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CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)

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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information

CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview

The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.

Question Types on the Security+ Exam

The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:

  • Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
  • Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.

Exam Prerequisites

CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.

Security+ Exam Domains

The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:

  • General Security Concepts (12%)
  • Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
  • Security Architecture (18%)
  • Security Operations (28%)
  • Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)

These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.

Exam Renewal Policy

The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.

Testing Centers

CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.

The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.

More reading:

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Logo
  • Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • General Security Concepts
    Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations
    Security Architecture
    Security Operations
    Security Program Management and Oversight
Question 1 of 20

A company's change management procedure requires that any modifications to the IT infrastructure undergo a review process. Before final approval, which document should primarily guide the decision on whether the change is in line with organizational security policies and standards?

  • Information Security Policies

  • Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

  • Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

  • Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) document

Question 2 of 20

An organization with remote employees requires a secure method for connecting to the internal network. Which solution should be used to ensure the highest level of security for data transmitted over public networks?

  • Secure Shell (SSH) tunneling for individual services

  • VPN with Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)

  • Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) with Network Level Authentication (NLA)

  • VPN with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

Question 3 of 20

Your company is expanding its operations to a new region with strict data protection laws that differ significantly from those where your headquarters is located. What is the most important first step your security governance team should take to ensure compliance with the new region's legal requirements?

  • Apply the same security policies from the headquarters to the new region's operations without modification.

  • Review and align the security policies with the local/regional legal requirements.

  • Mandate that all employees complete a new security awareness training immediately.

  • Implement an advanced encryption protocol to secure all data in transit and at rest within the new region.

Question 4 of 20

Which type of attack involves attempting possible combination of letters, numbers, and symbols until the correct password is found, often leading to unauthorized system access?

  • Brute force attack

  • Dictionary attack

  • Phishing

  • Spoofing

Question 5 of 20

Alice, a security administrator, needs to verify that the servers in her organization are in a known and trusted state before they process sensitive data. The process involves generating a set of measurements that reflect the current state of the servers and comparing them against a set of known good values provided by the vendor. Which of the following best describes the process Alice should implement to meet this requirement?

  • Implementing a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to perform remote attestation of the servers during boot-up

  • Hashing system files at startup and sending the hashes to a central server for comparison

  • Configuring the servers to enable remote wiping in case they fail a security check

  • Setting BIOS passwords to prevent unauthorized changes to hardware settings

Question 6 of 20

A security manager is developing a new information security program. The manager focuses first on creating a comprehensive risk assessment methodology, defining security policies, and establishing roles and responsibilities for personnel. Which category of security controls do these activities primarily represent?

  • Physical controls

  • Operational controls

  • Technical controls

  • Managerial controls

Question 7 of 20

During the analysis phase after a vulnerability scan, a security administrator is preparing a report for the management team. Which element would BEST assist in the risk prioritization of the findings?

  • Categorize the vulnerabilities based on the part of the network infrastructure they affect.

  • Group vulnerabilities by the operating system of the affected devices for clarity.

  • Present the findings using a standardized severity rating to assess the risk level of the vulnerabilities.

  • Focus on vulnerabilities that have been exploited in the wild and which could lead to potential data loss.

Question 8 of 20

In the context of designing a highly available web service infrastructure that must remain operational during peak traffic times, which of the following techniques would BEST demonstrate an application of parallel processing concepts for capacity planning?

  • Implementing a load balancer to distribute workload across multiple servers

  • Integrating a single sign-on (SSO) solution for user authentication

  • Applying database normalization to reduce data redundancy

  • Enforcing rate limiting on the web service API endpoints

Question 9 of 20

In the context of security architecture, what does 'Responsiveness' refer to when considering system design and high availability?

  • The ability of the system to acknowledge and handle requests quickly, maintaining service quality.

  • The frequency at which a system performs routine maintenance and updates.

  • The efficiency of encrypting and decrypting data at rest and data in transit.

  • The capacity of backup power systems to provide electricity during an outage.

Question 10 of 20

A security analyst observes that a user's account has logged in from two different countries within an hour. Which indicator of malicious activity does this scenario BEST represent?

  • Impossible travel

  • Out-of-cycle logging

  • Resource consumption

  • Concurrent session usage

Question 11 of 20

An organization's security team is analyzing historical security incident reports to help predict future events. The security incidents that have been recorded over the previous five years are as follows: 1, 2, 3, 4, and 4 incidents per year, respectively. In preparation for the upcoming year, the security analyst is tasked with estimating the frequency at which a particular security incident is expected to occur, based on the average occurrences from these figures. What is the most accurate estimate of the frequency for this incident to occur over the next year?

  • 2.8 incidents per year

  • 3 incidents per year

  • 2 incidents per year

  • 3.5 incidents per year

Question 12 of 20

Your company has recently rolled out a new security awareness training program focused on recognizing social engineering attacks. To ensure the effectiveness of the training, what is the MOST effective method to evaluate employee understanding and application of the training content?

  • Conducting unannounced phishing simulation campaigns

  • Including a quiz at the end of the training session

  • Publishing a quarterly newsletter highlighting social engineering threats

  • Unannounced network scans after training completion

Question 13 of 20

Which type of security control is primarily intended to discourage a potential attacker from attempting to breach a security perimeter?

  • Detective

  • Deterrent

  • Corrective

  • Preventive

Question 14 of 20

During a routine vulnerability assessment of the network, an analyst receives a notification of potential malicious traffic that, upon further investigation, turns out to be legitimate and normal network activity. What does this notification exemplify?

  • A false positive

  • A true positive

  • An intrusion attempt

  • A false negative

Question 15 of 20

A security team is creating its governance framework. The team needs to produce documentation that offers helpful, but not mandatory, advice on best practices for handling data. This documentation is intended to help employees implement the mandatory data encryption standard without dictating specific tools or step-by-step instructions. Which type of document should the team create?

  • Recommendations that are not mandatory but help to guide actions and operational procedures

  • Detailed, step-by-step instructions on how to perform specific tasks or operations

  • Regulations imposed by external bodies that an organization must legally comply with

  • Mandatory rules that specify minimum acceptable levels of security for products, actions, or systems

Question 16 of 20

Your company has decided to implement a new cloud-based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) system. As part of the compliance requirements, all backups of the CRM data must be encrypted. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for a recommendation on the encryption approach, emphasizing the need for both strong encryption and efficient key management. Which encryption method should be recommended?

  • Key Management Service (KMS) with encryption capabilities

  • Whole disk encryption

  • Database field encryption using public key infrastructure

  • Manual symmetric key management with AES-256

Question 17 of 20

What is a direct benefit of uninstalling software applications that are not essential to a system's primary functions?

  • It streamlines user experience by decluttering the application interface.

  • It ensures the compliance of software usage policies.

  • It prepares the system for installation of newer software versions.

  • It reduces the number of potential attack vectors.

Question 18 of 20

A network administrator needs to improve security by isolating traffic between the company's Engineering and Marketing departments. Both departments connect to the same physical switch. Which of the following solutions should the administrator implement to logically separate the two departments' networks?

  • Deploy an IPS to monitor for and block anomalous traffic.

  • Configure a Layer 4 firewall to filter TCP/UDP traffic.

  • Install a separate physical switch for each department.

  • Implement VLANs to create separate broadcast domains.

Question 19 of 20

Which data source would an investigator most likely review to trace unauthorized internal traffic patterns indicative of post-breach attacker movement?

  • Application logs

  • System health reports

  • Endpoint logs

  • Network logs

Question 20 of 20

When implementing hardening techniques on a company's main database server to minimize its attack surface, which of the following measures should be taken FIRST?

  • Conduct a vulnerability scan to identify and fix security flaws.

  • Implement account lockout policies after several failed login attempts.

  • Update the server to the latest stable OS version and apply all available security patches.

  • Configure the firewall to allow only essential traffic.