CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
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- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
What term describes a concept in which automation tools are utilized to handle repetitive tasks, allowing the security team to focus on more complex responsibilities and effectively increasing the team's productivity without necessarily increasing the number of team members?
Workforce enhancer
Workforce multiplier
Efficiency optimizer
Team scaler
Answer Description
The term 'workforce multiplier' refers to the use of technology, especially automation and orchestration tools, that enables a security team to be more productive by handling tasks that would otherwise require greater staffing. By automating repetitive and tedious tasks, the organization can maximize the effectiveness of its existing workforce, therefore multiplying its capabilities. The incorrect choices are designed to test the student's ability to distinguish between similar terms and concepts in the context of security operations.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of automation tools used as workforce multipliers in security operations?
How does a workforce multiplier impact incident response time?
What are the benefits of using workforce multipliers in a security team's operations?
What type of vulnerability within virtualized environments allows an attacker to access the host machine from within a virtual machine?
Buffer overflow
Firmware compromise
SQL injection
VM escape
Answer Description
A Virtual Machine (VM) escape is a security vulnerability that allows an attacker to break out from a virtual machine and interact with the host operating system. This type of vulnerability is particularly concerning because it undermines the isolation properties that are fundamental to secure virtualization.
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What are the main risks associated with VM escape vulnerabilities?
How can organizations mitigate the risk of VM escape vulnerabilities?
What is the role of hypervisors in relation to VM escape vulnerabilities?
During the analysis phase of an incident, an analyst is tasked with determining the scope of a suspected breach on several servers. Which data source will MOST likely provide the comprehensive information required to assess the activities on the affected servers?
Operating system-specific security logs
Vulnerability scans
Packet captures
Firewall logs
Answer Description
Operating system-specific security logs are designed to record events that are significant to the security of the operating system. They can provide detailed information about the activities on a server, such at login attempts, access to protected objects, and changes to security policies. These logs are more likely to give an accurate picture of the scope of a suspected breach compared to the other options, which may provide too broad or peripheral view, or lack the level of detail necessary for an analysis of server activities.
Ask Bash
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What kind of information do operating system-specific security logs typically contain?
How are packet captures different from operating system-specific security logs?
Why are firewall logs less effective for determining the scope of a suspected breach on servers?
Which of the following best describes the 'Confidential' data classification in a security architecture?
Information that has the highest level of protection and is intended for a very limited audience.
Information that requires some level of protection but is not expected to cause significant harm if disclosed.
Information that is available to the public and does not require special protection measures.
Information that requires strict access controls and protection because its unauthorized disclosure could significantly impact the organization or individuals.
Answer Description
The 'Confidential' data classification is typically applied to information that if disclosed without authorization could lead to a significant level of risk to the organization or individuals. This classification requires a higher level of access control and protective measures due to the potential harm that could result from its exposure. Other classifications like 'Public' and 'Sensitive' do not carry the same implication of risk if disclosed and thus are not characterized by the same level of required protection. 'Restricted' often refers to a higher classification level than 'Confidential' and may require even stricter controls.
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What are some examples of 'Confidential' data?
What protective measures are typically implemented for 'Confidential' data?
How does 'Confidential' data classification compare to 'Restricted' data classification?
An organization has noticed that employees are accessing sensitive files unrelated to their responsibilities. The company wants to ensure that users can access only the data required for their tasks. Which of the following methods would BEST address this issue?
Implementing role-based access control
Enforcing multi-factor authentication
Encrypting all sensitive files
Applying network segmentation
Answer Description
Implementing role-based access control (RBAC) allows the organization to assign permissions to users based on their job responsibilities. This ensures that employees have access only to the resources necessary for their tasks, reducing unauthorized access to sensitive files. Encrypting files protects data confidentiality but doesn't prevent authorized users from accessing data beyond their responsibilities. Enforcing multi-factor authentication strengthens login security but doesn't control access permissions. Applying network segmentation divides the network but doesn't directly manage user access to specific files.
Ask Bash
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What is role-based access control (RBAC)?
How does RBAC improve security in an organization?
What are some potential challenges of implementing RBAC?
You want to limit the company losses/downtime in the event that there is data loss so you institute a data backup and recovery strategy. Which control type is being used?
Compensating
Deterrent
Detective
Corrective
Preventive
Answer Description
Corrective controls are controls that are designed to “correct” damages caused by an incident. A data backup and recovery strategy is intended to correct damages that result from data loss.
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What are corrective controls in cybersecurity?
How does a data backup and recovery strategy work?
What are other types of controls in cybersecurity?
What is the consequence of opting for expedient development and deployment measures that prioritize immediate functionality over long-term code maintainability and stability?
Code regression
Configuration drift
System entropy
Technical debt
Answer Description
The correct term for this consequence is 'technical debt.' It arises when development teams take action to expedite product releases or feature implementations at the expense of code maintainability and overall quality. While this may yield short-term benefits, it creates a metaphorical 'debt' that will have to be 'paid off' later with additional work to fix the rush-induced issues, potentially leading to security vulnerabilities. Alternative terms offered in the answers are related concepts within IT but do not specifically refer to the costs and future rework implied by rushed solutions.
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What is technical debt and how does it accumulate?
What strategies can teams use to manage technical debt?
How can technical debt impact security?
Which of the following best describes why an organization must be aware of local and regional regulations when developing their security program?
To apply universal standards of cybersecurity that are recognized globally.
To simplify the security program management by adhering to broader compliance laws.
To avoid the need for customizing security measures for different company branches.
To ensure compliance with specific legal requirements that may not be covered by national or global standards.
Answer Description
An organization needs to comply with local and regional regulations to ensure that they are not violating any laws that may be specific to the jurisdictions they operate in. Not understanding these local nuances could lead to legal issues, such as fines or sanctions. For example, certain regions may have specific requirements for data protection that differ from national laws, such as stricter privacy regulations that mandate data residency within the region. National and global standards, while essential, may not cover all aspects of the local regulatory environment, and universal standards do not typically exist for cybersecurity, hence the specificity of the correct answer.
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What are some examples of local and regional regulations that organizations need to be aware of?
How do local regulations differ from national and global standards in cybersecurity?
What are the potential consequences for not adhering to local regulations in a security program?
Which of the following BEST illustrates the purpose of performing regular self-assessments of security governance within an organization?
To ensure that all new technological implementations are secure before they go live into the production environment.
To reactively provide details to stakeholders following a security breach or incident.
To measure and analyze the effectiveness and compliance of the security governance against internal standards and regulatory requirements.
To assess individual employee compliance with security training requirements on an annual basis.
Answer Description
Regular self-assessments allow an organization to measure and analyze the effectiveness, efficiency, and compliance of its security governance against internal standards and regulatory requirements. This proactive approach serves to identify gaps or weaknesses before they can be exploited, providing an opportunity for improvements and risk mitigation strategies to be implemented. Assessments focused only on technology do not capture the full scope of security governance, and limiting assessments to after an incident occurs would not provide the proactive benefits of regular, preemptive analysis and adjustments.
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What are security governance and its internal standards?
What are some common regulatory requirements organizations must comply with?
How do organizations identify gaps in their security governance?
What term best describes a user who repeatedly attempts to access resources outside the scope of their permissions, which may indicate a possible security violation?
Anomalous Behavior
Acceptable Use Agreement
Baseline Compliance
Standard Operating Procedure
Answer Description
The term 'Anomalous Behavior' accurately describes activities that deviate from the normal pattern of user behavior, such as trying to access unauthorized resources. It's important for security professionals to recognize these early signs of potential security incidents.
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What are examples of Anomalous Behavior in a security context?
How do security professionals monitor for Anomalous Behavior?
What steps can be taken if Anomalous Behavior is detected?
A company is evaluating options for remote employees to securely access the corporate network. Which of the following solutions would provide the BEST security for sensitive corporate data while maintaining reliable connectivity?
Utilizing remote access software without two-factor authentication for user convenience
Installing a jump server that remote employees can connect to before accessing the corporate network
Implementing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) with strong encryption standards for remote connections
Allowing remote access through a basic tunneling protocol with no additional encryption
Answer Description
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates a secure tunnel between the remote user's device and the corporate network, encrypting data in transit, which helps protect sensitive corporate data from eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks. Remote access and tunneling protocols can be part of a VPN solution, emphasizing the importance of encryption and a secure tunnel. A jump server, even though it acts as a bridge between different security zones, does not inherently encrypt traffic and is less suited as a comprehensive solution for remote employees' secure connectivity.
Ask Bash
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What is a Virtual Private Network (VPN)?
What are strong encryption standards in VPNs?
What are the risks of using basic tunneling protocols without encryption?
Which of the following is a physical device used to securely generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys, offering high levels of security for encryption processes?
Key Management System
Secure Enclave
Trusted Platform Module
Hardware Security Module
Answer Description
A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a physical device that provides secure generation, storage, and management of cryptographic keys. HSMs are designed to protect keys from unauthorized access and are used to enhance security in encryption processes. A Key Management System is typically software-based and manages keys but doesn't provide the physical security level of an HSM. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security chip embedded in devices, used mainly for device authentication and integrity verification rather than comprehensive key management. A Secure Enclave is a secure area within a processor, primarily used in mobile devices to store sensitive data, but it is not a standalone device like an HSM.
Ask Bash
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What exactly is a Hardware Security Module (HSM)?
How do HSMs differ from software-based key management solutions?
Can you explain the roles of Trusted Platform Module (TPM) and Secure Enclave in relation to HSMs?
A corporate network administrator is configuring access control on the switches to allow only authorized devices to connect to the LAN. The administrator wants to dynamically assign VLANs based on user identity and prevent unauthorized network access at the port level. Which of the following should be implemented?
Utilizing port security with MAC address filtering on the switches
Implementing 802.1X on the network switches
Setting up Layer 7 firewall rules to assign VLANs
Configuring a WAF (Web Application Firewall) for VLAN assignment
Answer Description
802.1X is an IEEE Standard for port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols. It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN. By using 802.1X, network access can be controlled at the port level and, with the proper backend support through RADIUS or a similar authentication server, VLANs can be assigned dynamically based on user identity, which is the requirement in this scenario.
Ask Bash
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What is 802.1X and how does it work?
What are VLANs and why is dynamic assignment important?
What is RADIUS and how does it relate to 802.1X?
Which system is implemented to safeguard sensitive information from being leaked outside of the corporate network?
Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
Firewall
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system
Antivirus software
Answer Description
A Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system is implemented within an organization to ensure that sensitive information does not exit the corporate network in an unauthorized manner. It monitors, detects, and blocks the flow of data to prevent data breaches. Whereas an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is primarily used to identify and prevent known threats from affecting a network, and a Firewall provides a barrier between trusted and untrusted networks. Antivirus software is used to prevent, detect, and remove malware.
Ask Bash
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What types of sensitive information does a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system protect?
How does a DLP system monitor and block data flow?
What are the differences between a DLP system and an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)?
Which method should an organization implement to enhance its network security by dividing network traffic into distinct zones, where each can be governed by different security controls?
Establishing separate network segments for different departmental functions
Enabling secure channels for the transmission of sensitive data across the network
Instituting granular subnets for all devices based on IP address classifications
Installing firewalls to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing traffic
Answer Description
Network segmentation is the division of a network into smaller parts to limit access and provide opportunities for enforcing security policies tailored to each segment. Creating separate network segments based on functional or departmental requirements allows an organization to control access and traffic flow within its internal network infrastructure. Using separate network segments for this purpose is the most direct method to achieve the desired outcome, providing security and performance benefits by containing risks and segregating network resources. While the use of firewalls is a measure for controlling traffic between segments, it is not the method to create those segments. On the other hand, subnets are generally used for improving network performance and managing IP address allocations, but they do not provide the same level of policy enforcement and isolation as segments. Lastly, secure channels for transmitting sensitive data are vital, but they are not a method of network segmentation; they are rather a means to protect data in transit.
Ask Bash
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What are the benefits of network segmentation?
How does network segmentation work?
What are the differences between network segmentation and subnets?
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