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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

You are a security analyst and have networking monitoring solutions in place to detect strange or potentially malicious traffic. One of these solutions has sent an alert saying it detected outgoing network traffic from the company's network that was routing to a well-known malicious endpoint. Of the following options which is the most likely to be the cause of this traffic?

  • An infected server or user machine is attempting to contact a command-and-control server

  • A colleague on your team is conducting a pentest

  • A hacker is probing the company network from the outside

  • A user has attached confidential materials to an outgoing email

Question 2 of 20

A technology company is planning to outsource its customer data management to a third-party vendor. Before sharing any sensitive information, the company wants to ensure that the vendor is legally obligated to maintain the confidentiality of the data. Which document should the company require the vendor to sign?

  • MOU

  • NDA

  • MSA

  • SLA

Question 3 of 20

Malicious activity has been affecting various systems on your network. You want to put a system in place that can monitor network traffic and attempt to take defensive action when network intrusions are detected. Which of the following should you use?

  • HIPS

  • NIDS

  • HIDS

  • NIPS

Question 4 of 20

As a security architect, you are evaluating the implementation of network appliances that should be primarily utilized for the identification of malfeasance occurring within the internal company network. In this scenario, which of the following solutions strategically placed within the network would best suit the continuous observation and timely reporting of anomalous activities without actively interfering with data flow?

  • Jump Server

  • IDS

  • IPS

  • Unified Threat Management

Question 5 of 20

Which type of security control is primarily designed to discourage potential attackers from attempting to breach an organization's defenses?

  • Detective controls

  • Deterrent controls

  • Preventive controls

  • Corrective controls

Question 6 of 20

To support a rapidly expanding remote workforce, a company needs a dedicated device that can terminate and manage thousands of simultaneous VPN tunnels while providing strong authentication, encryption, and centralized policy enforcement. Which network appliance should the security team deploy?

  • Content-filtering gateway

  • Intrusion detection and prevention system (IDS/IPS)

  • VPN concentrator

  • Load balancer

Question 7 of 20

A financial organization operates a database that processes transactions worth millions of dollars each hour. The database is backed up every hour on the hour. Given a proposed change to increase data analytics granularity, management requests a reassessment of the backup strategy to evaluate if the current 1-hour RPO is still appropriate. Which of the following factors is MOST relevant when re-evaluating the appropriateness of the current RPO?

  • The financial impact of data loss given the increased granularity of transactions

  • The total storage capacity available for backups on the current infrastructure

  • The average time taken to perform a full backup during peak hours

  • The age of the current backup hardware infrastructure

Question 8 of 20

During an organization's change management process, a newly proposed security measure is about to be implemented. Which of the following actions would BEST ensure that the change aligns with the organization's security policies and operational impact is minimized?

  • Execute a series of tests to validate the functionality of the proposed measure.

  • Enforce strict version control to track the changes being made.

  • Conduct a thorough impact analysis to evaluate the effects on current operations and compliance with security guidelines.

  • Secure approval from top management to proceed with the implementation.

  • Immediately update all documentation to reflect the proposed changes.

  • Develop a comprehensive backout plan in case the implementation fails.

Question 9 of 20

A security architect is designing a new enterprise network. A key requirement from the business stakeholders is that operations must be able to continue with minimal downtime and data loss, even if a primary system is compromised during a security incident. Which security principle BEST describes this requirement?

  • Resilience

  • Defense in depth

  • Least privilege

  • Zero Trust

Question 10 of 20

Which component is built into a computing device to provide secure generation, storage, and use of cryptographic keys?

  • Trusted Platform Module

  • Biometric Sensor

  • Secure Boot

  • Hardware Security Module

Question 11 of 20

During the offboarding of an employee, which action MOST effectively reduces the risk of unauthorized access to the organization's information systems?

  • Permit the former employee to keep their physical badge for occasional on-site visits.

  • Immediately disable the employee's system accounts and collect all badges and keys.

  • Wait until the next scheduled quarterly access review to remove the employee's accounts.

  • Leave network credentials active for 30 days to facilitate knowledge transfer.

Question 12 of 20

During an incident response investigation, analysts discover Cyrillic comments and Russian-language debug paths embedded in the source code of malware used in a sophisticated breach. Which of the following BEST explains why this evidence alone cannot be taken as definitive proof that a Russian government agency conducted the attack?

  • Threat actors can deliberately embed linguistic and cultural markers as false flags to mislead investigators.

  • Russian is the default language in most compiler environments, so these markers are inserted automatically during compilation.

  • Nation-state attackers always encrypt their production builds, so any readable strings must come from reuse by third-party developers.

  • Open-source libraries automatically remove national language clues, so variable names are never reliable for attribution.

Question 13 of 20

A financial services company, to comply with the PCI DSS mandate, performs a vulnerability scan on its cardholder data environment every three months. This activity is designed to regularly identify new threats and ensure ongoing compliance. Which type of risk assessment process does this scheduled quarterly scan best represent?

  • Recurring

  • Ad hoc

  • One-time

  • Continuous

Question 14 of 20

Your employer has a large team of software developers with constantly changing codebases for dozens of internal applications. As a part of change control any code changes go through an automated vulnerability scanning process which checks for known vulnerabilities in frameworks, programming languages, dependencies and the code itself. Due to business pressure these scans have been largely ignored and there are currently over a thousand issues found by the automated scanning. You are tasked with working with the developers and remedying 100% of the issues. What should you do next?

  • Implement an approval step for all code changes that requires no security issues prior to updates

  • Identify any false positives to reduce the number of items to remediate

  • Stop all deployments, code changes and updates until the vulnerabilities are fixed

  • Organize the vulnerabilities by criticality and begin planning for solutions for the most critical vulnerabilities first

Question 15 of 20

A corporation has determined that the likelihood of a data breach in their system is once every five years. The estimated financial damage from a single breach event is $3 million. As the Security Analyst tasked with calculating the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) for the data breach risk, which of the following correctly calculates the ALE?

  • $600,000

  • $1.5 million

  • $3 million

  • $15 million

Question 16 of 20

A company is experiencing compliance issues due to inconsistent application of security settings across its servers. To address this, management has decided to implement secure baselines for all server configurations. What is the MOST effective action to ensure all servers adhere to the established secure baseline?

  • Provide training for IT staff on the importance of secure server configurations.

  • Deploy configuration management tools to ensure secure settings.

  • Conduct manual reviews of server configurations on a quarterly basis.

  • Establish regularly scheduled security updates for all servers.

Question 17 of 20

An organization is decommissioning several servers containing a mix of hard disk drives (HDDs) and solid-state drives (SSDs). According to security policy, all data on the drives must be rendered completely unrecoverable before the drives are repurposed for a non-sensitive project. Which of the following processes BEST achieves this goal for both types of drives?

  • Sanitization

  • Degaussing

  • Encryption

  • Formatting

Question 18 of 20

What term is used to describe a fraudulent practice where an attacker uses voice communication, often through VoIP, to deceive individuals into providing personal, financial, or other sensitive information?

  • Whaling

  • Smishing

  • Vishing

  • Pharming

Question 19 of 20

A company is planning to integrate their authentication processes with a third-party service provider to allow employees to use a single set of credentials across both systems. To enhance the user experience and provide secure access to the services offered by the partner, which solution would be the BEST to implement?

  • Adopting a web authentication standard

  • Using a central access policy service to manage application access across entities

  • Creating additional user credentials for each employee within the third-party service provider's system

  • Implementing a federated identity management system

Question 20 of 20

Security professionals often advise against jailbreaking (iOS) or rooting (Android) a corporate-owned mobile device. Which of the following best explains why this practice is considered a significant security risk?

  • It disables built-in code-signing and sandbox protections, allowing unvetted apps to run with elevated privileges.

  • It automatically enables full-disk encryption by default, making user data inaccessible to attackers.

  • It ensures the device continues to receive manufacturer security patches sooner than stock devices.

  • It forces the device to install apps exclusively from the official app store, reducing exposure to malware.