CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Your company has issued laptops to its employees for remote work. During a routine security audit, you identify that these laptops come with pre-installed software from the manufacturer that is not being used by the employees. What concerns should you have regarding this software from a security perspective?
This software may contain vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers because they often go unmanaged and unpatched.
This software can take up disk space, but it does not pose any security concerns.
The employees may use this software regularly, which could lead to potential data leaks.
The software could be useful for productivity, hence poses no significant risk.
Answer Description
Pre-installed software that is not necessary for the user's activities-commonly called bloatware-can pose a security risk if it contains unpatched vulnerabilities. Because this software is often unmanaged, it can increase the device's attack surface. Attackers may exploit flaws in the unused software or its background services even if employees never actively launch the applications. Therefore, the main concern is the presence of potentially vulnerable code, not how frequently employees use the software.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are vulnerabilities in software?
What is bloatware and why is it a concern?
How can companies securely manage pre-installed software on devices?
What is the BEST initial approach when conducting a penetration test on an organization's network having no prior knowledge of their security posture, to ensure compliance with security testing protocols and minimize the risk of disruption?
Start with network mapping to determine the layout of the target infrastructure and systems.
Perform passive reconnaissance to collect information without interacting with the target system to avoid legal repercussions.
Initiate an active reconnaissance phase to immediately identify exploitable vulnerabilities in the organization's network.
Refer to the Rules of Engagement to define the scope and boundaries of the penetration test before starting any probing activities.
Answer Description
The best initial approach when performing penetration testing in an environment with no prior knowledge of the organization's security posture is to refer to the Rules of Engagement. These rules define the scope, boundaries, and methods approved for the testing, ensure legal and ethical compliance, and minimize the risk of unintended disruptions to business operations. Simply starting with passive or active reconnaissance without established engagement parameters could lead to legal issues, overstepping authorized boundaries, and potentially causing unintended harm to the target environment. Properly outlined Rules of Engagement ensure that the penetration test is performed ethically, legally, and within the parameters agreed upon by all parties involved.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the Rules of Engagement in penetration testing?
What is the significance of the initial approach in a penetration test?
What could happen if the Rules of Engagement are not followed during penetration testing?
A security analyst is reviewing the physical security controls for a new data center. To protect the main entrance from vehicle-based threats, the analyst recommends installing bollards. Which type of security control do bollards primarily represent?
Compensating
Preventive
Detective
Corrective
Answer Description
Bollards are a type of physical security control designed to prevent an incident from occurring. In this case, they physically block unauthorized vehicles from ramming the building's entrance, making them a preventive control. Detective controls (e.g., alarms, surveillance), corrective controls (e.g., disaster recovery plans), and compensating controls (e.g., using a different security measure when the primary one fails) serve different purposes.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are bollards and how do they work in security?
What are some other security measures that should be included with bollards?
What does a multi-layered security approach involve?
What term describes the practice of distributing IT services and infrastructure across multiple geographic locations to reduce risk of data loss and improve disaster recovery?
Data colocation
High availability
Load balancing
Geographic dispersion
Answer Description
Geographic dispersion refers to the strategic placement of IT resources, such as data centers and recovery sites, in various physical locations to minimize the risk associated with localized disasters. This dispersion helps organizations ensure continuity of operations and maintain availability of IT services in the event of an outage or disaster in one location. The incorrect answers offered either describe other concepts or do not specifically relate to the strategy of placing resources in diverse locations for resilience and recovery purposes.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the benefits of geographic dispersion for IT services?
How does geographic dispersion compare to data colocation?
What role does geographic dispersion play in high availability systems?
What process involves the collection of log data from various systems and services to centralize analysis and review?
Log aggregation
Scanning
Reporting
Alerting
Answer Description
Log aggregation is the correct answer because it involves gathering log data from multiple sources, such as servers, applications, and network devices, to centralize the analysis. This makes it easier to spot trends, identify potential security incidents, and ensure that important events are not overlooked amid the noise of isolated logs. Alerting, on the other hand, refers to the system's response to identified incidents, typically by notifying administrators. Scanning usually relates to the process of checking systems for vulnerabilities, and reporting is about presenting the findings of analyses in an informative manner, not the collection process itself.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some common sources of log data for aggregation?
How does log aggregation help in incident response?
What tools are commonly used for log aggregation?
Under industry-recognized change-management best practices, how should an IT operations team handle minor configuration adjustments-such as tweaking an application parameter or updating a log path-in order to maintain security and accountability?
Minor configuration changes may skip the change-management process as long as they are performed by senior administrators and recorded in personal notes.
Only emergency changes require documentation; routine or minor changes can be applied directly to production systems without formal review.
All configuration changes, including minor adjustments, must be documented and processed through the established change-management workflow, even if the review is expedited.
The change-management process is required only when introducing new hardware platforms; software configuration tweaks are exempt.
Answer Description
Best practice requires that every change to a production system be routed through the organization's documented change-management process. Even though minor or "standard" changes may follow a streamlined or pre-approved workflow, they must still be logged, evaluated for risk, and retained in change records so that the environment can be audited, problems traced, and rollbacks performed if necessary. Allowing any change-no matter how small-to bypass documentation undermines accountability and can introduce hidden vulnerabilities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the change management process?
Why is documentation important for minor configuration changes?
What could happen if changes are made without following the change management process?
What best describes a 'Recurring' process within risk management practices?
An action taken as needed, without a regular schedule
An ongoing operation without set intervals
A unique process that occurs once and is not intended to be repeated
An activity that is conducted at regular intervals
Answer Description
A 'Recurring' process refers to a routine or periodic activity that takes place at regular intervals. In the context of risk management, it pertains to the consistent reevaluation of potential risks to the organization to ensure that new and evolving threats are identified and managed effectively. It contrasts with 'Ad Hoc', which is done as needed, 'One-Time', which is done once and not repeated, and 'Continuous', which implies an ongoing process without set intervals.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are examples of recurring processes in risk management?
How do recurring processes differ from continuous processes?
Why is it important to have recurring processes in risk management?
Which of the given options is a hashing algorithm that creates a 128 bit fixed output?
SHA2
MD5
RIP128
SHA1
Answer Description
MD5 (Message Digest 5) creates a 128 bit fixed output. SHA1 creates 160 bit outputs, SHA2 creates 256 bit outputs and RIP128 is a thing we made up that sounds pretty cool.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is MD5 and how is it used in security?
Why is hashing important in cybersecurity?
What are the differences between SHA-1 and SHA-2?
A company has a disaster recovery strategy that mandates regular simulation exercises to validate recovery steps and procedures. The main goal of these simulation exercises is to safeguard against prolonged outages and data loss in the event of a real disaster. What is the prime reason for conducting these simulation exercises?
To establish a more secure authentication mechanism for remote access during a disaster recovery scenario.
To evaluate the financial implications and potential savings of switching to a cloud-based disaster recovery solution.
To determine more efficient ways of encrypting backup data to reduce restoration times.
To validate and improve the procedures outlined in the disaster recovery plan, ensuring they are effective and practical.
Answer Description
The primary purpose of conducting simulation exercises is to validate the recovery process defined in the disaster recovery plan. It ensures that, in the event of a real disaster, the organization can recover critical systems and data within the predetermined timeframes (recovery time objectives) and with acceptable data loss (recovery point objectives). These exercises reveal weaknesses that can be corrected proactively, avoiding substantial operational impacts during an actual emergency. While encryption improvements, authentication changes, and financial evaluations may be worthwhile, they are not the core reason for running simulation tests.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are recovery time objectives (RTO) and recovery point objectives (RPO)?
What types of simulation exercises can companies conduct for disaster recovery?
How often should companies conduct simulation exercises for disaster recovery?
An organization is designing a high-availability web application that must handle fluctuating workloads and ensure minimal downtime during peak usage. Which of the following strategies BEST addresses the compute considerations for achieving high availability in this scenario?
Deploying redundant power supplies for each server
Scheduling regular maintenance during off-peak hours
Implementing load balancing to distribute traffic across multiple servers
Utilizing real-time data replication to a standby server
Answer Description
Implementing load balancing distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers, effectively managing compute resources to handle fluctuating workloads. This improves both availability and scalability, ensuring the application remains responsive during peak usage times. While data replication to a standby server aids in recovery, it doesn't directly manage compute resources. Scheduling maintenance during off-peak hours minimizes disruption but doesn't address real-time workload management. Deploying redundant power supplies enhances power availability but doesn't handle compute load distribution.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is load balancing and how does it work?
What is high availability and why is it important?
What are redundant power supplies and how do they contribute to system reliability?
Which of the following BEST describes the main purpose of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
It encrypts data to prevent unauthorized access during transmission.
It monitors network traffic for suspicious activities and alerts administrators.
It blocks unauthorized access by filtering incoming network traffic.
It provides detailed reports of system performance for auditing purposes.
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is designed to monitor network or system activities for malicious actions or policy violations. Its primary purpose is to detect suspicious activities and generate alerts so that administrators can take appropriate action. Unlike preventive controls that block or prevent attacks, IDS serves as a detective control, identifying potential threats without necessarily stopping them.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the different types of Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)?
How does an IDS differentiate between normal and suspicious activities?
What should administrators do when an IDS alerts them about suspicious activity?
If an intruder smashes the back window of a house and gains entry, triggering an alarm due to motion detection, what category of security measure does the alarm system fall under?
Deterrent
Corrective
Preventive
Detective
Answer Description
A security alarm system of this nature is considered a detective control because it detects the presence of an intruder and sounds an alarm.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are detective controls in security?
How do detective controls differ from preventive controls?
Can you give examples of other types of controls?
What type of security device deployment allows network traffic to flow through it, potentially blocking or modifying packets if malicious activity is detected?
Tap device
Inline device
Monitoring device
Passive sensor
Answer Description
An inline security device is placed directly in the path of the network traffic. It has the ability to actively block, permit, or modify the traffic passing through it based on the security policies in place, similar to how a checkpoint can stop or allow traffic in a roadway. In contrast, a tap (test access point) or monitoring device connects to a network segment but does not directly interact with the traffic flow; it merely duplicates the data for analysis, thus incapable of affecting the original traffic.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of inline security devices?
How does an inline device compare to a tap device?
What is the importance of security policies in the operation of inline devices?
Which of the following best describes the core principle of the Zero Trust Model?
Enforcing multi-factor authentication for all access requests
Granting least privilege access to all users
Trusting all users and devices within the network perimeter
Assuming no user, device, or network traffic should be trusted by default
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the Zero Trust Model assumes that no user, device, or network traffic should be trusted by default, even if it originates from within the network perimeter. This is the fundamental principle of the Zero Trust approach, which shifts away from the traditional "trust but verify" model to a "never trust, always verify" mindset. The other answers, while related to security concepts, do not accurately capture the essence of the Zero Trust Model. Least privilege access and multi-factor authentication are important security practices, but they are not the core defining characteristics of the Zero Trust approach.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does it mean to 'never trust, always verify' in the context of the Zero Trust Model?
How does the Zero Trust Model improve security compared to traditional models?
What role does multi-factor authentication (MFA) play in a Zero Trust environment?
After applying a security patch, an administrator notes that the patching process completed without any reported errors. What is the BEST next step to verify that the underlying vulnerability has actually been eliminated?
Monitor SIEM alerts for seven days; if no new alerts are generated, assume the vulnerability is resolved.
Initiate a targeted rescan of the system with the organization's vulnerability scanner to confirm remediation.
Wait until the next scheduled quarterly enterprise-wide scan to see if the vulnerability reappears.
Rely on the patch management tool's success log and close the ticket without additional action.
Answer Description
Even when a patching job reports success, the vulnerability might persist because the patch failed to install on every file, did not reach all affected hosts, or introduced new issues. Running a follow-up vulnerability scan (or targeted rescan of the affected system) provides objective evidence that the vulnerability identifier (e.g., CVE) no longer appears and that no additional findings were introduced, thereby closing the remediation loop.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is a rescan necessary after applying a patch?
What are vulnerability scanners and how do they work?
What could happen if a rescan is skipped after patching?
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