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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A security analyst reviews an incident report detailing that an attacker, after compromising a guest virtual machine, exploited a flaw in the hypervisor. This action allowed the attacker to gain unauthorized access to the host operating system and other VMs on the same physical server. Which of the following vulnerability types does this incident describe?

  • VM escape

  • Buffer overflow

  • Firmware compromise

  • SQL injection

Question 2 of 20

A company is drafting a security policy for its BYOD program. The draft states that employees' personal mobile devices must be secured using only the device's built-in biometric authentication, such as a fingerprint or face scan. A security analyst is asked to review the policy. Which of the following is the BEST reason for the analyst to recommend against this policy?

  • Relying on biometrics leads to high battery consumption on mobile devices.

  • Biometric authentication is a single factor that can be bypassed or spoofed, leaving the device vulnerable.

  • Biometric authentication is not supported by most mobile device management (MDM) platforms.

  • Users often find biometric authentication less convenient than a traditional password.

Question 3 of 20

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of directive controls in a security context?

  • To provide guidance and instructions on maintaining security

  • To implement and manage security technologies

  • To discourage potential attackers from targeting the organization

  • To detect and respond to security incidents after they occur

Question 4 of 20

An administrator is tasked with enhancing the password policy to protect against unauthorized attempts to guess user credentials. Which of the following would be the BEST method to mitigate the risk of these types of attacks?

  • Increase the minimum password length requirement to 16 characters

  • Set up alerts to monitor accounts for a high number of failed login attempts

  • Implement an account lockout policy after three unsuccessful login attempts

  • Require users to change their password every 30 days

Question 5 of 20

Which solution aggregates logs and other security data from various hardware and software systems in an organization to assist in identifying and managing potential security incidents?

  • Data Loss Prevention system

  • Intrusion Detection System

  • Network Management with Simple Network Management Protocol traps

  • Security Information and Event Management system

Question 6 of 20

What type of malware typically encrypts an organization's data and demands payment for the decryption key?

  • Virus

  • Worm

  • Trojan

  • Ransomware

Question 7 of 20

Administrators at a financial institution have noticed that its transaction processing application terminates unexpectedly whenever excessively long strings of characters are entered into the input fields. Which vulnerability might be the most likely cause of this application behavior?

  • SQL Injection

  • Directory Traversal

  • Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

  • Buffer Overflow

Question 8 of 20

Your company's data center experienced a critical server failure that disrupted operations for the e-commerce platform. As part of the business continuity plan, what metric should be used to determine the maximum tolerable duration of the disruption before significant losses occur?

  • Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)

  • Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

  • Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

  • Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)

Question 9 of 20

A developer allocates a 32-byte character array to store a username but does not validate the length of user input. An attacker submits 128 characters, causing data to be written past the end of the array and overwriting adjacent memory addresses. Which type of vulnerability is the attacker exploiting?

  • Buffer overflow

  • SQL injection

  • Directory traversal

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS)

Question 10 of 20

An administrator needs to securely access and manage servers located in an isolated, high-security network segment. To minimize the attack surface, direct administrative access from the general corporate network is prohibited. Which of the following should be used to provide a controlled and monitored entry point for this purpose?

  • Load balancer

  • VPN concentrator

  • Proxy server

  • Jump server

Question 11 of 20

A network administrator is configuring a new file server. The goal is to simplify permissions by creating groups such as 'Marketing', 'Developers', and 'Executives'. Each user will be assigned to one or more of these groups, and their access to files and folders will be determined solely by their group memberships. Which access control model is the administrator implementing?

  • Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

  • Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

  • Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

  • Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

Question 12 of 20

What best describes the significance of an expedited reaction time during an incident response?

  • It minimizes the window of opportunity for attackers, reducing potential damage

  • It increases the time available for attackers to spread to other network segments

  • It allows attackers more time to remain undetected within the network

  • It requires additional resources to be spent on public relations and communication strategies

Question 13 of 20

During a quarterly strategy meeting, senior leadership agrees to undertake a series of high-budget R&D projects and enter two new international markets within the next 12 months. Management acknowledges that these moves could significantly increase financial and regulatory exposure but believes the possible returns justify the added uncertainty. Which risk-appetite classification best describes this stance?

  • Conservative risk appetite

  • Risk avoidance

  • Neutral risk appetite

  • Expansionary risk appetite

Question 14 of 20

An employee in a financial institution accidentally visited a website by mistyping the URL of a popular financial news portal. Subsequently, the employee reported that their workstation displayed unusual behavior, such as the browser opening on its own and displaying advertisements. The IT security team suspects a security incident through domain impersonation. What is the likely method used by the threat actor to compromise the employee's workstation?

  • Typosquatting

  • Domain kiting

  • Domain slamming

  • Phishing attempt through a deceptive email

Question 15 of 20

During an organization's security policy review meeting, it was observed that there is currently no formal policy pertaining to the acceptable use of organizational assets and network resources. As part of establishing robust security governance within the company, which of the following policies should be proposed and implemented first to address this issue?

  • Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) Policy

  • Disaster Recovery Policy

  • Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

  • Change Management Policy

Question 16 of 20

A junior security administrator has been tasked with recommending solutions to prevent unauthorized individuals from physically entering a company's new sensitive data center. The administrator is considering options such as biometric scanners, mantraps, and security guards. Which category of security controls do these solutions fall under?

  • Perimeter controls

  • Physical controls

  • Logical controls

  • Administrative controls

Question 17 of 20

A procurement specialist is drafting a request for proposal (RFP) to acquire a cloud-based HR application that will store sensitive employee information. According to best practice for the acquisition/procurement process, why is it critical to embed explicit security requirements in the RFP and contract rather than waiting until after the system goes live?

  • To ensure security controls are integrated into the design and contractual obligations from the beginning, reducing overall risks and retrofit costs

  • To merely comply with external audit requirements, with minimal focus on actual security postures

  • To avoid the need for any further security assessments or monitoring once the system is deployed

  • To transfer the responsibility for security entirely from the organization to the external vendor

Question 18 of 20

During a security operations review, a team lead proposes automating routine incident-ticket creation and baseline-enforcement scripts. The chief information security officer asks what primary benefit this automation will bring to day-to-day security workflows. Which of the following benefits best addresses the CISO's question?

  • Efficiency/time saving

  • Guaranteed cost reduction

  • Standardized risk spread throughout the organization

  • Reduction of complexity

Question 19 of 20

A banking application verifies a user's account balance before processing a withdrawal. However, due to a delay between the balance check and the withdrawal transaction, an attacker manages to initiate multiple withdrawals before the balance is updated, resulting in an overdraft. What type of vulnerability does this scenario illustrate?

  • SQL injection flaw due to improper query handling.

  • Brute force attack targeting user authentication mechanisms.

  • Cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerability in the input fields.

  • Race condition allowing exploitation of timing gaps between operations.

Question 20 of 20

During a risk assessment it was concluded that the value of an asset was less than the cost of the security control needed to protect it from an identified risk. Because of this, it has been decided not to use the control but still utilize the asset. What type of risk management strategy is being used?

  • Mitigation

  • Avoidance

  • Acceptance

  • Transference