CompTIA Security+ Practice Test (SY0-701)
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CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Information
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Overview
The CompTIA Security+ certification is a vendor-neutral credential that validates foundational security skills and knowledge. The current version of the exam is SY0-701. The SY0-701 exam is a computer-based test that consists of up to 90 questions, with a duration of 90 minutes. Candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 750 points on a scale of 100-900.
Question Types on the Security+ Exam
The Security+ exam includes two primary types of questions:
- Multiple-Choice/Multiple-Selection Questions: These questions require candidates to select one or more correct answers from a list of options.
- Performance-Based Questions (PBQs): These questions involve solving problems in a simulated IT environment, such as command prompt or networking environments. PBQs are also featured in other CompTIA exams, like A+ and Network+.
Exam Prerequisites
CompTIA does not enforce any prerequisites for the Security+ exam. However, it is recommended that candidates have the CompTIA Network+ certification and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a focus on security. Additionally, CompTIA suggests that candidates be at least 13 years old.
Security+ Exam Domains
The SY0-701 exam focuses on five primary domains:
- General Security Concepts (12%)
- Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations (22%)
- Security Architecture (18%)
- Security Operations (28%)
- Security Program Management and Oversight (20%)
These domains are detailed in the exam objectives, which outline the scope of the test, including domain weighting, test objectives, and example topics.
Exam Renewal Policy
The Security+ certification, along with other CompTIA certifications, must be renewed every three years. The bridge exam scheme was retired on December 31, 2010. Post-January 1, 2011, all new certifications are valid for three years from the date of certification. Renewal can be achieved by passing the latest version of the exam or through the Continuing Education (CE) program. This program allows candidates to keep their skills current through various activities that demonstrate industry knowledge.
Testing Centers
CompTIA exams, including Security+, are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers since July 9, 2012. Exams can be scheduled online, by phone, or at the testing center. Candidates can choose between in-person exams at Pearson VUE centers or online testing.
The CompTIA Security+ certification ensures that IT professionals possess the essential security skills and knowledge required to protect and manage today's increasingly complex IT environments.
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Free CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 (V7) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited time
- General Security ConceptsThreats, Vulnerabilities, and MitigationsSecurity ArchitectureSecurity OperationsSecurity Program Management and Oversight
A security administrator is tasked with protecting the confidentiality of data stored on company laptops. The administrator decides to implement full-disk encryption. Which of the following control types BEST describes this implementation?
Deterrent
Corrective
Detective
Preventive
Answer Description
The correct answer is preventive. Encryption is a technical control that functions as a preventive measure. It actively blocks unauthorized access by rendering data unreadable without the proper key, thereby preventing a data breach. Detective controls, such as log monitoring or intrusion detection systems, are used to identify incidents as they happen or after the fact. Corrective controls, like restoring from a backup, are used to limit the impact of an incident after it has occurred. Deterrent controls, such as warning banners, are intended to discourage potential attackers but do not technically block an action.
Ask Bash
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What is full-disk encryption?
How do preventive controls differ from other control types?
What is the importance of encryption keys in data security?
Which security control should a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy require on all personally owned smartphones and laptops that access or store company data in order to mitigate the risk of data exposure if the device is lost or stolen?
Require full-disk (device) encryption
Disable near-field communication (NFC) on the device
Enforce geofencing so the device works only on-site
Set the screen-lock timeout to 30 minutes
Answer Description
Full-disk (device) encryption protects data at rest by rendering the entire storage medium unreadable without proper authentication. If a device is lost or stolen, attackers cannot access corporate information without the decryption key. Disabling NFC, restricting device use to a geographic area, or lengthening the screen-lock timeout do not provide the same level of protection for locally stored data.
Ask Bash
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What is full-disk encryption, and how does it work?
Why isn't disabling NFC sufficient for protecting data on BYOD devices?
How does full-disk encryption compare to other forms of encryption like file-level encryption?
A company must transmit sensitive data between remote offices and is assessing encryption methods. They require both data integrity and privacy while minimizing the complexity of key management. Which of the following would BEST meet these requirements?
Transport/Communication Encryption
Full-Disk Encryption
Asymmetric Encryption
Steganography
Answer Description
Transport/Communication Encryption is specifically designed to secure data in transit between locations like remote offices. It ensures confidentiality (privacy of the data) and integrity (no tampering of data), using either symmetric or asymmetric encryption methods, while also simplifying key management. Using Full-Disk Encryption would not be the best choice as it's designed to protect data at rest and does not inherently secure data in transit. Asymmetric Encryption by itself is not a complete solution for data in transit and could introduce complexity in key management. Steganography provides obfuscation by hiding the existence of data but does not on its own ensure data encryption and integrity.
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What is the difference between Transport/Communication Encryption and Full-Disk Encryption?
How does Transport/Communication Encryption simplify key management?
Why isn't Asymmetric Encryption alone the best solution for data in transit?
Which of the following techniques is specifically designed to obscure sensitive data by replacing it with realistic but fictitious values so that the data set remains usable for developers and testers while protecting the original information from unauthorized disclosure?
Lossless compression
Multifactor authentication
Differential backup
Data masking
Answer Description
Data masking intentionally substitutes realistic but fake values (for example, shuffling or substituting names, account numbers, or dates) for the original sensitive data. Because the format and fields remain consistent, developers, testers, and analysts can still use the data set, but the real values cannot be reconstructed. Techniques such as lossless compression, differential backup, and multifactor authentication do not serve this purpose: compression reduces file size, backup provides data recovery, and multifactor authentication verifies user identity rather than altering data.
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What is the difference between data masking and data encryption?
What are some common techniques used in data masking?
In what scenarios is data masking typically used?
During an IT security audit, a financial services company discovers that its on-premises relational database stores millions of real-time credit-card transaction records. The data is classified as critical, and management wants to minimize the impact of a potential breach by ensuring any stolen files would be unreadable without authorized keys. Which of the following controls BEST meets this requirement?
Geographic restrictions
Hashing
Encryption
Masking
Answer Description
Applying strong encryption to the database files, tables, or individual columns converts the plaintext records into ciphertext that can only be returned to readable form with the correct decryption key. This directly preserves confidentiality if the storage media, backups, or underlying server are compromised. Geographic restrictions only constrain where data is stored, masking substitutes fictitious values for limited use cases such as testing, and hashing creates digest values that detect tampering but does not hide the underlying data.
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How does encryption ensure data confidentiality in databases?
What is the difference between encryption and hashing?
When would masking be used instead of encryption?
A financial institution outsources the processing of credit card transactions to a cloud service provider. To comply with industry regulations, which action should the institution prioritize to ensure the cloud service provider adheres to proper data handling and protection requirements?
Encrypting all credit card data in transit to and from the cloud service provider
Implementing data anonymization techniques for all transactions processed
Executing a detailed contractual agreement that covers data protection and handling expectations
Conducting regular security audits of the cloud service provider's infrastructure
Answer Description
Establishing a well-defined contract that explicitly stipulates data protection and handling requirements is vital when a financial institution outsources credit card processing to a third party. This contract must delineate the expectations, roles, and responsibilities, including security controls and breach notification protocols, ensuring the service provider processes the data in compliance with the applicable data protection standards and legal obligations. While regular security audits and encrypting data in transit are important aspects of a comprehensive security strategy, they lack the overarching governance framework that a detailed contractual agreement provides. Data anonymization might reduce the risks associated with data handling but would not be feasible in the context of credit card transactions where personal data is inherently required for processing.
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What should be included in a detailed contractual agreement with a cloud provider?
Why are regular security audits not sufficient on their own?
How does data encryption in transit support security, and why is it not the most critical factor here?
Your organization is looking to enhance its disaster recovery capabilities to ensure business continuity after an unexpected event. Which type of site provides an on-demand, operational environment that can be quickly made ready to resume critical business functions with all of the necessary hardware and software?
Cold site
Hot site
Warm site
Mobile site
Answer Description
A hot site is a fully operational offsite data center equipped with hardware and software, configured to quickly assume operational responsibilities from a primary site in case of a disaster. This is the best option for business continuity as it enables rapid resumption of critical functions. A cold site, while being the least expensive, offers only space and utilities, requiring additional time to become operational. A warm site provides some pre-installed equipment but would still require additional time and effort to be fully operational. Therefore, a hot site offers the highest level of readiness for immediate disaster recovery.
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What are the key differences between hot, warm, and cold sites?
Why is a hot site considered the best for business continuity?
Are there any disadvantages to using a hot site?
A company has noticed unusual activity on their network and has started an investigation. As a security analyst, you are reviewing logs from various endpoints to identify the source of the activity. Which of the following log entries would likely indicate a security incident in progress?
Repeated login failures from a single source, followed by a successful login to an administrative account.
A single successful login to a user account during working hours.
Periodic security scanning by the in-house vulnerability management tool.
Scheduled system updates being applied outside of office hours.
Answer Description
Endpoint logs provide invaluable information regarding the activities occurring on individual systems. In this case, repeated login failures followed by a successful login often indicate a brute force attack, where an attacker has repeatedly attempted to log in using different passwords until the correct one is found. This is a common indication of a compromised account, which is why the answer detailing this pattern is correct. The other answers describe events that may be ordinary and not indicative of a security incident, such as a single successful login, periodic security scanning, or regular system updates.
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What is a brute force attack?
Why are endpoint logs important in investigating security incidents?
How can repeated login failures followed by a successful login indicate an issue?
When an employee suspects that an email message is a sophisticated spear phishing attempt, what is the most prudent immediate action for the security team?
Reply to the sender to confirm the validity of the email
Immediately shut down network services to prevent a potential breach
Quarantine the message to initiate a review process
Send out a company-wide alert about the potential spear phishing attempt
Answer Description
The most prudent immediate action is to quarantine the message to prevent any potential harm while maintaining its integrity for further investigation. Initiating a review process entails examining headers, sender information, and URLs using automated or manual procedures without activating any potentially malicious elements. Initiating a company-wide alert may cause unnecessary panic before the threat is confirmed, replying to the sender could lead to further compromise, and shutting down network services is premature and disruptive without evidence of a widespread issue.
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What does 'quarantining a message' involve in cybersecurity?
Why is replying to a suspicious email risky?
What is spear phishing, and how is it different from phishing?
Which of the following BEST describes the responsibility of an Owner in the context of data management and protection within an organization?
Conducting periodic audits and reviews of access controls and security measures
Determining the classification of the data and the necessary controls for its protection
Designing and implementing the system's technical architecture that supports data processing requirements
Executing routine tasks such as data backups and applying security patches to the data management systems
Answer Description
The Owner of a system or data is primarily responsible for determining the classification of the data and the controls necessary to protect it. They make decisions on how the data should be handled, dictate access controls, and are often decision-makers on acceptable risk levels for their data. While they may delegate certain tasks to others like Custodians or Processors, the Owner retains the ultimate responsibility for the data's security.
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What is the difference between a Data Owner and a Data Custodian?
What are examples of data classification levels?
How does a Data Owner balance security with operational needs?
A security analyst needs to test a potentially malicious executable file to understand its behavior. The analyst's primary concern is preventing the file from making any changes to the host operating system or accessing the corporate network. Which of the following security techniques would be MOST effective for this task?
Input validation
Static code analysis
Sandboxing
Code signing
Answer Description
The most effective technique for this scenario is sandboxing. Sandboxing creates a controlled, isolated environment where a potentially malicious application can be executed and observed without risking harm to the host system or the network. Code signing is a method to verify the authenticity and integrity of software but does not isolate it at runtime. Input validation is used to sanitize data being entered into an application to prevent attacks like SQL injection. Static code analysis involves examining the source code for vulnerabilities without executing the program. None of these other options provide the necessary isolated runtime environment for safely analyzing the executable's behavior.
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What is sandboxing in the context of cybersecurity?
How is sandboxing different from virtualization?
What are some examples of tools or use cases for sandboxing?
Which of the following is a physical device used to securely generate, store, and manage cryptographic keys, offering high levels of security for encryption processes?
Trusted Platform Module
Key Management System
Secure Enclave
Hardware Security Module
Answer Description
A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a physical device that provides secure generation, storage, and management of cryptographic keys. HSMs are designed to protect keys from unauthorized access and are used to enhance security in encryption processes. A Key Management System is typically software-based and manages keys but doesn't provide the physical security level of an HSM. A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security chip embedded in devices, used mainly for device authentication and integrity verification rather than comprehensive key management. A Secure Enclave is a secure area within a processor, primarily used in mobile devices to store sensitive data, but it is not a standalone device like an HSM.
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What is the difference between an HSM and a TPM?
How does an HSM enhance encryption security?
Can an HSM be used in cloud environments?
During a security review, an engineer recommends placing a research lab's file server on a network segment that has absolutely no wired or wireless links to any other network, including the internet. Which term best describes this type of physically isolated environment?
Serverless
Air-gapped
Microservices
Virtualized
Answer Description
An air-gapped environment is a security measure in which a computer or network is physically isolated from all external networks. With no wired or wireless interfaces connected to outside systems, data cannot enter or leave electronically, creating a strong barrier against remote attacks. Serverless, microservices, and virtualized environments may still rely on network connectivity, so they do not provide the same level of isolation.
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Why is an air-gapped system considered highly secure?
How is an air-gapped system used in real-world scenarios?
What are the challenges of maintaining an air-gapped system?
Which security control type is exemplified by organizational security policies and guidelines that direct the behavior of users and systems toward compliance?
Preventive control
Corrective control
Detective control
Directive control
Answer Description
Security policies, standards, and guidelines do not directly stop or detect attacks. Instead, they provide direction by defining required behaviors and rules. Because they set expectations and guide how people and systems should act, they are categorized as directive controls. Detective controls identify incidents after they occur, preventive controls stop incidents, and corrective controls restore normal operations.
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What are examples of directive controls in cybersecurity?
How do directive controls differ from preventive controls?
Why is it important for organizations to implement directive controls?
As part of its business operations, a company must store customers' personal information. The company understands that a data breach is a significant risk. If a breach occurred, the company could not afford the financial loss. Therefore, it has decided to purchase cybersecurity insurance to cover potential damages. Which risk management strategy is the company using?
Mitigation
Avoidance
Transference
Acceptance
Answer Description
Risk transference is a strategy that involves shifting the financial consequences of a risk to a third party. Purchasing insurance is the most common example of risk transference, as it moves the potential financial loss from an incident to the insurance provider.
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What is risk transference in cybersecurity?
How does cybersecurity insurance work?
What is the difference between risk transference and risk mitigation?
Asymmetric (public-key) cryptography is frequently used to protect the confidentiality of e-mail and web traffic. Which of the following statements BEST explains how asymmetric encryption achieves this confidentiality during data transmission?
A single shared secret key is exchanged over a secure channel and used for both encryption and decryption.
The sender signs the data with their private key so that anyone with the public key can decrypt and read it.
The sender encrypts the data with the recipient's public key, ensuring that only the corresponding private key can decrypt the message.
Data is split across redundant drives so that no single drive stores the entire plaintext.
Answer Description
With asymmetric encryption, the sender uses the recipient's public key to encrypt the data. Only the holder of the mathematically related private key can decrypt that ciphertext, so confidentiality is preserved even if the encrypted traffic is intercepted. In contrast, symmetric encryption relies on a single shared secret key (Answer 1), digital signatures created with a sender's private key provide integrity and authentication-not confidentiality (Answer 3), and striping data across drives (Answer 4) is a storage redundancy technique unrelated to encryption.
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How does the public key and private key work together in asymmetric encryption?
Why is asymmetric encryption considered more secure than symmetric encryption for certain tasks?
What are some common applications of asymmetric encryption?
During a routine vulnerability scan, a security analyst sees a clean report with no critical findings. Days later, a manual penetration test uncovers an unpatched web-server flaw that the scanner completely missed. Which term best describes this situation, where a real security issue was present but the detection tool failed to alert on it?
False security
True positive
False negative
False positive
Answer Description
A false negative occurs when a security control or detection tool fails to identify a real threat or vulnerability, incorrectly indicating that the environment is safe. This leaves actual risks unaddressed until discovered by other means. A false positive is the opposite problem-safe activity flagged as malicious. A true positive is an accurate alert on real malicious activity, while false security is not a formal term in detection theory.
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What are some common causes of false negatives in security systems?
How can organizations reduce the risk of false negatives?
What are the potential consequences of a false negative in cybersecurity?
During an annual review of security policies, a company discovered that multiple incidents related to data leakage were a result of employees accidentally sending proprietary information to external contacts. Which of the following would be the BEST approach to mitigate this type of unintentional data loss?
Enforce more stringent role-based access controls on proprietary data.
Increase the frequency of employee training on the acceptable use policy and proper data handling.
Implement data loss prevention (DLP) systems that can detect and block sensitive data from being sent via email.
Review and update the procedures for external communications to include stricter guidelines.
Answer Description
Implementing DLP systems enables the organization to prevent certain types of sensitive data from being sent outside the corporate network, which directly addresses the concern of accidental data leakage mentioned in the scenario. While training on policy and the review of existing procedures may help reduce incidents, they are reactive measures that don't offer the technological prevention that DLP systems do. Role-based access controls are essential for limiting data access but would not necessarily prevent data from being sent to unauthorized recipients.
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What is a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system?
How does DLP differ from role-based access control (RBAC)?
Why is employee training considered less effective than DLP systems for preventing data leaks?
An employee receives an email that appears to originate from a trusted department within the organization, requesting them to download an attached form to update their personal details. The email contains spelling errors and uses a generic greeting like 'Dear Team Member'. What is the most likely characteristic of this email?
This is a phishing attempt designed to steal personal information.
This is a request to update employee records.
This email contains a virus or ransomware.
This is a communication regarding system maintenance.
Answer Description
The email shows typical signs of a phishing attempt, including spelling errors, generic greetings, and unsolicited attachments. These characteristics are often used to trick recipients into divulging sensitive information or installing malware.
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What are common indicators of a phishing email?
How is phishing different from spear phishing?
What should you do if you suspect an email is phishing?
Which of the following best describes the process where a system or individual proves their identity by providing credentials to a verifying entity?
Multifactor
Authorization
Authentication
Accounting
Answer Description
Authentication is the correct term for the process where an entity (user, system, or process) proves its identity to a verifying entity by providing the appropriate credentials. Authorization refers to the granting of rights and permissions post-authentication, and accounting refers to the tracking of user activities, while multifactor indicates a means or type of authentication, not the process itself.
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What are some common methods of authentication?
How is authentication different from authorization?
What is the role of accounting in security, and how is it related to authentication?
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