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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited time
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A security administrator is tasked with protecting the confidentiality of data stored on company laptops. The administrator decides to implement full-disk encryption. Which of the following control types BEST describes this implementation?

  • Deterrent

  • Corrective

  • Detective

  • Preventive

Question 2 of 20

Which security control should a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy require on all personally owned smartphones and laptops that access or store company data in order to mitigate the risk of data exposure if the device is lost or stolen?

  • Require full-disk (device) encryption

  • Disable near-field communication (NFC) on the device

  • Enforce geofencing so the device works only on-site

  • Set the screen-lock timeout to 30 minutes

Question 3 of 20

A company must transmit sensitive data between remote offices and is assessing encryption methods. They require both data integrity and privacy while minimizing the complexity of key management. Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements?

  • Transport/Communication Encryption

  • Full-Disk Encryption

  • Asymmetric Encryption

  • Steganography

Question 4 of 20

Which of the following techniques is specifically designed to obscure sensitive data by replacing it with realistic but fictitious values so that the data set remains usable for developers and testers while protecting the original information from unauthorized disclosure?

  • Lossless compression

  • Multifactor authentication

  • Differential backup

  • Data masking

Question 5 of 20

During an IT security audit, a financial services company discovers that its on-premises relational database stores millions of real-time credit-card transaction records. The data is classified as critical, and management wants to minimize the impact of a potential breach by ensuring any stolen files would be unreadable without authorized keys. Which of the following controls BEST meets this requirement?

  • Geographic restrictions

  • Hashing

  • Encryption

  • Masking

Question 6 of 20

A financial institution outsources the processing of credit card transactions to a cloud service provider. To comply with industry regulations, which action should the institution prioritize to ensure the cloud service provider adheres to proper data handling and protection requirements?

  • Encrypting all credit card data in transit to and from the cloud service provider

  • Implementing data anonymization techniques for all transactions processed

  • Executing a detailed contractual agreement that covers data protection and handling expectations

  • Conducting regular security audits of the cloud service provider's infrastructure

Question 7 of 20

Your organization is looking to enhance its disaster recovery capabilities to ensure business continuity after an unexpected event. Which type of site provides an on-demand, operational environment that can be quickly made ready to resume critical business functions with all of the necessary hardware and software?

  • Cold site

  • Hot site

  • Warm site

  • Mobile site

Question 8 of 20

A company has noticed unusual activity on their network and has started an investigation. As a security analyst, you are reviewing logs from various endpoints to identify the source of the activity. Which of the following log entries would likely indicate a security incident in progress?

  • Repeated login failures from a single source, followed by a successful login to an administrative account.

  • A single successful login to a user account during working hours.

  • Periodic security scanning by the in-house vulnerability management tool.

  • Scheduled system updates being applied outside of office hours.

Question 9 of 20

When an employee suspects that an email message is a sophisticated spear phishing attempt, what is the most prudent immediate action for the security team?

  • Reply to the sender to confirm the validity of the email

  • Immediately shut down network services to prevent a potential breach

  • Quarantine the message to initiate a review process

  • Send out a company-wide alert about the potential spear phishing attempt

Question 10 of 20

Which of the following BEST describes the responsibility of an Owner in the context of data management and protection within an organization?

  • Conducting periodic audits and reviews of access controls and security measures

  • Determining the classification of the data and the necessary controls for its protection

  • Designing and implementing the system's technical architecture that supports data processing requirements

  • Executing routine tasks such as data backups and applying security patches to the data management systems

Question 11 of 20

A security analyst needs to test a potentially malicious executable file to understand its behavior. The analyst's primary concern is preventing the file from making any changes to the host operating system or accessing the corporate network. Which of the following security techniques would be MOST effective for this task?

  • Input validation

  • Static code analysis

  • Sandboxing

  • Code signing

Question 12 of 20

Which of the following is a physical device used to securely generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys, offering high levels of security for encryption processes?

  • Trusted Platform Module

  • Key Management System

  • Secure Enclave

  • Hardware Security Module

Question 13 of 20

During a security review, an engineer recommends placing a research lab's file server on a network segment that has absolutely no wired or wireless links to any other network, including the internet. Which term best describes this type of physically isolated environment?

  • Serverless

  • Air-gapped

  • Microservices

  • Virtualized

Question 14 of 20

Which security control type is exemplified by organizational security policies and guidelines that direct the behavior of users and systems toward compliance?

  • Preventive control

  • Corrective control

  • Detective control

  • Directive control

Question 15 of 20

As part of its business operations, a company must store customers' personal information. The company understands that a data breach is a significant risk. If a breach occurred, the company could not afford the financial loss. Therefore, it has decided to purchase cybersecurity insurance to cover potential damages. Which risk management strategy is the company using?

  • Mitigation

  • Avoidance

  • Transference

  • Acceptance

Question 16 of 20

Asymmetric (public-key) cryptography is frequently used to protect the confidentiality of e-mail and web traffic. Which of the following statements BEST explains how asymmetric encryption achieves this confidentiality during data transmission?

  • A single shared secret key is exchanged over a secure channel and used for both encryption and decryption.

  • The sender signs the data with their private key so that anyone with the public key can decrypt and read it.

  • The sender encrypts the data with the recipient's public key, ensuring that only the corresponding private key can decrypt the message.

  • Data is split across redundant drives so that no single drive stores the entire plaintext.

Question 17 of 20

During a routine vulnerability scan, a security analyst sees a clean report with no critical findings. Days later, a manual penetration test uncovers an unpatched web-server flaw that the scanner completely missed. Which term best describes this situation, where a real security issue was present but the detection tool failed to alert on it?

  • False security

  • True positive

  • False negative

  • False positive

Question 18 of 20

During an annual review of security policies, a company discovered that multiple incidents related to data leakage were a result of employees accidentally sending proprietary information to external contacts. Which of the following would be the BEST approach to mitigate this type of unintentional data loss?

  • Enforce more stringent role-based access controls on proprietary data.

  • Increase the frequency of employee training on the acceptable use policy and proper data handling.

  • Implement data loss prevention (DLP) systems that can detect and block sensitive data from being sent via email.

  • Review and update the procedures for external communications to include stricter guidelines.

Question 19 of 20

An employee receives an email that appears to originate from a trusted department within the organization, requesting them to download an attached form to update their personal details. The email contains spelling errors and uses a generic greeting like 'Dear Team Member'. What is the most likely characteristic of this email?

  • This is a phishing attempt designed to steal personal information.

  • This is a request to update employee records.

  • This email contains a virus or ransomware.

  • This is a communication regarding system maintenance.

Question 20 of 20

Which of the following best describes the process where a system or individual proves their identity by providing credentials to a verifying entity?

  • Multifactor

  • Authorization

  • Authentication

  • Accounting