CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 20
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Your company is engaging with a new vendor that will provide a critical component for your product's manufacturing process. As part of the vendor selection process, you are tasked with performing a supply chain analysis. Which of the following actions is most essential to mitigate the risks associated with this new integration?
Check references from other companies that have worked with the vendor.
Verify the financial stability of the vendor.
Perform an on-site security assessment of the vendor's facilities.
Review the vendor's security and compliance certifications.
Answer Description
Reviewing the vendor's security and compliance certifications ensures that the supplier follows recognized industry standards and regulations (such as ISO 27001 or SOC 2). This provides independent assurance of the vendor's security posture and is typically the first due-diligence step before deeper, resource-intensive activities. Assessing financial stability or speaking with references helps manage business risk but does not directly validate security controls. Conducting an on-site assessment can be valuable later in the process, yet it is costly and often reserved for only the highest-risk suppliers after their documentation has been reviewed.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some common security and compliance certifications to look for?
Why is reviewing certifications essential before other due-diligence actions?
What is the difference between an on-site security assessment and certification review?
A company wants to reduce the number of login IDs and passwords their employees need to remember to access various company resources. Which authentication scheme should a security administrator recommend to achieve this?
SSO
RADIUS
802.1X
TACACS+
Answer Description
Single sign-on (SSO) is an authentication scheme that allows a user to use a single set of credentials (like a username and password) to access multiple different applications and resources. This directly addresses the company's goal of reducing the number of logins employees must manage.
- RADIUS and TACACS+ are AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) protocols, primarily used for centralizing authentication for network access (like Wi-Fi or VPNs) or network device administration, respectively. They do not provide the seamless single-login experience across various applications that SSO offers.
- 802.1X is a port-based network access control (PNAC) standard used to authenticate devices before they are allowed to connect to a network. It is not used for authenticating users to applications.
Ask Bash
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What are the main benefits of using SSO in an organization?
How does SSO differ from protocols like RADIUS and TACACS+?
What role does 802.1X play in a network, and how is it different from SSO?
Which security control type is exemplified by organizational security policies and guidelines that direct the behavior of users and systems toward compliance?
Directive control
Preventive control
Corrective control
Detective control
Answer Description
Security policies, standards, and guidelines do not directly stop or detect attacks. Instead, they provide direction by defining required behaviors and rules. Because they set expectations and guide how people and systems should act, they are categorized as directive controls. Detective controls identify incidents after they occur, preventive controls stop incidents, and corrective controls restore normal operations.
Ask Bash
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What are examples of directive controls in cybersecurity?
How do directive controls differ from preventive controls?
Why is it important for organizations to implement directive controls?
After a security breach that resulted in data loss, which of the following is the BEST step to restore the affected systems to their operational state?
Use verified backups to restore affected systems
Wipe the drives and perform system replication from a similar environment
Re-image affected systems with the latest system images
Apply the latest security patches to affected systems
Answer Description
To correctly restore affected systems to their operational state after a breach, it is crucial to utilize verified backups. Verified backups have been checked for integrity and are free from the corruption or compromise that affected the original data. Using the latest system images would not be ideal as they might contain vulnerabilities that led to the breach. Applying the latest patches does not address the data loss issue. Simply wiping the drives could result in further data loss if no backup is available. Replication, while useful for high availability, may propagate the breach effects if not segregated and verified.
Ask Bash
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Why are verified backups critical in restoring systems after a breach?
What steps are involved in verifying the integrity of a backup?
When is re-imaging a system a better option than restoring from a backup?
Which of the following best exemplifies a technical control?
Installing firewall software on a network server
Establishing a policy requiring badge access to enter the facility
Deploying security awareness training for employees
Performing background checks on new hires
Answer Description
Installing or configuring a firewall is a technical control because it involves the use of technology, while other controls are related to people, processes or physical restrictions.
Ask Bash
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What are technical controls in cybersecurity?
How does a firewall work as a technical control?
What is the difference between technical controls and administrative controls?
Who is typically referred to as the individual whose personal data is processed by a controller or processor in a security compliance context?
Data Controller
Data Custodian
Data Processor
Data Subject
Answer Description
The term 'Data Subject' refers to the individual to whom the personal data belongs and who is the subject of that personal data. This person possesses certain rights in terms of privacy laws, such as the right to access, correct, and request the deletion of their personal data. The other terms provided do not accurately describe this individual in the context of data processing.
Ask Bash
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What rights does a data subject typically have under privacy laws?
Who are the main entities involved in data processing besides the data subject?
What is the difference between a Data Controller and a Data Custodian in data management?
A development team is building a CI/CD pipeline that must deploy the same build of an application to developers' laptops, an on-premises test cluster, and multiple public cloud providers. They need a lightweight, portable mechanism that bundles the application together with all required libraries so it runs identically everywhere. Which technology satisfies this requirement?
Containerization
Virtualization
Serverless computing
Microservices
Answer Description
Containerization enables developers to package applications along with all their dependencies into isolated units called containers. This approach ensures that the application runs consistently regardless of the environment, enhancing portability and security by isolating applications from one another. Virtualization, while also providing isolation, involves creating full virtual machines with their own operating systems, which is more resource-intensive. Microservices refer to an architectural style that structures an application as a collection of loosely coupled services, focusing on design rather than deployment. Serverless computing allows developers to build and run applications without managing the underlying infrastructure but does not involve packaging applications with dependencies for consistency across environments.
Ask Bash
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What is containerization in simple terms?
How is containerization different from virtualization?
What are some popular containerization tools?
Which hardware-based security solution is specifically designed to securely generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys for a wide variety of applications?
HSM
TPM
Secure Enclave
Key Management System
Answer Description
A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages digital keys, performs encryption and decryption functions for digital signatures, and provides strong authentication. HSMs are specifically designed for the secure generation, storage, and management of cryptographic keys, offering a higher level of security compared to software-based key management solutions. They are widely used in applications requiring high-level security, such as banking, government, and healthcare.
Ask Bash
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What is an HSM and how does it differ from a TPM?
What are some common use cases of HSMs in industries?
Why are HSMs considered more secure than software-based key management systems?
A company is reviewing their security controls for critical infrastructure and needs to decide on the deployment of a mechanism that should ensure maximum uptime. However, during a network outage or a device failure, they want the mechanism to prioritize network availability over strict security to maintain business operations. Which of the following configurations would BEST align with the company's requirements?
Implement a fail-open mechanism on security devices.
Deploy an additional layer of intrusion prevention systems.
Set all security devices to a fail-close setting.
Configure a high availability cluster for all critical systems.
Answer Description
A fail-open configuration is designed to allow traffic to pass through when the security device experiences a failure, such as a malfunction or a loss of power, thus ensuring that network availability is prioritized. While this might introduce a security risk by allowing potentially unsecured traffic during the failure event, it supports the company's requirement for maximum uptime. The other provided responses either incorrectly relate to device security postures not focused on availability (such as fail-close), or do not relate to failure modes directly affecting traffic (such as a high availability cluster, which is designed for redundancy but not specifically addressing the company's need for availability during a security device failure).
Ask Bash
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What is a fail-open mechanism?
How does fail-close differ from fail-open?
What is a high availability cluster, and why doesn’t it meet this requirement?
You have ordered a penetration test on the company's website from a third-party IT security consultant. Your web administration team has created a stand-alone test network to ensure the penetration test does not cause issues on the live website. Other than the IP address of the web server, you have not provided the penetration testers with any other information. What type of test best describes this scenario?
Stand-alone
White-box
Integration
Black-box
Answer Description
This type of penetration test is known as a black-box test. In this approach, the testers are given little to no prior information about the target system. For example, they are not provided with details like the web server type or access to the source code. Instead, the testers must perform reconnaissance to gather information and probe for vulnerabilities, simulating an attack from an external threat actor with no inside knowledge.
Ask Bash
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What is reconnaissance in a black-box test?
How does a black-box test differ from a white-box test?
Why is a stand-alone test network important in penetration testing?
Which type of security control is primarily designed to discourage potential attackers from attempting to breach an organization's defenses?
Preventive controls
Detective controls
Corrective controls
Deterrent controls
Answer Description
Deterrent controls are security measures that are put in place to discourage potential attackers from attempting to breach an organization's defenses. They work by making the target appear more difficult, time-consuming, or risky to attack. Security cameras are a prime example of a deterrent control because their presence can make potential intruders think twice about attempting to gain unauthorized access, as they know their actions may be recorded and used as evidence against them. Preventive controls aim to stop an incident from happening, detective controls identify incidents as they occur, and corrective controls are used to limit the damage after an incident.
Ask Bash
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What is the purpose of deterrent controls in security?
How are deterrent controls different from preventive controls?
Can deterrent controls work independently or are they used alongside other controls?
A security administrator is creating a document that provides non-mandatory recommendations and best practices for employees on how to securely handle sensitive company data. Which of the following control documents is the administrator creating?
Procedure
Policy
Standard
Guideline
Answer Description
The correct answer is a guideline. A security guideline is a document that provides recommendations and best practices; it is not mandatory. In contrast, a policy is a high-level statement of intent from management that is mandatory. A standard is a mandatory rule that supports a policy, often specifying technologies or configurations. A procedure is a detailed, step-by-step set of instructions for performing a specific task, which is also mandatory.
Ask Bash
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What is the primary difference between a guideline and a policy?
How do guidelines differ from standards?
In what scenarios would you typically use a guideline instead of a procedure?
When configuring a network appliance to view traffic without altering it, which device attribute should it have?
Tap/Monitor in active mode
Inline
Active
Passive
Answer Description
A passive device attribute allows the network appliance to observe traffic without interacting or making changes to it, enabling monitoring and analysis without affecting data flow. This contrasts with an active device, which is designed to interact with or change the traffic passing through it, performing actions such as blocking or modifying packets.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between a passive and active device in network monitoring?
How does a network tap differ from a passive device?
When should inline devices be used instead of passive devices?
Which term best describes an organization’s decision to undertake risks that offer a reasonable balance between potential benefits and potential harm, without significantly swaying towards either risk aversion or risk seeking?
Risk Mitigation
Conservative
Expansionary
Neutral
Answer Description
The term 'Neutral' is used to describe an organization's approach to risk appetite where they are neither aggressive in seeking out risks that may offer substantial rewards nor overly cautious to the point of hindering potential growth. This approach aims for a balance between the two, with decision making that is well-calibrated to engage with risks that offer a reasonable trade-off between potential benefits and potential harm. 'Expansionary' suggests an aggressive stance towards growth and assuming more risk, while 'Conservative' indicates a more cautious approach that avoids risks. 'Risk Mitigation' is a strategy to reduce the impact of risks, but it does not describe an appetite for risk.
Ask Bash
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What is risk appetite and how does it impact organizational decision-making?
How does a 'neutral' approach to risk differ from 'expansionary' and 'conservative' approaches?
How does 'risk mitigation' relate to risk appetite, and why is it not considered a type of risk preference?
As a Security Manager in charge of security awareness, you are designing a new training module to educate employees on identifying and handling security incidents. What key element should you prioritize to ensure that the module effectively enhances the employees' ability to act correctly in the event of an actual incident?
Incorporate practical, real-life scenarios that employees might encounter.
Keep the training as brief as possible to avoid taking up too much of the employees' time.
Focus primarily on the consequences and punishments for failing to adhere to security policies.
Emphasize the use of complex technical jargon to demonstrate the seriousness of security concepts.
Answer Description
Including real-life scenarios and examples in the training module is crucial as it allows employees to relate the training to their daily activities and better prepare them to recognize and manage potential incidents. These practical examples enhance the training's relevance and retention, ensuring employees are more likely to respond correctly. Excessive reliance on technical jargon may confuse employees rather than educate them. Brief training might not cover all necessary information, and focusing on punishment over education can create a culture of fear rather evenly-informed and proactive security stance.
Ask Bash
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Why are real-life scenarios effective for security training?
What are some examples of real-life scenarios in security training?
How should technical jargon be handled in security training?
During an investigation, which method ensures that the evidence collected remains admissible in court by documenting the control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of the digital evidence from the time of acquisition?
Legal hold
Acquisition
Chain of custody
Reporting
Answer Description
Chain of custody is a legal concept that refers to the chronological documentation or paper trail, showing the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical or electronic evidence. Maintaining the chain of custody is vital to ensure that the evidence can be trusted and is admissible in a court of law. If the chain of custody is broken or cannot be proven, the integrity of the evidence may be questioned, potentially rendering it inadmissible. Legal hold is a process that preserves all forms of relevant information when litigation is reasonably anticipated, which differs from ensuring the evidence admissibility. Both acquisition and reporting are steps within the digital forensics process, but they do not serve to maintain the integrity of the evidence through documentation like chain of custody does.
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Why is chain of custody important in legal investigations?
What are the key components of a chain of custody log?
How does chain of custody differ from legal hold?
A security analyst is developing documentation to standardize the response process for common security incidents. This documentation will outline specific steps, actions, and decision points for handling events like phishing attacks and malware infections. Which of the following is being created?
A risk register
A playbook
An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
A Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
Answer Description
A playbook is a document that provides a step-by-step guide for responding to a specific type of security incident, such as ransomware or a data breach. A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is an assessment used to identify critical business functions and determine the potential effects of their disruption. A risk register is a tool for documenting and tracking identified risks. An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a policy that defines the rules and constraints for how users may use an organization's resources.
Ask Bash
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What is the purpose of a playbook in cybersecurity?
How does a playbook differ from a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?
Why is a playbook more suitable for incident response than a risk register?
A systems administrator observes that every Friday afternoon, right after the stock market closes, a series of unauthorized transactions and excessive resource utilization occurs on a finance company's trading application server. What type of malware is most likely responsible for this recurring incident?
Worm
Trojan
Spyware
Logic bomb
Answer Description
A logic bomb is a type of malware that is designed to execute a malicious action when certain conditions are met, such as a specific time or event. The recurring nature of the incident every Friday suggests that it is triggered by a time-based event, characteristic of a logic bomb. Other types of malware like Trojans or worms do not have this behavior tied to a specific condition and typically continue to execute or propagate regardless of specific events or times.
Ask Bash
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What makes a logic bomb different from other types of malware?
How can systems administrators detect and prevent logic bombs?
Why is it important to address insider threats related to logic bombs?
Which statement about creating heat maps during a wireless site survey is TRUE?
Heat maps are necessary only for outdoor deployments, not for indoor wireless networks.
Heat maps are produced automatically by the wireless controller only after clients connect to the network.
Predictive modeling can generate accurate heat maps before the physical environment is fully built.
Heat maps can only be created after access points are installed and on-site signal readings are taken.
Answer Description
Predictive (virtual) site surveys use computer modeling and digital floor plans to estimate RF propagation and can generate heat maps before a building is finished or remodeled. Although these simulated heat maps must later be validated with an on-site survey, they are accurate enough for preliminary design, budgeting, and cabling plans. Therefore, heat-map creation does not always require the physical environment to be in its final state.
Ask Bash
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What is predictive modeling in wireless site surveys?
Why are heat maps important in wireless deployments?
What is the purpose of validating heat maps with on-site surveys?
Which of the following is a potential risk when relying heavily on automation for security operations?
Improved reaction time
Single point of failure
Automatic enforcement of configuration baselines
Standardized infrastructure configurations
Answer Description
While automation brings efficiency, consistency, and speed, it can also concentrate reliance on a single script, platform, or orchestration engine. If that component fails, the organization could lose critical security visibility and controls-a classic single point of failure. By contrast, improved reaction time, automatic enforcement of baselines, and standardized infrastructure configurations are typical benefits, not risks, of automation.
Ask Bash
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What is a single point of failure in cybersecurity?
How can organizations mitigate single points of failure in automated security operations?
What are the benefits of automation in security operations despite the risks?
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