CompTIA Server+ Practice Test (SK0-005)
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CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Information
The CompTIA Server+ (SK0‑005) certification is tailored for IT professionals aiming to validate their proficiency in installing, managing, securing, and troubleshooting server systems across data center, on‑premises, and hybrid environments. Launched in May 2021, this mid‑level exam comprises up to 90 multiple‑choice and performance‑based questions, to be completed in 90 minutes, and requires a passing score of 750 on a 100–900 scale. Candidates are expected to have approximately two years of hands‑on experience in server environments and should possess foundational knowledge equivalent to CompTIA A+ certification.
The exam covers four core domains: Server Hardware Installation and Management (18%), Server Administration (30%), Security and Disaster Recovery (24%), and Troubleshooting (28%).
The hardware domain includes tasks like racking servers, managing power and network cabling, configuring RAID, and maintaining various drive types, from SSDs to hybrid systems.
The administration domain focuses on OS installation (GUI, core, virtualized, or scripted), network configuration, server roles and virtualization, scripting basics, asset documentation, backup of configurations, and licensing concepts .
Security and disaster recovery encompass server hardening techniques, physical and data security, identity and access management, backup strategies (full, incremental, snapshot), and recovery planning including hot, warm, cold, and cloud-based site setup .
The troubleshooting domain emphasizes systematic problem-solving across hardware, storage, OS and software, network connectivity, and security issues, involving techniques such as diagnostics, log analysis, reseating components, and resolving boot errors or DHCP/DNS issues .
Aspiring candidates should follow a structured preparation plan using official exam objectives to guide their study. Practical experience and familiarity with real-world scenarios—especially using hands-on labs, performance-based exercises, scripting tasks, RAID configuration, virtualization, and disaster recovery setups—can significantly enhance readiness. This targeted strategy helps ensure both technical competence and confidence when tackling the SK0-005 Server+ exam.

- Free CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Practice Test
- 20 Questions
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- Server Hardware Installation and ManagementServer AdministrationSecurity and Disaster RecoveryTroubleshooting
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A data center technician is tasked with connecting a new server's Host Bus Adapter (HBA) to an existing storage area network (SAN) switch. The technician observes that the available ports on the switch require a fiber optic connector with a distinct square profile and a push-pull mating mechanism. Which connector type must the patch cable have to ensure a successful connection?
- SC 
- LC 
- ST 
- MPO 
Answer Description
The correct answer is SC (Subscriber Connector). This connector is characterized by its square-shaped body and a simple push-pull locking mechanism, which directly matches the physical description provided in the scenario. LC (Lucent Connector) connectors are smaller, more rectangular, and feature a retaining latch. ST (Straight Tip) connectors are round and use a bayonet-style twist-lock mechanism. MPO (Multi-fiber Push On) connectors are rectangular and much larger, as they terminate multiple fibers in a single connector for high-density backbone connections.
Ask Bash
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What is an HBA, and why is it important in a SAN setup?
How does an SC connector compare to other connector types in terms of design and usage?
What are the key benefits of using fiber optic cables in a SAN compared to traditional copper cables?
A data center technician is installing a new 2U server into a standard 19-inch 4-post rack. The technician successfully attaches the outer rails to the rack's vertical posts. However, when attempting to attach the corresponding inner rails to the server chassis, the mounting studs and keyhole slots do not align. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
- The rail kit is not compatible with the specific server model. 
- The rail kit is for a different U-size than the server. 
- The server chassis is designed exclusively for 2-post rack installations. 
- The rack posts are threaded instead of square. 
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the rail kit is not compatible with the specific server model. Server rail kits are frequently designed for specific models or generations of servers from a manufacturer, even within the same U-size. Differences in chassis dimensions, weight, and the precise location of mounting points necessitate a compatible rail kit for a secure and correct installation.
- A rail kit for a different U-size would also be incompatible, but the most specific and common issue is incompatibility with the server model itself, even when the U-size is correct. Therefore, the selected answer is the most likely cause.
- The scenario states that the outer rails were successfully attached to the rack posts, which rules out incompatibility with the rack's post type (threaded vs. square).
- It is highly improbable that a 2U server would be designed exclusively for 2-post racks due to its weight and depth; such servers almost always require the stability of a 4-post rack.
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Why are rail kits often specific to server models?
What are the differences between threaded and square rack posts?
What makes 2-post racks unsuitable for most 2U servers?
Your organization runs a file share on a rack-mount server that contains eight 2 TB 10 000-RPM SAS drives in a single RAID 6 virtual disk. The array's usable capacity is 12 TB, of which 80 percent is already occupied. Monitoring shows the data set is growing at a steady 4 percent per month. You must ensure the share has enough space to last the next 18 months while keeping the same RAID level and without exceeding the server's 12-drive backplane. During the next maintenance window, what is the minimum number of additional 2 TB disks you must install?
- Install three additional 2 TB disks. 
- Install four additional 2 TB disks. 
- Install two additional 2 TB disks. 
- Replace all existing drives with larger-capacity disks and rebuild an eight-drive RAID 6 array. 
Answer Description
The array currently holds 9.6 TB of data (12 TB × 0.80). Over 18 months that amount will grow by (1.04)^18 ≈ 2.03, reaching roughly 19.5 TB. A RAID 6 array provides usable capacity equal to (N − 2) × 2 TB, so each extra 2 TB drive adds exactly 2 TB of usable space. To raise usable capacity from 12 TB to at least 19.5 TB requires ⌈(19.5 − 12) / 2⌉ = 4 additional drives, bringing the array to 12 disks and 20 TB of usable space. Adding two or three drives would leave less than 19.5 TB, and a wholesale replacement with larger disks costs more than the minimum solution.
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Why does a RAID 6 array require at least 'N-2' drives for usable capacity?
How is the future storage requirement over 18 months calculated in this scenario?
What does adding more drives to the array do in terms of RAID 6 capacity?
A systems administrator is rolling out 120 identical rack-mount servers that must run Red Hat Enterprise Linux 9. The hosts can PXE-boot from a provisioning VLAN that already offers DHCP and an internal HTTP repository. The build must occur without any interactive input: the installer must partition the disks, select the required package groups, create a local administrator account, and reboot automatically when complete. Which installation approach BEST meets these requirements?
- Boot a generic cloud-init-enabled image and apply the required settings from user-data after first boot. 
- PXE-boot the servers while supplying an inst.ks= kernel parameter that points to a Kickstart file on the HTTP server. 
- Clone the disk of a preconfigured reference host to every new server with dd over SSH. 
- Mount the RHEL DVD ISO on each server and use the Anaconda text installer to walk through the setup screens. 
Answer Description
A Kickstart file can define every aspect of a RHEL installation-storage layout, software selection, user accounts, post-install scripts, and the automatic reboot directive. When the servers PXE-boot, adding the kernel parameter inst.ks=http://<server>/path/ks.cfg tells Anaconda to parse that file and perform an unattended installation, so no console interaction is needed.
Running the text-based Anaconda wizard (second option) is entirely manual and therefore violates the zero-touch requirement. Imaging each system with dd would copy mismatched UUIDs and hardware-specific settings and is not an installer‐supported scripted method. Cloud-init applies configuration only after a bootable OS image is in place; it cannot replace the initial OS installation itself, so it also fails to satisfy the requirement for a fully automated install.
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What is a Kickstart file in RHEL?
How does PXE boot work in a provisioning environment?
Why is cloning disks with **dd** not suitable for automated installs?
A systems administrator is tasked with installing four new, heavy 4U servers into a mostly empty 42U server rack. To ensure the stability of the rack and prevent accidents, what is the MOST important procedure to follow during the installation?
- Install the heaviest servers at the bottom of the rack and work upwards. 
- Position the servers in the middle of the rack to centralize the weight. 
- Confirm the floor's load-bearing capacity can support the fully populated rack. 
- Ensure at least two people or a server lift are used to place each server. 
Answer Description
The correct action is to install the heaviest servers at the bottom of the rack and work upwards. This practice creates a low center of gravity, which is the most critical factor for ensuring the rack's stability and preventing it from becoming top-heavy and tipping over. While having assistance for lifting is an important personal safety measure, it does not address the stability of the rack itself. Confirming the floor's load capacity is a crucial planning step that should be completed before the installation begins, not during the physical act of mounting the servers. Placing servers in the middle does not create the lowest possible center of gravity and is not the recommended best practice for stability.
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Why is creating a low center of gravity important for server rack stability?
What is a 4U server and how does it impact rack planning?
What tools or equipment can help safely install heavy servers into racks?
You are preparing to wheel a fully populated 42-U server cabinet onto a 600 mm × 600 mm (24 in × 24 in) raised-access floor in an existing server room. The cabinet's loaded weight is 1 800 kg (≈3 970 lb) distributed across four casters that will rest near the corners of a single floor panel. The access-floor vendor rates each panel for a static load of 1 000 lb (≈454 kg). Which action would BEST ensure the installation stays within the floor's load limitation before the rack is moved into place?
- Install the heaviest servers in the upper U-spaces to balance the cabinet's vertical weight distribution. 
- Anchor the rack frame through the raised floor directly into the concrete slab with seismic bolts. 
- Place a heavy-gauge steel load-spreader plate or raised-floor support platform so the rack's casters rest across two or more floor panels. 
- Replace the solid tile under the rack with a high-flow perforated tile to improve cooling beneath the cabinet. 
Answer Description
Each caster will impose about 450 kg (≈1 000 lb) on the tile it touches (1 800 kg ÷ 4). That equals the panel's maximum static rating and leaves no safety margin. Placing the casters on a steel load-spreader plate or purpose-built equipment support platform bridges the load over two or more adjacent panels (and the underlying stringers or pedestals), cutting the point and static load seen by any one tile roughly in half and bringing the installation safely below the rating.
Swapping in a perforated airflow tile does nothing to increase the tile's load capacity. Bolting the rack through the access floor anchors it but still concentrates the full weight on the tiles (and can damage the raised-floor system). Loading heavier servers higher in the cabinet changes the centre of gravity but has no effect on the force each caster applies to the floor.
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What is the purpose of a load-spreader plate in server rooms?
What is a static load, and how is it different from a dynamic load?
Why wouldn’t swapping with a perforated airflow tile increase the floor’s load capacity?
You are provisioning a new 42-U enclosure for a cluster of twelve dual-power-supply servers with an expected maximum draw of 400 W each. Two independent 30 A, 208 V branch circuits (A and B) terminate at the rack. The solution must provide redundant power paths so that loss of either circuit does not shut down the servers, allow remote per-outlet power cycling from the NOC, and conserve all 42 U of rack space for IT equipment. Which rack-PDU deployment BEST meets these requirements?
- Install two basic 1-U horizontal PDUs fed from circuit A and daisy-chain them behind the servers. 
- Install two switched zero-U vertical PDUs-one fed by circuit A and one fed by circuit B-mounted on opposite rear rails. 
- Install one metered zero-U vertical PDU on circuit A and one basic horizontal PDU on the same circuit, leaving circuit B unused. 
- Feed a single 1-U metered horizontal PDU from a 3-U static transfer switch that accepts circuits A and B. 
Answer Description
Using one switched zero-U (vertical) PDU on circuit A and a second switched zero-U PDU on circuit B is the only design that satisfies every requirement. Zero-U PDUs mount on the rack's side rails, so they do not consume any rack units reserved for IT gear. A switched model supplies per-outlet metering and remote on/off control, meeting the NOC's manageability requirement. By feeding each server's two power supplies from different PDUs/circuits, the rack keeps running if either circuit fails, providing true path-level redundancy.
The other proposals fall short: basic horizontal PDUs lack remote switching and occupy valuable rack space; using two PDUs on the same circuit eliminates redundancy; and placing a static-transfer switch upstream still leaves only one horizontal PDU and loses 4 U of space, while also failing to offer per-outlet control.
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What are zero-U PDUs, and why are they beneficial in this setup?
What is the difference between a switched PDU and a basic PDU?
Why is redundant power important, and how does this setup achieve it?
You are cabling a new 2U application server that has two hot-swappable power supplies. The rack is in a Tier III colocation facility that offers two completely independent UPS systems:
- UPS-A - powered by Utility Company #1
- UPS-B - powered by Utility Company #2
Every rack has an A-side PDU wired only to UPS-A and a B-side PDU wired only to UPS-B. The customer's service-level agreement demands that the server remain online even if one utility provider suffers a total outage. Which cabling practice BEST satisfies this requirement?
- Plug both power supplies into two different outlets on the A-side PDU to balance the load across phases. 
- Attach the first power supply to the A-side PDU and leave the second power supply disconnected for future maintenance use. 
- Feed a rack-mount static transfer switch from the B-side PDU only and connect both server power supplies to the switch. 
- Connect one power supply to a receptacle on the A-side PDU (UPS-A) and the other power supply to a receptacle on the B-side PDU (UPS-B). 
Answer Description
For maximum availability the two power supplies must follow different electrical paths all the way back to separate utility feeds. Plugging one PSU into the PDU that is fed by UPS-A and the other into the PDU fed by UPS-B creates two independent (2N) power paths. If Utility #1, UPS-A, or PDU-A fails, the server continues to draw power through Utility #2, UPS-B, and PDU-B, meeting the SLA. The other options leave both PSUs on the same power chain or leave one supply unused; a single failure in that chain would still drop the server, so they do not meet the requirement.
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What is a Tier III colocation facility?
What does 'hot-swappable power supply' mean?
What is a service-level agreement (SLA)?
While re-cabling a server row, a technician and a coworker must move a 70 lb (32 kg) 2U UPS from its shipping pallet onto the rails in the bottom 4U of a 42U cabinet. According to recommended proper lifting techniques, which action should they take to minimize the risk of musculoskeletal injury?
- Hoist the UPS above shoulder level first so it clears the rack posts, then lower it into place. 
- Stand an arm's length from the cabinet, grasp the UPS handles, and swing the unit sideways to align it with the rails in one motion. 
- Squat by bending your knees and hips, keep your back straight, hold the UPS close to your torso, and lift smoothly with your legs while the coworker stabilizes the chassis. 
- Keep your knees locked, bend at the waist, and straighten your back quickly to raise the UPS before sliding it into the rack. 
Answer Description
Safe-lifting guidance from OSHA and industry ergonomics references states that heavy objects should be kept as close to the body as possible, the spine should stay neutral, the knees and hips should be bent in a squat, and the weight should be raised smoothly with the legs. Twisting, lifting with a straight back, extending the load away from the torso, or raising it above shoulder height all increase the moment arm on the spine and greatly raise the chance of strains. Therefore the only option that follows accepted technique is the one that keeps the UPS close, maintains a straight back, and uses the legs for the lift.
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What is a 2U UPS and why is it used in a server rack?
Why is using proper lifting techniques critical for heavy equipment like a 70 lb UPS?
What are the risks of lifting heavy objects incorrectly, such as bending from the waist or twisting?
During a data-center expansion, a systems administrator is installing a rack-mount server whose NIC exposes two QSFP+ ports. The server must connect to a top-of-rack 40 GbE switch located about 2 m away in the same cabinet. Management wants the lowest-cost, lowest-power cabling that still delivers full 40 Gbps throughput. Which cabling solution should the administrator deploy?
- OM4 multimode MPO fiber with QSFP-40G-SR4 transceivers 
- Single-mode duplex LC fiber with QSFP-40G-LR4 transceivers 
- Passive QSFP+ direct-attach twinax copper cable 
- QSFP+ active optical cable (AOC) rated for up to 100 m 
Answer Description
Passive QSFP+ direct-attach copper (DAC) cables are purpose-built for very short in-rack runs-typically 0.5 m to 5 m on passive twinax-and provide the full 40 Gbps data rate with almost no additional power draw or optical components. Active optical cables (AOC) and SR4 multimode fiber require integrated or external optics that add both cost and power, and they are designed for tens to hundreds of meters rather than a 2 m jumper. LR4 single-mode fiber is intended for long-haul links up to 10 km and is the most expensive option, making it inappropriate for an in-rack connection.
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What is QSFP+ and how does it compare to other transceivers?
What is a passive direct-attach copper (DAC) cable and why is it suitable for short distances?
How does the power consumption of DAC cables compare to AOC and fiber solutions?
A manufacturing firm has documented a recovery point objective (RPO) of 2 hours for its network-attached CAD file share.
 The data-protection plan currently:
- takes a differential snapshot at 00:00 and 12:00, and
- replicates changed blocks to an off-site array every 30 minutes (at :00 and :30 past the hour).
On Tuesday the primary volume fails at 14:15.
Which statement BEST describes whether the documented RPO was achieved?
- The RPO was NOT satisfied because the most recent usable copy is the 12:00 snapshot, resulting in over two hours of lost data. 
- The RPO was NOT satisfied because the two-hour target refers to restoration time, and failover will exceed it. 
- The RPO was satisfied because the last 14:00 replication limits potential data loss to about 15 minutes. 
- The RPO was satisfied because the 12:00 differential snapshot is within two hours. 
Answer Description
Block-level replication runs every 30 minutes, so the most recent off-site copy was created at 14:00-only 15 minutes before the failure. Losing 15 minutes of work is well inside the 2-hour RPO, so the objective is met. Relying on the 12:00 snapshot would have lost more than two hours of data, and the 2-hour target applies to data-loss tolerance, not the time it takes to restore service (which is covered by the RTO).
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What is a Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
What is the difference between a snapshot and block-level replication?
What is the difference between an RPO and an RTO?
During a hardware refresh, a systems administrator populates the bottom 10 U and the top 8 U of a 42 U cabinet that sits in a raised-floor cold-aisle/hot-aisle layout. All installed 1 U servers draw air in from the front and exhaust out the rear. Soon after the systems come online, temperature probes on the front of the upper servers report inlet temperatures that are 8 °C higher than those recorded at the bottom of the rack, even though the CRAC supply temperature and airflow are within specification. Which rack-level action will BEST restore proper cooling for the affected servers?
- Rotate the top servers so their rear panels face the cold aisle and their fronts face the hot aisle. 
- Install blanking panels in the empty rack units between the two groups of servers. 
- Increase the CRAC fan speed to raise static pressure in the cold aisle. 
- Replace the perforated rear door of the cabinet with a solid door to keep exhaust air inside the rack. 
Answer Description
The open rack units located between the two groups of equipment allow hot exhaust air to curl back into the cold aisle and be drawn into the intakes of the upper servers. Installing blanking (filler) panels across those unused U-spaces seals the openings so cold supply air is forced through the equipment instead of bypassing it, eliminating recirculation and lowering inlet temperatures. Rotating servers so their rear panels face the cold aisle disrupts the hot-aisle/cold-aisle scheme and is specifically discouraged by industry guidelines. Swapping a perforated rear door for a solid door would trap heat rather than remove it, while increasing CRAC fan speed addresses room-level airflow-not the localized bypass caused by empty rack spaces-and wastes energy without fixing the root cause.
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What are blanking panels and why are they important in data center racks?
What is the purpose of a raised-floor cold-aisle/hot-aisle layout?
What is a CRAC unit and how does it manage air temperature in a data center?
A server administrator is deploying a new, mission-critical server that features dual, hot-swappable power supplies. The server rack is equipped with two separate Power Distribution Units (PDUs), labeled A and B. To provide the highest level of power fault tolerance for the server, which of the following connection strategies should be implemented?
- Connect both server power supplies to different outlets on PDU A, which is connected to a single, high-capacity UPS. 
- Connect one server power supply to PDU A and the other to PDU B. Each PDU should be connected to an independent Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) and a separate electrical circuit. 
- Connect one server power supply to PDU A and the other to PDU B, with both PDUs connected to the same UPS. 
- Connect one server power supply to PDU A on a UPS-protected circuit and the other server power supply directly to a separate, non-UPS wall outlet. 
Answer Description
The correct approach is to create two fully independent power paths, often referred to as an A/B power configuration. By connecting each of the server's power supplies to separate Power Distribution Units (PDUs), the configuration protects against a PDU failure. Ensuring each PDU is fed by an independent Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) on a separate electrical circuit protects against a UPS failure or a circuit breaker trip. This design eliminates any single point of failure in the power delivery system from the utility to the server. Connecting both power supplies to the same PDU or the same UPS creates a single point of failure, negating the benefit of having dual power supplies. Connecting one power supply to a non-UPS outlet removes the critical battery backup protection from that power path, exposing the server to data loss or downtime during a power outage.
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What is the purpose of using dual, hot-swappable power supplies in a server?
Why is it important to connect each PDU to an independent UPS and separate circuit?
What is an A/B power configuration and why is it used?
A systems administrator is connected to a Linux server using a standard, non-root user account. The administrator needs to edit the /etc/ntp.conf file to update the server's time sources but receives a "Permission denied" error when attempting to save the file. Which of the following commands should the administrator use to edit the file while adhering to the principle of least privilege?
- runas vi /etc/ntp.conf 
- sudo vi /etc/ntp.conf 
- su 
- chmod 777 /etc/ntp.conf 
Answer Description
The correct command is sudo vi /etc/ntp.conf. The sudo (superuser do) command is the standard and most secure method for executing a single command with elevated (root) privileges on a Linux system. It grants the necessary permissions for just that one command, adhering to the principle of least privilege. The su command would switch the user's entire shell to the root user, which provides more privilege than necessary for this single task. The runas command is a tool used on Windows operating systems to run a program as another user and is not applicable in a Linux environment. The chmod 777 /etc/ntp.conf command is a significant security risk; it would make the configuration file readable, writable, and executable by all users on the system, which is an insecure and improper way to manage system file permissions.
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What is the purpose of the 'sudo' command in Linux?
Why is using 'chmod 777' considered a security risk?
What is the difference between 'sudo' and 'su'?
A technician is preparing a 42-U four-post cabinet that will be installed in a raised-floor data-center row that uses a hot-aisle/cold-aisle arrangement. The rack must hold two 4-U, 95 kg rack-mount UPS units, sixteen 2-U servers that move air front-to-back, and one 1-U network switch. Which rack layout BEST follows industry guidelines for cooling efficiency and safety?
- Put the UPS units at the top rear of the rack, install the switch at the bottom front, and mount all servers below the UPS with their exhaust facing the cold aisle. 
- Start with servers in the lowest positions, mount the UPS units directly above them, and install the switch halfway up the rack to shorten Ethernet runs. 
- Install both UPS units in the lowest 8 U, mount every server so its intake faces the cold aisle directly above the UPS, and place the switch in the top-front U positions. 
- Mount the UPS units in the center of the rack to balance weight, alternate server orientation every 2 U, and place the switch at the top rear of the cabinet. 
Answer Description
Best practice is to keep the rack's center of gravity low by mounting the heaviest devices-such as battery-based UPS modules-in the lowest available U positions. All equipment that cools front-to-back should have its intake facing the cold aisle so that hot exhaust is discharged only into the hot aisle. Lightweight devices such as top-of-rack switches can safely be placed at the upper front of the cabinet. The layout that places the UPS units in the bottom 8 U, all servers above them with their fronts toward the cold aisle, and the switch in the highest front position therefore meets both cooling and tip-over safety recommendations. The other options either put heavy equipment high in the rack, reverse server airflow into the cold aisle, or alternate orientations in ways that recirculate hot air and complicate cable management.
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Why is it important to place heavy equipment like UPS units in the lowest U positions of a rack?
What is the purpose of hot-aisle/cold-aisle arrangements in a data center?
Why should the intake of front-to-back cooling servers always face the cold aisle?
A systems administrator is troubleshooting a physical server that has been randomly rebooting. The administrator theorized that the CPU was overheating. After monitoring the server's hardware sensors via the iDRAC, the administrator confirmed that CPU temperatures spike to critical levels just before each shutdown, which confirms the theory. According to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology, what is the very next step the administrator should take?
- Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. 
- Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures. 
- Establish a new theory of probable cause. 
- Implement the solution by immediately replacing the CPU cooling fan. 
Answer Description
The correct answer is to establish a plan of action. According to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology, after a theory has been tested and confirmed, the next step is to create a plan to resolve the issue. This plan would include steps like obtaining the replacement component (a new CPU fan/heatsink), scheduling a maintenance window to minimize user impact, notifying stakeholders, and outlining the exact procedure for the repair. Implementing the solution is the step that follows planning. Verifying system functionality happens after the solution is implemented. Establishing a new theory would only be necessary if the current theory was proven incorrect.
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What is the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
What is iDRAC, and how does it help with hardware monitoring?
What preventive measures can be implemented to avoid CPU overheating in servers?
An on-premises IT team is staging a new 42U cabinet. The bill of materials lists six 4U GPU servers, four 2U storage arrays, one 1U KVM switch, and 3U of blanking panels reserved for cable ingress and airflow management. After mounting this hardware, how many rack units will still be open for future expansion?
- 8U 
- 10U 
- 4U 
- 6U 
Answer Description
A full-height rack provides 42 rack units (RU). Add the space required by each item: GPU servers 6 × 4U = 24U; storage arrays 4 × 2U = 8U; KVM switch 1U; blanking panels 3U. Total consumed: 24 + 8 + 1 + 3 = 36U. Remaining capacity is 42U − 36U = 6U. The other options result from mis-adding one or more components or not subtracting from the rack's total height.
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What does 42U mean in a server rack?
What is the purpose of blanking panels in a server rack?
How do you calculate total space in a rack after mounting equipment?
A data-center technician must order a vertical rack PDU for a new row of servers. Each facility circuit delivers 208 V at 30 A and terminates in a locking receptacle. To ensure the PDU can draw the full current and resist accidental disconnection, which power-input plug type should the technician specify on the purchase order?
- IEC 60320 C14 coupler 
- NEMA 5-15P straight-blade plug 
- IEC 60320 C20 coupler 
- NEMA L6-30P locking plug 
Answer Description
The 30-ampere, 250-volt NEMA L6-30P is a twist-locking ("L") plug designed for two-pole, three-wire 208/240 V circuits. It is rated for the full 30 A provided by the branch circuit and its locking design prevents the cord from being pulled out accidentally-exactly what is required for a rack PDU on a 208 V/30 A feed.
The straight-blade NEMA 5-15P is limited to 125 V/15 A and would neither meet the voltage nor current requirement. IEC 60320 C14 inlets are normally found on the equipment side of power cords and are rated at only 10 A, far below the circuit capacity. IEC 60320 C20 inlets support up to 16-20 A (depending on certification) but still fall short of the 30 A draw and offer no locking mechanism. Therefore, only the NEMA L6-30P satisfies both the electrical rating and the physical security needed.
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What is a NEMA L6-30P plug and why is it commonly used in data centers?
Why can't a NEMA 5-15P plug support data center PDUs on a 208 V/30 A circuit?
What is the difference between an IEC 60320 C20 and NEMA L6-30P in terms of capacity and design?
A systems administrator is tasked with installing several new servers into a 42U rack that currently houses network switches in the top 5U. The new equipment includes a heavy 4U database server, a 2U application server, and two 1U web servers. To ensure the safety and stability of the rack, what is the correct order of installation, starting from the lowest available rack unit?
- Install the 2U server, then the 4U server, then the two 1U servers. 
- Install the 4U server, then the two 1U servers, then the 2U server. 
- Install the two 1U servers, then the 2U server, then the 4U server. 
- Install the 4U server, then the 2U server, then the two 1U servers. 
Answer Description
The correct answer is to install the 4U server, then the 2U server, and finally the two 1U servers. The fundamental principle of rack balancing for safety is to install the heaviest equipment at the bottom of the rack. This practice creates a low center of gravity, which minimizes the risk of the rack becoming top-heavy and tipping over, a significant safety hazard. In this scenario, the 4U database server is the heaviest component and must be installed first in the lowest available position. The next heaviest server, the 2U unit, should be installed above it, followed by the lightest 1U servers. The other installation orders are incorrect as they place lighter equipment below heavier equipment, raising the rack's center of gravity and making it dangerously unstable.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why should heavier equipment be installed at the bottom of a server rack?
What does 1U, 2U, or 4U mean in server terminology?
What tools or precautions should be used when installing heavy servers in a rack?
A systems administrator is tasked with the initial configuration of a new rack-mount server. The server is powered on but has not yet been assigned an IP address, making remote management tools unavailable. The administrator needs to establish a direct, command-line connection to the server's management interface using a modern laptop that lacks a native DB-9 serial port. Which of the following combinations of hardware is MOST likely required to complete this task?
- A KVM switch and a standard VGA cable. 
- A USB Type-C to Ethernet adapter and a patch cable. 
- A crossover cable and an SFP+ transceiver. 
- A USB-to-serial adapter and a rollover (console) cable. 
Answer Description
The correct answer is a USB-to-serial adapter and a rollover (console) cable. This combination is the standard method for connecting a modern computer, which typically lacks a serial port, to the console port of a server or network device for direct command-line access. The USB-to-serial adapter provides the necessary serial interface via a USB port. The rollover cable, also known as a console cable, has a specific pinout designed to connect a terminal (the administrator's laptop) to the device's console port (often an RJ-45 connector).
- A crossover cable and an SFP+ transceiver are used for establishing a direct, high-speed Ethernet network connection between two devices, which is not applicable here since the server has no IP configuration and a console connection is required.
- A KVM switch and a VGA cable are used for managing a server via its local graphical interface (keyboard, video, mouse), not for the specific task of establishing a command-line session through a dedicated serial console port.
- A USB Type-C to Ethernet adapter and a patch cable would provide the administrator's laptop with a wired network connection but would not facilitate a direct serial console connection to the server.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a rollover (console) cable, and why is it used?
Why is a USB-to-serial adapter necessary for modern laptops?
How do you configure the direct connection to a server's console port?
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