What are the different types of Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)?
How does an IDS differentiate between normal and suspicious activities?
What should administrators do when an IDS alerts them about suspicious activity?
Your company has recently rolled out a new security awareness training program focused on recognizing social engineering attacks. To ensure the effectiveness of the training, what is the MOST effective method to evaluate employee understanding and application of the training content?
Conducting unannounced phishing simulation campaigns
Unannounced network scans after training completion
Publishing a quarterly newsletter highlighting social engineering threats
Including a quiz at the end of the training session
Answer Description
Phishing simulations are a practical method of testing employees' abilities to recognize and respond to social engineering attacks. This type of simulation provides actionable insights by creating realistic scenarios similar to actual phishing attempts, without the associated risk. This helps measure the effectiveness of the training and identifies areas where additional training may be necessary. Answer options like 'Unannounced network scans' and 'Publishing quarterly newsletters' are less direct and less effective methods of assessing the specific understanding of recognizing social engineering attacks. Although helpful in a broader security context, they do not directly test the application of the training content. 'Including a quiz at the end of the training session' can validate immediate retention but does not measure long-term understanding or practical application in an actual work environment.
Ask Bash
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What are phishing simulations, and how do they work?
Why are unannounced phishing attacks more effective than quizzes?
What other methods can companies use to reinforce training on social engineering attacks?
During an authorized security assessment, the security team at XYZ Corp is tasked with identifying potential vulnerabilities without alerting the target systems. Which of the following options best describes a method that the security team should employ to gather intelligence without raising suspicion?
Running an automated crawler on the company's public website
Performing passive DNS analysis
Executing a full network scan to map out live hosts
Engaging in social engineering calls to the employees
Answer Description
Performing passive DNS analysis is a passive reconnaissance method used to gather historical DNS data for a domain without directly interacting with the target's systems. This technique helps in mapping the target's infrastructure without triggering alerts. In contrast, a full network scan and running an automated website crawler are forms of active reconnaissance, as they involve sending packets and requests directly to the target's network and can be detected. Similarly, making social engineering calls is an active method that involves direct interaction with the company's employees.
Ask Bash
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What is passive DNS analysis?
What is the difference between passive and active reconnaissance?
Why is social engineering considered a potential risk in security assessments?
A country's primary power grid and water treatment facilities have experienced a series of sophisticated, coordinated cyber attacks aimed at causing widespread service disruption. Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely responsible for this type of attack?
Organized crime
Hacktivist
Nation-state
Insider threat
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Nation-state'. Nation-state actors possess high levels of sophistication, resources, and funding, and their motivations often include espionage, political gain, and disrupting the critical infrastructure of other nations. Attacks on power grids and water facilities are characteristic of cyber warfare campaigns intended to cause significant societal and economic harm.
- Organized crime is primarily motivated by financial gain and is more likely to use ransomware or steal data for extortion rather than cause widespread service disruption for its own sake.
- A hacktivist is typically motivated by political or social beliefs and usually conducts less sophisticated attacks like website defacement or DDoS attacks against specific organizations, lacking the resources for a large-scale infrastructure attack.
- An insider threat acts from within an organization, and while potentially disruptive, is less likely to orchestrate a widespread, coordinated attack on national critical infrastructure.
Ask Bash
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What are nation-state actors in cybersecurity?
What is critical infrastructure?
What are some examples of attacks on critical infrastructure?
Which network appliance is primarily used to balance traffic among multiple servers to enhance performance and scalability?
Jump server
Proxy server
Load balancer
Intrusion prevention system (IPS)/intrusion detection system (IDS)
Answer Description
A load balancer is used to distribute network or application traffic across multiple servers, which improves responsiveness and increases availability of applications. It is designed to prevent any one server from becoming overloaded with too much traffic, which can degrade performance or cause outages. Proxies may balance requests but are not primarily designed for load balancing, while an IPS/IDS focuses on monitoring and analyzing network traffic for any malicious activity. Jump servers are utilized to manage access to devices within a security zone.
Ask Bash
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What are the different types of load balancers?
How does a load balancer improve performance?
What is the difference between a load balancer and a proxy server?
Which category of security controls is primarily responsible for configuring and managing technical devices such as firewalls and intrusion detection systems?
Physical controls
Operational controls
Technical controls
Managerial controls
Answer Description
Technical controls rely on hardware, software, or firmware to enforce security. Configuring and administering devices like firewalls, intrusion detection or prevention systems, and antivirus platforms are examples of Technical controls. Managerial controls establish the overarching policies and procedures that direct how these technologies should be used, while Operational controls focus on day-to-day human processes and Physical controls secure the physical environment.
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What are Managerial Controls in cybersecurity?
What are Technical Controls and how do they differ from Managerial Controls?
Can you explain what firewalls and intrusion detection systems do?
An organization implements a set of policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors regarding information security. What type of security control is this an example of?
Corrective control
Preventive control
Detective control
Directive control
Answer Description
Policies that outline employee responsibilities and expected behaviors are examples of directive controls. Directive controls are designed to guide or instruct individuals or systems to ensure compliance with security requirements. They establish guidelines and expectations to influence behavior. Detective controls are intended to identify and detect unwanted events or incidents after they occur. Corrective controls focus on minimizing the impact of a security incident after it has occurred. Preventive controls aim to stop unwanted events from happening in the first place.
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What are examples of directive controls?
How do directive controls differ from preventive controls?
Can you provide an example of a detective control?
Your organization requires a solution to monitor the health and security status of its endpoints. What kind of solution would you deploy to ensure centralized management and real-time alerting for potential security issues?
Set up a network analyzer to capture and inspect all traffic in and out of the network.
Deploy an agent-based monitoring tool on all endpoints that reports back to a central management console.
Regularly schedule manual security audits of all endpoints to check for software updates and configuration issues.
Use a centralized log management platform to passively analyze system logs.
Answer Description
An agent-based monitoring tool would be appropriate for this task because it can be installed on each endpoint to monitor its health and security status in real-time. These agents regularly communicate with a central management console to report on the status of the endpoint and alert security personnel if an anomaly is detected. Other answers involve manual processes, provide incomplete solutions, or are less efficient for real-time monitoring in a large enterprise environment.
Ask Bash
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What is an agent-based monitoring tool?
How does a central management console work?
What are the advantages of real-time alerting in endpoint security?
Which international framework should a multinational corporation adopt to ensure compliance with global data protection and privacy standards?
United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods
Shipping Port Security Act
General Data Protection Regulation
Federal Information Security Management Act
Answer Description
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a comprehensive data privacy framework that imposes strict rules on data protection and privacy for individuals within the European Union. As it is one of the strictest privacy and security laws in the world, adopting GDPR-compliant policies will likely ensure compliance with a wide range of international data protection standards. The regulation requires businesses to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens. Additionally, because the GDPR has extraterritorial applicability, meaning it applies to organizations outside the EU that process data of EU residents, adhering to its standards can help a multinational corporation align with global data protection regulations. The other options are either national and not globally focused (like the Federal Information Security Management Act), industry-specific (such as acts related to shipping port security), or limited in scope with regards to data protection (for example, the United Nations Convention on Contracts for the International Sale of Goods).
Ask Bash
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What does GDPR stand for and what are its main principles?
What are the consequences of not complying with GDPR?
How does GDPR impact organizations outside of the EU?
A multinational company has recently launched a cloud service platform and is considering introducing a bug bounty program to enhance its security measures. What is the most important reason for the company to integrate a bug bounty program into its vulnerability management process?
To promote the company's dedication to transparency and foster trust among its user base.
To ensure the company's compliance with international cybersecurity regulations and standards.
To focus specifically on mitigating zero-day exploits by having them reported through the program.
To uncover otherwise undetected vulnerabilities by leveraging the collective efforts of the global security research community.
Answer Description
Bug bounty programs invite external security researchers to test systems for rewards. This crowdsourced approach greatly expands the range of skills, tools, and perspectives applied to security testing, which helps uncover vulnerabilities that may slip past automated scanners, internal assessments, and periodic penetration tests. Increased transparency or compliance benefits can flow from a program, and zero-day exploits might be caught as a result, but those are secondary effects-not the fundamental purpose of adding the program to vulnerability identification.
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What are bug bounty programs?
How do bug bounty programs work?
What types of vulnerabilities can bug bounty programs help identify?
A large enterprise with critical uptime requirements needs to implement a feature in their file system to help maintain a consistent state of their files post any system crashes. Which of the following would BEST ensure that file changes are systematically recorded, facilitating a quick restoration of the last known good state after a crash?
Relying on routine snapshots of the data
Implementing a file system with journaling capabilities
Enforcing strict file permissions
Utilizing RAID configurations for data redundancy
Answer Description
Journaling in the context of file systems is used to record changes not yet committed to the file system, which can protect against corruption and ensure the file system can be reliably restored to a good state in the event of a crash. This feature is specifically designed to track changes in a sequential log, providing a mechanism for recovery that does not depend on the file system's regular write processes, which might be incomplete at the time of a crash.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is journaling in file systems?
How does journaling help in recovering from a crash?
What are some examples of file systems that support journaling?
Which social engineering attack is most effectively combated by implementing strong organizational verification procedures and training employees to confirm requests through multi-channel verifications?
Shadow IT
Phishing
Business Email Compromise (BEC)
Piggybacking
Answer Description
Business Email Compromise (BEC) is effectively combated by strong organizational verification procedures. In a BEC attack, an attacker impersonates an executive or a partner organization in an email to trick an employee into making a financial transfer or revealing sensitive information. Training employees to verify such requests using multiple communication channels, like phone calls or face-to-face meetings, is crucial in preventing successful BEC attacks.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of organizational verification procedures?
How does multi-channel verification help prevent BEC attacks?
What is the impact of employee training on BEC prevention?
Malicious activity has been affecting various systems on your network. You want to put a system in place that can monitor network traffic and attempt to take defensive action when network intrusions are detected. Which of the following should you use?
NIPS
HIDS
HIPS
NIDS
Answer Description
A network intrusion prevention system (NIPS) is the only one of the choices that you can place to monitor your entire network for intrusions while at the same time attempting to prevent the intrusion. HIPS and HIDS are only for a single host, while NIDS will only detect an intrusion.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between NIPS and NIDS?
How does a NIPS detect and respond to intrusions?
What are HIDS and HIPS, and how do they differ from NIPS?
An organization has implemented a security guard at the entrance to its data center to verify identity badges before allowing entrance. Which type of security control does this represent?
Corrective Control
Preventive Control
Deterrent Control
Detective Control
Answer Description
This security control is preventive because the security guard verifies identity badges to actively prevent unauthorized access to the data center. While the presence of a security guard may also act as a deterrent by discouraging potential intruders, the essential function here is to stop unauthorized entry, which characterizes a preventive control. Detective controls would identify unauthorized access after it happens, and corrective controls focus on restoring systems after an incident.
Ask Bash
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What are the different types of security controls?
What is the role of preventive controls in security?
How can preventive controls serve as a deterrent?
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