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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

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  • Questions: 15
  • Time: Unlimited
  • Included Topics:
    General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 15

Your company has issued laptops to its employees for remote work. During a routine security audit, you identify that these laptops come with pre-installed software from the manufacturer that is not being used by the employees. What concerns should you have regarding this software from a security perspective?

  • This software may contain vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers because they often go unmanaged and unpatched.

  • This software can take up disk space, but it does not pose any security concerns.

  • The employees may use this software regularly, which could lead to potential data leaks.

  • The software could be useful for productivity, hence poses no significant risk.

Question 2 of 15

What is the BEST initial approach when conducting a penetration test on an organization's network having no prior knowledge of their security posture, to ensure compliance with security testing protocols and minimize the risk of disruption?

  • Start with network mapping to determine the layout of the target infrastructure and systems.

  • Perform passive reconnaissance to collect information without interacting with the target system to avoid legal repercussions.

  • Initiate an active reconnaissance phase to immediately identify exploitable vulnerabilities in the organization's network.

  • Refer to the Rules of Engagement to define the scope and boundaries of the penetration test before starting any probing activities.

Question 3 of 15

A security analyst is reviewing the physical security controls for a new data center. To protect the main entrance from vehicle-based threats, the analyst recommends installing bollards. Which type of security control do bollards primarily represent?

  • Compensating

  • Preventive

  • Detective

  • Corrective

Question 4 of 15

What term describes the practice of distributing IT services and infrastructure across multiple geographic locations to reduce risk of data loss and improve disaster recovery?

  • Data colocation

  • High availability

  • Load balancing

  • Geographic dispersion

Question 5 of 15

What process involves the collection of log data from various systems and services to centralize analysis and review?

  • Log aggregation

  • Scanning

  • Reporting

  • Alerting

Question 6 of 15

Under industry-recognized change-management best practices, how should an IT operations team handle minor configuration adjustments-such as tweaking an application parameter or updating a log path-in order to maintain security and accountability?

  • Minor configuration changes may skip the change-management process as long as they are performed by senior administrators and recorded in personal notes.

  • Only emergency changes require documentation; routine or minor changes can be applied directly to production systems without formal review.

  • All configuration changes, including minor adjustments, must be documented and processed through the established change-management workflow, even if the review is expedited.

  • The change-management process is required only when introducing new hardware platforms; software configuration tweaks are exempt.

Question 7 of 15

What best describes a 'Recurring' process within risk management practices?

  • An action taken as needed, without a regular schedule

  • An ongoing operation without set intervals

  • A unique process that occurs once and is not intended to be repeated

  • An activity that is conducted at regular intervals

Question 8 of 15

Which of the given options is a hashing algorithm that creates a 128 bit fixed output?

  • SHA2

  • MD5

  • RIP128

  • SHA1

Question 9 of 15

A company has a disaster recovery strategy that mandates regular simulation exercises to validate recovery steps and procedures. The main goal of these simulation exercises is to safeguard against prolonged outages and data loss in the event of a real disaster. What is the prime reason for conducting these simulation exercises?

  • To establish a more secure authentication mechanism for remote access during a disaster recovery scenario.

  • To evaluate the financial implications and potential savings of switching to a cloud-based disaster recovery solution.

  • To determine more efficient ways of encrypting backup data to reduce restoration times.

  • To validate and improve the procedures outlined in the disaster recovery plan, ensuring they are effective and practical.

Question 10 of 15

An organization is designing a high-availability web application that must handle fluctuating workloads and ensure minimal downtime during peak usage. Which of the following strategies BEST addresses the compute considerations for achieving high availability in this scenario?

  • Deploying redundant power supplies for each server

  • Scheduling regular maintenance during off-peak hours

  • Implementing load balancing to distribute traffic across multiple servers

  • Utilizing real-time data replication to a standby server

Question 11 of 15

Which of the following BEST describes the main purpose of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

  • It encrypts data to prevent unauthorized access during transmission.

  • It monitors network traffic for suspicious activities and alerts administrators.

  • It blocks unauthorized access by filtering incoming network traffic.

  • It provides detailed reports of system performance for auditing purposes.

Question 12 of 15

If an intruder smashes the back window of a house and gains entry, triggering an alarm due to motion detection, what category of security measure does the alarm system fall under?

  • Deterrent

  • Corrective

  • Preventive

  • Detective

Question 13 of 15

What type of security device deployment allows network traffic to flow through it, potentially blocking or modifying packets if malicious activity is detected?

  • Tap device

  • Inline device

  • Monitoring device

  • Passive sensor

Question 14 of 15

Which of the following best describes the core principle of the Zero Trust Model?

  • Enforcing multi-factor authentication for all access requests

  • Granting least privilege access to all users

  • Trusting all users and devices within the network perimeter

  • Assuming no user, device, or network traffic should be trusted by default

Question 15 of 15

After applying a security patch, an administrator notes that the patching process completed without any reported errors. What is the BEST next step to verify that the underlying vulnerability has actually been eliminated?

  • Monitor SIEM alerts for seven days; if no new alerts are generated, assume the vulnerability is resolved.

  • Initiate a targeted rescan of the system with the organization's vulnerability scanner to confirm remediation.

  • Wait until the next scheduled quarterly enterprise-wide scan to see if the vulnerability reappears.

  • Rely on the patch management tool's success log and close the ticket without additional action.