CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A company's change management procedure requires that any modifications to the IT infrastructure undergo a review process. Before final approval, which document should primarily guide the decision on whether the change is in line with organizational security policies and standards?
Information Security Policies
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) document
Answer Description
The Information Security Policies document should guide the decision-making process as it outlines the organization's overarching rules, expectations, and practices related to maintaining information security. It provides a framework for ensuring that changes comply with the standards necessary to protect the company's information assets. The Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) mainly concerns how individuals are permitted to use company resources. The Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) policy is generally specific to the creation of software rather than change management. Meanwhile, the Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is designed to guide operations post-disruption and is not primarily used for decision-making in change management.
Ask Bash
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Why is the Information Security Policies document critical for change management?
What is the difference between an AUP and an Information Security Policy?
How does the SDLC document differ from the Information Security Policies document in this context?
An organization with remote employees requires a secure method for connecting to the internal network. Which solution should be used to ensure the highest level of security for data transmitted over public networks?
Secure Shell (SSH) tunneling for individual services
VPN with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) with Network Level Authentication (NLA)
VPN with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
Answer Description
A VPN that implements IPSec provides a high level of security by establishing an encrypted tunnel between the VPN client and the VPN server, which protects the privacy and integrity of data transmitted over public networks. IPSec operates at the network layer, allowing it to secure all traffic that passes through the tunnel, making it the best option for this scenario.
Ask Bash
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What is IPSec, and how does it enhance VPN security?
Why is PPTP less secure compared to IPSec in VPNs?
How does VPN with IPSec compare to SSH tunneling or RDP for securing remote connections?
Your company is expanding its operations to a new region with strict data protection laws that differ significantly from those where your headquarters is located. What is the most important first step your security governance team should take to ensure compliance with the new region's legal requirements?
Apply the same security policies from the headquarters to the new region's operations without modification.
Review and align the security policies with the local/regional legal requirements.
Mandate that all employees complete a new security awareness training immediately.
Implement an advanced encryption protocol to secure all data in transit and at rest within the new region.
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Review and align the security policies with the local/regional legal requirements.' When entering a new region, an organization must ensure that its security policies comply with local laws to avoid legal consequences and protect the company's reputation. Conducting a thorough review of the new region's legal requirements and aligning the organization's security policies accordingly is the most prudent initial step.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important to review and align security policies with local laws when expanding to a new region?
How can an organization determine the legal requirements of a new region?
What are the consequences of applying security policies without modification in a new region?
Which type of attack involves attempting possible combination of letters, numbers, and symbols until the correct password is found, often leading to unauthorized system access?
Brute force attack
Dictionary attack
Phishing
Spoofing
Answer Description
A brute force attack is a trial-and-error method used to decode encrypted data such as passwords. This type of attack systematically checks all possible combinations to discover the correct one, which can eventually allow an attacker to gain unauthorized access. This definition aligns with the description of a brute force attack.
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Why are brute force attacks effective despite their simplicity?
How can individuals prevent brute force attacks on their accounts?
What tools or technologies do attackers commonly use for brute force attacks?
Alice, a security administrator, needs to verify that the servers in her organization are in a known and trusted state before they process sensitive data. The process involves generating a set of measurements that reflect the current state of the servers and comparing them against a set of known good values provided by the vendor. Which of the following best describes the process Alice should implement to meet this requirement?
Implementing a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to perform remote attestation of the servers during boot-up
Hashing system files at startup and sending the hashes to a central server for comparison
Configuring the servers to enable remote wiping in case they fail a security check
Setting BIOS passwords to prevent unauthorized changes to hardware settings
Answer Description
Attestation involves creating a secure baseline of system components which are then compared against current system measurements to verify integrity. The verification step compares the current state against a set of known good values (trusted baseline) that could include measurements from binary files, configuration settings, or patches. Remote attestation extends this concept by allowing a system to report its state to a remote verifier. Hashing system files at startup and sending them to a central server compares current file states against known good hashes, but it is not specifically considered remote attestation which implies a challenge-response mechanism between a local and remote entity. Remote wiping a device and BIOS password protection are security controls to prevent unauthorized access and do not attest to the current state of the system's hardware or software.
Ask Bash
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What is a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
How does remote attestation work with TPM?
Why is hashing system files not the same as remote attestation?
A security manager is developing a new information security program. The manager focuses first on creating a comprehensive risk assessment methodology, defining security policies, and establishing roles and responsibilities for personnel. Which category of security controls do these activities primarily represent?
Physical controls
Operational controls
Technical controls
Managerial controls
Answer Description
Managerial controls are security controls that focus on the management of risk and the management of information system security. These controls are administrative in nature and include activities like creating security policies, conducting risk assessments, planning for business continuity, and performing security awareness training. The activities described in the scenario-risk assessment, policy creation, and defining roles-are all classic examples of managerial controls. Technical controls involve technology like firewalls, operational controls involve day-to-day procedures like reviewing logs, and physical controls involve tangible protections like fences and locks.
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What are managerial controls in information security?
How do managerial controls differ from technical controls?
What is the role of risk assessment in managerial controls?
During the analysis phase after a vulnerability scan, a security administrator is preparing a report for the management team. Which element would BEST assist in the risk prioritization of the findings?
Categorize the vulnerabilities based on the part of the network infrastructure they affect.
Group vulnerabilities by the operating system of the affected devices for clarity.
Present the findings using a standardized severity rating to assess the risk level of the vulnerabilities.
Focus on vulnerabilities that have been exploited in the wild and which could lead to potential data loss.
Answer Description
Presenting the information that applies a recognized scoring system to assess the severity of the vulnerabilities is correct, as it gives an objective measure of risk. This enables management to make informed decisions on which vulnerabilities to address first based on the potential impact. While identification by category, operating system, or the potential for data loss can provide important context, they do not inherently offer a mechanism for prioritization. Therefore, the key to an effective report is not only identifying the vulnerabilities but also clearly indicating which ones pose the greatest risk based on a standardized severity rating.
Ask Bash
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What is a standardized severity rating in vulnerability assessment?
Why is CVSS widely used for risk prioritization?
How does focusing on exploited vulnerabilities differ from using a severity rating?
In the context of designing a highly available web service infrastructure that must remain operational during peak traffic times, which of the following techniques would BEST demonstrate an application of parallel processing concepts for capacity planning?
Implementing a load balancer to distribute workload across multiple servers
Integrating a single sign-on (SSO) solution for user authentication
Applying database normalization to reduce data redundancy
Enforcing rate limiting on the web service API endpoints
Answer Description
Load balancing effectively uses parallel processing by distributing incoming traffic across multiple servers, which not only manages the traffic surge during peak times but also provides redundancy in case one server fails. 'Database normalization' is a process used to optimize database design but does not directly apply to parallel processing for traffic management. 'Rate limiting' is used to control the traffic rate a single user or service can make to a web service but does not employ parallel processing to distribute workload. 'Single sign-on' (SSO) simplifies user authentication by using one set of login credentials for multiple services but is not related to the concept of parallel processing for handling increased load or capacity planning.
Ask Bash
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What is the role of a load balancer in a web service infrastructure?
How does parallel processing improve web service performance?
Why is database normalization not considered part of parallel processing?
In the context of security architecture, what does 'Responsiveness' refer to when considering system design and high availability?
The ability of the system to acknowledge and handle requests quickly, maintaining service quality.
The frequency at which a system performs routine maintenance and updates.
The efficiency of encrypting and decrypting data at rest and data in transit.
The capacity of backup power systems to provide electricity during an outage.
Answer Description
'Responsiveness' refers to the system's ability to acknowledge and react to requests in a timely manner. In security contexts, this ensures that the system can maintain service quality even under varying load conditions, which is critical to preventing denial-of-service attacks and ensuring user satisfaction.
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Why is responsiveness critical in preventing denial-of-service (DoS) attacks?
How is responsiveness measured in high availability systems?
What technologies improve responsiveness in system design?
A security analyst observes that a user's account has logged in from two different countries within an hour. Which indicator of malicious activity does this scenario BEST represent?
Impossible travel
Out-of-cycle logging
Resource consumption
Concurrent session usage
Answer Description
Logging in from two geographically distant locations within a short time frame is indicative of impossible travel, suggesting that the user's credentials may have been compromised. This is a common indicator used to detect unauthorized access. Concurrent session usage involves a user being logged in from multiple locations or devices simultaneously, but not necessarily from implausible distances. Resource consumption refers to excessive use of system resources, which could indicate a denial-of-service attack. Out-of-cycle logging pertains to access attempts occurring outside of normal business hours or established patterns.
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Why is 'impossible travel' a security indicator?
How does 'impossible travel' detection work?
How does 'impossible travel' differ from 'concurrent session usage'?
An organization's security team is analyzing historical security incident reports to help predict future events. The security incidents that have been recorded over the previous five years are as follows: 1, 2, 3, 4, and 4 incidents per year, respectively. In preparation for the upcoming year, the security analyst is tasked with estimating the frequency at which a particular security incident is expected to occur, based on the average occurrences from these figures. What is the most accurate estimate of the frequency for this incident to occur over the next year?
2.8 incidents per year
3 incidents per year
2 incidents per year
3.5 incidents per year
Answer Description
To estimate the Annualized Rate of Occurrence, which is the likelihood of a particular incident occurring within a one-year period, one must calculate the average occurrences over a given set of data. This is accomplished by adding the number of incidents for each year (1+2+3+4+4) and dividing by the number of years (5), resulting in an average of 2.8 incidents per year. This provides the closest estimate for the expected frequency over the next year, given the historical data.
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What is the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)?
Why is ARO important in risk management?
How does ARO differ from Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) and Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)?
Your company has recently rolled out a new security awareness training program focused on recognizing social engineering attacks. To ensure the effectiveness of the training, what is the MOST effective method to evaluate employee understanding and application of the training content?
Conducting unannounced phishing simulation campaigns
Including a quiz at the end of the training session
Publishing a quarterly newsletter highlighting social engineering threats
Unannounced network scans after training completion
Answer Description
Phishing simulations are a practical way to test whether employees can recognize and respond to social engineering attacks in a realistic but safe environment. By tracking metrics such as click rates, reporting rates, and time to report, simulations provide actionable data that highlights both strengths and gaps in user behavior. In contrast, unannounced network scans assess technical vulnerabilities rather than human behavior, quarterly newsletters only reinforce awareness without measuring it, and a post-training quiz checks short-term recall but not real-world application.
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Why are phishing simulations more effective than quizzes for evaluating training?
What is a social engineering attack?
How should phishing simulations be designed for maximum effectiveness?
Which type of security control is primarily intended to discourage a potential attacker from attempting to breach a security perimeter?
Detective
Deterrent
Corrective
Preventive
Answer Description
A deterrent control is designed to discourage potential attackers from attempting a security breach, making it the correct answer. Deterrent controls include things like warning signs or visible security measures that increase the perceived risk for attackers.
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What are some examples of deterrent controls in cybersecurity?
How do deterrent controls differ from preventive controls?
Are deterrent controls effective without other types of security controls?
During a routine vulnerability assessment of the network, an analyst receives a notification of potential malicious traffic that, upon further investigation, turns out to be legitimate and normal network activity. What does this notification exemplify?
A false positive
A true positive
An intrusion attempt
A false negative
Answer Description
A false positive occurs when a security system incorrectly identifies benign activity as a threat. In this scenario, the system erroneously flagged normal network traffic as potentially malicious, which is a classic example of a false positive. It is crucial for security analysts to recognize and address false positives to avoid unnecessary responses to non-threatening activities.
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What causes a false positive in cybersecurity tools?
How do false positives differ from false negatives?
How can analysts reduce the occurrence of false positives?
A security team is creating its governance framework. The team needs to produce documentation that offers helpful, but not mandatory, advice on best practices for handling data. This documentation is intended to help employees implement the mandatory data encryption standard without dictating specific tools or step-by-step instructions. Which type of document should the team create?
Recommendations that are not mandatory but help to guide actions and operational procedures
Detailed, step-by-step instructions on how to perform specific tasks or operations
Regulations imposed by external bodies that an organization must legally comply with
Mandatory rules that specify minimum acceptable levels of security for products, actions, or systems
Answer Description
Guidelines are recommendations that help an organization implement standards and policies. They are typically less formal, not mandatory, and provide suggested actions and best practices. In the scenario, the document offers helpful but not mandatory advice, which is the definition of a guideline.
- Standards are mandatory rules that specify minimum acceptable security levels, not flexible recommendations.
- Procedures are detailed, step-by-step instructions for performing specific tasks, not general best-practice advice.
- Regulations are laws or rules imposed by external bodies that an organization must legally follow.
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What is the difference between guidelines and policies in security governance?
Why are guidelines not mandatory in security governance?
How do guidelines support the implementation of security standards?
Your company has decided to implement a new cloud-based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) system. As part of the compliance requirements, all backups of the CRM data must be encrypted. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for a recommendation on the encryption approach, emphasizing the need for both strong encryption and efficient key management. Which encryption method should be recommended?
Key Management Service (KMS) with encryption capabilities
Whole disk encryption
Database field encryption using public key infrastructure
Manual symmetric key management with AES-256
Answer Description
The use of a Key Management Service (KMS) with encryption capabilities is the correct choice because it not only provides strong encryption but also facilitates efficient key management, which is crucial when dealing with backups that may need to be restored at any given time. It automates the lifecycle of cryptographic keys, including creation, rotation, deletion, and control of access to keys. Whole disk encryption, while secure, does not typically offer the same level of key management needed for a cloud-based environment. Manual symmetric key management could be prone to human error and does not scale efficiently. Database field encryption only encrypts specific fields and may not cover the entire backup dataset as required.
Ask Bash
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What is a Key Management Service (KMS)?
Why is manual symmetric key management not suitable in this case?
How does KMS compare to whole disk encryption for backup protection?
What is a direct benefit of uninstalling software applications that are not essential to a system's primary functions?
It streamlines user experience by decluttering the application interface.
It ensures the compliance of software usage policies.
It prepares the system for installation of newer software versions.
It reduces the number of potential attack vectors.
Answer Description
Uninstalling software applications that are not essential to a system's primary functions directly benefits security by reducing the number of potential attack vectors available to a threat actor. Every piece of software can introduce vulnerabilities, and non-essential applications may not be maintained with the same rigor as critical ones, leading to increased security risks. By minimizing the number of installed programs, the scope for vulnerabilities is narrowed, bolstering the system's resilience to cyber threats.
Ask Bash
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What are attack vectors in cybersecurity?
Why do non-essential applications increase security risks?
How does reducing the number of installed programs narrow vulnerabilities?
A network administrator needs to improve security by isolating traffic between the company's Engineering and Marketing departments. Both departments connect to the same physical switch. Which of the following solutions should the administrator implement to logically separate the two departments' networks?
Deploy an IPS to monitor for and block anomalous traffic.
Configure a Layer 4 firewall to filter TCP/UDP traffic.
Install a separate physical switch for each department.
Implement VLANs to create separate broadcast domains.
Answer Description
A Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) is the appropriate solution for logically segmenting a network on shared physical infrastructure like a switch. By placing the Engineering and Marketing departments on separate VLANs, the administrator creates two distinct broadcast domains. This prevents traffic from one department from being directly visible to the other, enhancing security and containment. While installing a separate physical switch would achieve separation, it is a physical solution, not logical, and is less efficient. A Layer 4 firewall filters traffic based on port numbers, and an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) actively monitors for threats, but neither provides the fundamental logical network separation on a single switch that VLANs are designed for.
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How does VLAN improve security by logically separating network segments?
What are some common use cases for implementing VLANs in an organization?
What is the difference between physical network segmentation and VLAN-based segmentation?
Which data source would an investigator most likely review to trace unauthorized internal traffic patterns indicative of post-breach attacker movement?
Application logs
System health reports
Endpoint logs
Network logs
Answer Description
Network logs are a primary resource for monitoring internal network traffic, which includes tracking unauthorized data flow or lateral movement within the organization's network infrastructure. Application logs are focused on specific software and may not capture network-wide traffic data. Endpoint logs give insight into individual host activity and might not show comprehensive internal traffic patterns. System health reports are typically concerned with the performance and health of systems, and do not usually provide the granular traffic data needed for tracking lateral movements.
Ask Bash
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What specific information can network logs provide to investigators?
How are lateral movements detected in network logs?
What tools can be used to analyze and interpret network logs?
When implementing hardening techniques on a company's main database server to minimize its attack surface, which of the following measures should be taken FIRST?
Conduct a vulnerability scan to identify and fix security flaws.
Implement account lockout policies after several failed login attempts.
Update the server to the latest stable OS version and apply all available security patches.
Configure the firewall to allow only essential traffic.
Answer Description
The process of hardening a server should begin with updating the server to the latest stable version of the operating system, including all the available security patches. This action addresses known vulnerabilities and reduces the number of potential attack vectors that could be exploited. Configuring a firewall, setting account lockout policies, and conducting a vulnerability scan are important hardening steps, but they come after ensuring that the server is running the most secure operating system version available.
Ask Bash
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Why is updating the OS and applying security patches considered the FIRST step in server hardening?
What is the difference between hardening and conducting a vulnerability scan?
How does configuring a firewall complement the server hardening process?
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