CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-90 questions and set a time limit.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Objectives:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
Establishing a dedicated committee to oversee the development and enforcement of information security policies, standards, and procedures is unnecessary if the organization already has a skilled IT department.
True
False
Answer Description
The correct answer is that this statement is false. Even with a skilled IT department, establishing a dedicated committee for overseeing information security is important because it ensures that there is specialized focus and governance over security matters that may be outside the everyday functions of the IT department. Committees bring together multiple stakeholders and perspectives, ensuring a broader and more complete oversight of the security program. Additionally, committees may include members not part of the IT department, such as legal, HR, and executive leadership, who can provide essential insight and decision-making capabilities that are crucial for effective security governance.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important to have a dedicated committee for information security?
What roles should members of the information security committee have?
What are the risks of not having a dedicated information security committee?
During a routine audit, your security team has discovered an unauthorized active directory tool being used by the marketing department to synchronize contact information across platforms. The team suspects that this is a case of Shadow IT. What is the PRIMARY risk associated with this discovery?
Increased IT budget due to additional user licenses required for the unauthorized tool
Security breaches due to unauthorized applications bypassing organizational security processes
Decreased usage of IT-approved communication tools
Increased productivity and efficiency within the marketing department
Answer Description
The primary risk associated with Shadow IT is the potential for security breaches due to the use of unauthorized applications or systems that have not been vetted by the organization's security protocols. These tools might not be compliant with the organization’s security policies, may not be regularly patched or updated, and could lead to the exposure of sensitive data.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is Shadow IT?
How can unauthorized applications lead to security breaches?
What steps can organizations take to mitigate the risks associated with Shadow IT?
A medium-sized enterprise has decided to implement a comprehensive disaster recovery plan. Given the critical nature of their transactional database that receives updates nearly every minute, which of the following backup frequencies would best balance the need for up-to-date data restoration capabilities with resource utilization?
Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups
Full backups every 24 hours only
Differential backups every 4 hours without scheduled full backups
Full backups at the end of every week
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Incremental backups every 2 hours with daily full backups'. This approach efficiently balances the need to maintain recent data save points to minimize loss in the event of a system failure while utilizing resources effectively. Incremental backups save changes since the last full or incremental backup, reducing the volume of data that needs to be copied and the time required for each subsequent backup. Daily full backups ensure that there is always a recent complete copy of data to restore from, while the frequent incremental backups capture the ongoing changes.
Ask Bash
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What are incremental backups and how do they work?
What is the purpose of a full backup?
What are the differences between incremental and differential backups?
Biometrics is an example of which multi-factor authentication factor?
Something you have
Somewhere you are
Something you know
Something you are
Answer Description
Biometrics include things like fingerprints, retinas and palm veins. These are all considered “something you are.”
Ask Bash
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What are some common types of biometric authentication?
How does biometric authentication compare to other authentication methods?
Why is biometric authentication considered 'something you are'?
All organizations operating within a country are subject to that nation's information security laws and regulations, regardless of the organization's country of origin or the location of its headquarters.
True
False
Answer Description
The correct answer is True. Organizations must comply with the national laws and regulations of the countries in which they operate. This applies even if the organization is foreign or headquartered in a different country. Compliance is mandatory for legal operation within a nation's boundaries, and failure to adhere to these laws can result in legal penalties, fines, sanctions, or other consequences. National compliance ensures that organizations align with the country's standards for data protection, privacy, and information security, based on legislative frameworks that may include data breach notification requirements, data residency stipulations, and industry-specific regulations.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of information security laws that organizations must comply with?
What could happen if an organization fails to comply with these information security laws?
How do organizations ensure compliance with different countries' information security laws?
Which of the following BEST describes the main purpose of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
It monitors network traffic for suspicious activities and alerts administrators.
It encrypts data to prevent unauthorized access during transmission.
It provides detailed reports of system performance for auditing purposes.
It blocks unauthorized access by filtering incoming network traffic.
Answer Description
An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is designed to monitor network or system activities for malicious actions or policy violations. Its primary purpose is to detect suspicious activities and generate alerts so that administrators can take appropriate action. Unlike preventive controls that block or prevent attacks, IDS serves as a detective control, identifying potential threats without necessarily stopping them.
Ask Bash
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What are the different types of Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)?
How does an IDS differentiate between normal and suspicious activities?
What should administrators do when an IDS alerts them about suspicious activity?
An insider threat is more likely to be driven by revenge than by philosophical or political beliefs.
False
True
Answer Description
Insider threats are often motivated by personal reasons, which can include dissatisfaction with the employer, a desire for revenge against the organization, or personal gain. While insider threats can have a variety of motivations, the betrayal is usually tied to personal grievances or financial incentives, making revenge a more common motivator compared to philosophical or political beliefs. However, it is not unheard of for insider threats to act on such beliefs, but these cases are less frequent and typically tied to hacktivism, which is more characteristic of external threat actors rather than internal personnel.
Ask Bash
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What are some common reasons behind insider threats?
What is hacktivism and how does it relate to insider threats?
What preventative measures can organizations take against insider threats?
Your employer has a large team of software developers with constantly changing codebases for dozens of internal applications. As a part of change control any code changes go through an automated vulnerability scanning process which checks for known vulnerabilities in frameworks, programming languages, dependencies and the code itself. Due to business pressure these scans have been largely ignored and there are currently over a thousand issues found by the automated scanning. You are tasked with working with the developers and remedying 100% of the issues. What should you do next?
Stop all deployments, code changes and updates until the vulnerabilities are fixed
Organize the vulnerabilities by criticality and begin planning for solutions for the most critical vulnerabilities first
Identify any false positives to reduce the number of items to remediate
Implement an approval step for all code changes that requires no security issues prior to updates
Answer Description
In this scenario the best option for next steps is to organize the vulnerabilities by criticality. Some may be very important and represent significant risk, while others may be false positive or very minor issues. Most scanning solutions will have this information readily available. There is no way to identify false positives without going through each and every one, and halting all code changes would likely cause major disruptions to the business. The logical next step is to begin planning and focus on the worst issues first.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are false positives in vulnerability scanning?
What does it mean to organize vulnerabilities by criticality?
Why is it important to plan remediation for vulnerabilities?
A company is looking to assign the responsibility of implementing encryption on sensitive data as required by the Information Security Policy. Who should be designated to ensure that the technical controls are configured in accordance with the policy requirements?
Data Custodian/Steward
Data Controller
Data Owner
Auditor
Answer Description
Custodians, also known as stewards, are responsible for the day-to-day maintenance and implementation of the security controls over assets based on the policies and guidelines set forth by the organization. While an owner may define the policy for data protection, it is the custodian's role to enforce and implement these policies through technical means, such as configuring and applying encryption to sensitive data. The data owner is typically a senior-level executive who defines what level of protection is required for the data but does not directly manage the security mechanisms. The controller is responsible for making decisions about the processing of the data, and auditors are responsible for reviewing the adherence to policies and regulations, not implementing security measures.
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What are the key responsibilities of a Data Custodian?
How does the role of a Data Owner differ from that of a Data Custodian?
What is the role of an Auditor in information security?
Your organization is handling sensitive government contracts and must ensure that information related to these projects is guarded against unauthorized physical access. In accordance with data classification policies, which of the following is the BEST way to handle such data?
Store the data in a physically secure location and enforce strict access controls
Institute policies for secure disposal of printouts and storage media containing the data
Encrypt all data and frequently change encryption keys
Enable detailed logging of all access to the data for audit purposes
Answer Description
Storing information with a 'Restricted' classification in a secure, access-controlled environment ensures that only authorized personnel with the necessary clearance or permissions have access to that data. Keep in mind the question is regarding physical access to the data. While encryption, logging, and secure disposal are important for the overall security posture, they do not inherently restrict access to the data to the appropriate individuals.
Ask Bash
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What are access controls and why are they important?
What does it mean to store data in a physically secure location?
What are data classification policies and how do they impact data handling?
When configuring a security device to ensure that, in the event of a failure, it will maintain a state that prevents traffic from passing through it, which mode should be used?
Fail-safe
Fail-open
Fail-closed
Fail-secure
Answer Description
Fail-closed mode is used in security devices to ensure that if the device fails, it does not allow any traffic through, thereby maintaining the security posture by default. This contrasts with fail-open mode, where the device would allow all traffic through in the event of a failure, potentially compromising security.
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What are the main differences between fail-closed and fail-open modes?
What are some scenarios where fail-closed mode is essential?
Can other security measures work in conjunction with fail-closed mode?
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of directive controls in a security context?
To detect and respond to security incidents after they occur
To implement and manage security technologies
To discourage potential attackers from targeting the organization
To provide guidance and instructions on maintaining security
Answer Description
Directive controls are designed to direct the actions of individuals or systems within an organization. They provide guidance and instructions on how to maintain security and comply with established policies. Examples of directive controls include security policies and guidelines that outline acceptable behaviors, procedures, and best practices. These controls help ensure that employees and systems operate in a manner consistent with the organization's security objectives.
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What are some examples of directive controls?
How do directive controls differ from other types of security controls?
Why are directive controls important for organizational security?
What is the primary function of antivirus software on a computer system?
To encrypt the data and information on the computer system to prevent unauthorized access.
To provide regular backups of the user's data stored on the computer system.
To enhance the performance and speed of the computer system by managing its resources.
To detect, prevent, and remove malware from the computer system.
Answer Description
The primary function of antivirus software is to detect, prevent, and remove malware. By constantly monitoring the system for suspicious activity and known malware signatures, it helps defend against potential threats. It may not, however, always encrypt data or information, which is more commonly a role of encryption software. Antivirus software does not optimize system performance as its core function—although some packages come with optimization tools, that's not the main purpose. Additionally, antivirus does not provide backups, which is the role of backup software or services.
Ask Bash
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How does antivirus software detect malware?
What types of malware can antivirus software protect against?
Why is it important to have antivirus software installed?
What type of power supply can provide instant protection from power interruptions by supplying energy stored in batteries during an outage?
Voltage regulator
Power strip
Surge protector
Uninterruptible power supply (UPS)
Answer Description
An Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is designed to provide power to a device for a short duration in the event of a power interruption. It uses batteries to supply power instantly when regular power sources fail, allowing for the safe shutdown of equipment or to maintain critical operations until a generator or alternate power source can take over.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is a UPS and how does it work?
What are the different types of UPS systems available?
How do I choose the right UPS for my needs?
An organization is developing a disaster recovery plan and wants a backup site that has hardware and network connectivity already set up, but where data synchronization and configuration would be necessary before resuming operations. Which type of site does this describe?
Mobile site
Warm site
Cold site
Hot site
Answer Description
A warm site is a backup location equipped with hardware and network connectivity, allowing an organization to restore operations more quickly than at a cold site. However, it does not have current data or complete configurations, so data restoration and system setup are necessary before it becomes fully operational. This makes it a balance between a hot site, which is fully operational with real-time data replication, and a cold site, which lacks pre-installed hardware and requires significant time to set up.
Ask Bash
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What is the difference between a hot site, warm site, and cold site?
What are the benefits of using a warm site for disaster recovery?
How does data synchronization work in a warm site?
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