CompTIA Server+ Practice Test (SK0-005)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Server+ Practice Test (SK0-005). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Information
The CompTIA Server+ (SK0‑005) certification is tailored for IT professionals aiming to validate their proficiency in installing, managing, securing, and troubleshooting server systems across data center, on‑premises, and hybrid environments. Launched in May 2021, this mid‑level exam comprises up to 90 multiple‑choice and performance‑based questions, to be completed in 90 minutes, and requires a passing score of 750 on a 100–900 scale. Candidates are expected to have approximately two years of hands‑on experience in server environments and should possess foundational knowledge equivalent to CompTIA A+ certification.
The exam covers four core domains: Server Hardware Installation and Management (18%), Server Administration (30%), Security and Disaster Recovery (24%), and Troubleshooting (28%).
The hardware domain includes tasks like racking servers, managing power and network cabling, configuring RAID, and maintaining various drive types, from SSDs to hybrid systems.
The administration domain focuses on OS installation (GUI, core, virtualized, or scripted), network configuration, server roles and virtualization, scripting basics, asset documentation, backup of configurations, and licensing concepts .
Security and disaster recovery encompass server hardening techniques, physical and data security, identity and access management, backup strategies (full, incremental, snapshot), and recovery planning including hot, warm, cold, and cloud-based site setup .
The troubleshooting domain emphasizes systematic problem-solving across hardware, storage, OS and software, network connectivity, and security issues, involving techniques such as diagnostics, log analysis, reseating components, and resolving boot errors or DHCP/DNS issues .
Aspiring candidates should follow a structured preparation plan using official exam objectives to guide their study. Practical experience and familiarity with real-world scenarios—especially using hands-on labs, performance-based exercises, scripting tasks, RAID configuration, virtualization, and disaster recovery setups—can significantly enhance readiness. This targeted strategy helps ensure both technical competence and confidence when tackling the SK0-005 Server+ exam.

Free CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Server Hardware Installation and ManagementServer AdministrationSecurity and Disaster RecoveryTroubleshooting
A server administrator executes the following PowerShell command:
$serviceState = (Get-Service -Name "wuauserv").Status
Which statement BEST describes the function of $serviceState
in this context?
It is an array that will hold all properties of the
wuauserv
service object.It is a command alias used to restart the
wuauserv
service.It is an environment variable that sets the display name for the service.
It is a variable that will store the value of the
Status
property from the service object.
Answer Description
The correct choice explains that $serviceState
is a variable used to store the value of the Status
property (such as "Running" or "Stopped") from the ServiceController
object returned by Get-Service
for the wuauserv
service. The parentheses ensure that the Get-Service
command runs first, then its Status
property is accessed and the resulting value is assigned to the variable.
The other answers are incorrect for these reasons:
- Selecting an entire object or multiple properties without expansion would return a
ServiceController
object-or a collection if multiple objects were targeted-not a single property value. - A command alias is a symbolic shortcut (for example,
gsv
forGet-Service
) and never begins with$
. - Environment variables require the
env:
drive prefix (for example,$Env:PATH
). Variables that begin with$
alone are ordinary PowerShell variables that reside in the current scope unless an explicit scope modifier ($script:
,$global:
) is used.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a PowerShell variable?
What does `Get-Service` do in PowerShell?
What role do parentheses play in PowerShell commands?
A data center technician is tasked with connecting a new server's Host Bus Adapter (HBA) to an existing storage area network (SAN) switch. The technician observes that the available ports on the switch require a fiber optic connector with a distinct square profile and a push-pull mating mechanism. Which connector type must the patch cable have to ensure a successful connection?
MPO
LC
ST
SC
Answer Description
The correct answer is SC (Subscriber Connector). This connector is characterized by its square-shaped body and a simple push-pull locking mechanism, which directly matches the physical description provided in the scenario. LC (Lucent Connector) connectors are smaller, more rectangular, and feature a retaining latch. ST (Straight Tip) connectors are round and use a bayonet-style twist-lock mechanism. MPO (Multi-fiber Push On) connectors are rectangular and much larger, as they terminate multiple fibers in a single connector for high-density backbone connections.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an HBA, and why is it important in a SAN setup?
How does an SC connector compare to other connector types in terms of design and usage?
What are the key benefits of using fiber optic cables in a SAN compared to traditional copper cables?
A server administrator is tasked with implementing a new data protection plan for several systems but has a limited budget for high-end security controls like advanced encryption and real-time replication. To ensure the most critical assets are protected first, the administrator performs a business impact analysis. Which of the following systems should be prioritized for the highest level of security controls?
A server hosting the customer relationship management (CRM) database containing personally identifiable information (PII).
A development server used by the in-house programming team for testing new application features.
A public-facing web server that hosts the company's static marketing website.
An internal file server containing marketing materials and departmental documents.
Answer Description
The correct answer is the server hosting the CRM database with PII. Data value prioritization requires evaluating the business impact if data is compromised. Data containing PII has the highest value and represents the greatest risk due to severe regulatory fines (e.g., GDPR, CCPA), legal liability, and significant reputational damage from a breach. Therefore, it must be the top priority for advanced security controls. The development server contains test data, the internal file server has a lower operational impact, and the public web server contains data that is already public. While the availability of these other systems is important, the data they contain is of significantly lower value and risk compared to customer PII.
Ask Bash
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What is Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?
What is a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?
What are advanced security controls, and why might they be costly?
Your organization operates a headless Fedora Server that functions as a KVM hypervisor. The CI/CD pipeline must invoke shell commands over SSH to start, stop, and query virtual machines on that host; no graphical desktop environment is installed. Which built-in management interface is the best choice for this requirement?
VMware ESXi Direct Console User Interface (DCUI)
virt-manager graphical Virtual Machine Manager
virsh command-line utility provided by libvirt
Hyper-V Manager Microsoft Management Console snap-in
Answer Description
The virsh utility is the native command-line interface for libvirt on a KVM host. It connects to the local or a remote libvirt daemon so that administrators-or automation tools-can issue VM lifecycle commands entirely from a shell script, making it ideal for headless servers managed over SSH. virt-manager needs a local X-based desktop session; Hyper-V Manager runs only on Windows and manages Hyper-V hosts; VMware's Direct Console User Interface appears on an ESXi server's physical console and is intended for local manual use, not scripted automation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is KVM and how does it function as a hypervisor?
What is the role of the libvirt daemon when using virsh?
Why is virsh more suitable for headless servers compared to graphical tools?
While cleaning up a PowerShell provisioning script, a junior administrator tried to disable a five-line section by wrapping it like this:
<#
Set-ExecutionPolicy RemoteSigned
Restart-Service WinRM
*/
The script immediately fails with a tokenization error. Which delimiter should replace the closing "*/" so that the block is parsed as a valid PowerShell comment?
--
//
*/
#>
Answer Description
PowerShell supports multi-line (block) comments that begin with the characters "<#" and end with the characters "#>". Any text between those two markers is ignored by the interpreter, regardless of how many lines it spans. Replacing the incorrect "/" terminator with "#>" creates a properly formed <# … #>
block comment and allows the script to run. The other delimiters shown are used in other languages ("/" in C-style languages, "//" for single-line comments in C/C++, "--" in SQL) and will still generate a syntax error in PowerShell.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does PowerShell use `<#` and `#>` for multi-line comments?
What is the difference between PowerShell single-line and multi-line comments?
What happens if you use incorrect comment delimiters in PowerShell?
A systems administrator receives multiple alerts for a production database server. Automated database backups have been failing for the last 12 hours. The database application service is also failing to restart after unexpected crashes. When the administrator attempts to open the application's primary log file to investigate, the operation fails with an error indicating the action cannot be completed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of these combined issues?
The server's data volume has insufficient disk space.
A recent OS patch has created a driver incompatibility.
The database server has a memory leak.
The RAID controller's cache battery has failed.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that the server's data volume has insufficient disk space. A full disk volume explains all the reported symptoms. Database backups will fail if there is no space to write the backup file. A database service may crash if it cannot write to its logs or temporary files, and it will fail to restart for the same reason. An attempt to open a log file could also fail if the operating system or text editor needs to create a temporary file to display the content but cannot due to lack of space. The combination of failing backups, a crashing service, and the inability to perform a simple file operation strongly points to a lack of storage space on the critical volume.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does insufficient disk space cause database backups to fail?
How does a lack of disk space cause a database service to crash?
Why might a log file fail to open if the disk is full?
While adding a new A record to the BIND zone file for the internal finance.example.com DNS zone, you notice the file begins with the directive
$ORIGIN finance.example.com.
Any record name that does not end with a dot will have that origin automatically appended. The application team has asked you to enter the server name as a fully qualified domain name (FQDN) that is absolute so the origin will not be appended again. Which record name meets this requirement?
app05.finance.example.com.
app05
app05.finance.example.com
app05.finance
Answer Description
In a DNS zone file, a name that ends with a trailing dot is treated as an absolute (fully qualified) domain name. The dot represents the root of the DNS hierarchy, so BIND will not append the current $ORIGIN. "app05.finance.example.com." therefore resolves exactly as written. If the dot were omitted, BIND would treat the name as relative and append finance.example.com again, producing an invalid duplicate. The shorter labels lack the parent domain and are not fully qualified.
Ask Bash
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What is a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)?
Why does the trailing dot in DNS records matter?
What is the purpose of the $ORIGIN directive in a DNS zone file?
A Windows Server 2019 VM in the production cluster has begun blue-screening overnight. For security reasons you are not allowed to open an RDP session to the server, but the machine is online and reporting to Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM). You need to grab the server's CCM log files (such as WUAHandler.log and ScanAgent.log) so you can review them on the site server without logging on to the VM. Which SCCM client-notification action should you trigger from the Configuration Manager console to accomplish this task?
Collect Client Logs
Download computer policy
Evaluate software update deployments
Enable verbose logging
Answer Description
The client-diagnostics action Collect Client Logs instructs the selected SCCM client to compress all of its CCM log files (up to 100 MB) and upload them to the management point, where they can be opened from Resource Explorer on the site server. This provides immediate access to the logs needed for troubleshooting without requiring interactive login.
- Enable verbose logging only changes the detail level of future log entries and does not retrieve existing logs.
- Evaluate software update deployments launches a compliance scan but does not copy log files to the site server.
- Download computer policy forces a policy refresh; again, no log files are transferred.
Therefore, Collect Client Logs is the correct action.
Ask Bash
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What is Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM)?
What are CCM log files, and what do they include?
How does the 'Collect Client Logs' action work in SCCM?
A manufacturing firm has documented a recovery point objective (RPO) of 2 hours for its network-attached CAD file share.
The data-protection plan currently:
- takes a differential snapshot at 00:00 and 12:00, and
- replicates changed blocks to an off-site array every 30 minutes (at :00 and :30 past the hour).
On Tuesday the primary volume fails at 14:15.
Which statement BEST describes whether the documented RPO was achieved?
The RPO was NOT satisfied because the two-hour target refers to restoration time, and failover will exceed it.
The RPO was satisfied because the last 14:00 replication limits potential data loss to about 15 minutes.
The RPO was satisfied because the 12:00 differential snapshot is within two hours.
The RPO was NOT satisfied because the most recent usable copy is the 12:00 snapshot, resulting in over two hours of lost data.
Answer Description
Block-level replication runs every 30 minutes, so the most recent off-site copy was created at 14:00-only 15 minutes before the failure. Losing 15 minutes of work is well inside the 2-hour RPO, so the objective is met. Relying on the 12:00 snapshot would have lost more than two hours of data, and the 2-hour target applies to data-loss tolerance, not the time it takes to restore service (which is covered by the RTO).
Ask Bash
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What is a Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
What is the difference between a snapshot and block-level replication?
What is the difference between an RPO and an RTO?
A systems administrator is hardening a new payroll system that houses credit-card data. She enables Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) on the SQL Server 2022 database files and establishes a site-to-site VPN that uses IPsec ESP to encrypt the nightly replication traffic between headquarters and the disaster-recovery site. According to the company's policy, encryption controls must align with the correct paradigm. Which statement correctly maps each control to its encryption paradigm?
TDE protects data in transit, and IPsec protects data at rest.
Both TDE and IPsec protect data at rest only.
Both TDE and IPsec protect data in transit only.
TDE protects data at rest, and IPsec protects data in transit.
Answer Description
Transparent Data Encryption works at the storage layer of SQL Server, encrypting database and log files that reside on disk; therefore, it addresses the data-at-rest paradigm. IPsec's Encapsulating Security Payload encrypts IP packets while they traverse the network, protecting confidentiality as the data moves between sites, so it falls under the data-in-transit paradigm. The other options either reverse the paradigms or claim both controls protect only one state of data, which is inaccurate.
Ask Bash
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What is Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)?
What is IPsec ESP and how does it protect data in transit?
What are the 'data at rest' and 'data in transit' paradigms?
A software vendor plans to ship a small license file with each on-premises installation of its application. At start-up, the application must verify that the file has not been altered and must work even when the server is offline or isolated from the Internet or a central license server. Which licensing model most directly satisfies this tamper-resistant requirement?
Signature-based licensing that embeds a vendor-signed certificate in the license file
Concurrent (floating) licensing that checks out seats from a central license server
Per-core licensing that charges according to the number of CPU cores
Node-locked licensing tied to the system's hardware fingerprint
Answer Description
In a signature-based model, the vendor signs the license data with its private key. When the application starts, it uses the vendor's public key to validate the digital signature inside the file. Any modification to the expiry date, feature list, or seat count changes the file's hash, causing signature verification to fail and the software to refuse to run. Node-locked licensing binds a license to specific hardware but does not necessarily protect the file from editing. Per-core licensing is simply a counting metric, and concurrent (floating) licensing relies on a network license server rather than local cryptographic validation. Therefore, signature-based licensing is the only option that meets the vendor's requirement for local, tamper-evident enforcement.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a digital signature in the context of software licensing?
How does a vendor's signed certificate ensure tamper resistance?
Why wouldn’t node-locked licensing satisfy the tamper-resistant requirement?
A server that hosts a write-intensive SQL database uses eight 10 K RPM SAS disks on a hardware RAID controller with 1 GB of battery-backed cache. According to the build book, the volume should deliver the highest possible write throughput while still surviving the loss of one disk in each mirrored pair. After a recent controller replacement and array rebuild, administrators notice that large batch inserts now take three times longer and the controller dashboard shows constant parity-calculation activity. The logical drive is currently defined as RAID 50 with a 256 KB stripe size. Which change would BEST correct the improper RAID configuration and restore the expected write performance without sacrificing fault tolerance?
Recreate the logical drive as RAID 10 across all eight disks.
Convert the array to RAID 6 and add a global hot spare.
Enable read-ahead caching on the controller and retain the current RAID 50 layout.
Keep RAID 50 but reduce the stripe size from 256 KB to 32 KB.
Answer Description
RAID 10 (striped mirrors) has no parity overhead, so write I/O is limited only by the spindle count and controller cache; it still tolerates one disk failure per mirrored pair. RAID 50, RAID 6, and other parity-based levels must read old parity, recalculate it, and write new parity on every write, introducing significant latency-exactly the behaviour now seen on the controller. Simply changing stripe size or enabling read-ahead does not remove the parity penalty, and RAID 6 adds even more write overhead. Re-creating the volume as RAID 10 therefore resolves the performance issue while maintaining redundancy.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the main difference between RAID 10 and RAID 50 configurations?
Why does RAID 10 perform better than RAID 50 for write-intensive workloads?
What role does the stripe size play in RAID configurations, and why wouldn’t changing it improve performance in this scenario?
A systems administrator is provisioning a new virtual machine (VM) that will function as a production database server. A key requirement is that the VM must be accessible on the corporate LAN using an IP address from the same subnet as the physical servers, allowing other devices to communicate with it directly. Which virtual networking mode should the administrator configure for the VM's network adapter to meet this requirement?
Host-only
Bridged
Private
NAT
Answer Description
The correct answer is Bridged networking. In bridged mode, the virtual machine's network adapter connects directly to the physical network through the host's physical adapter. This makes the VM appear as a distinct physical device on the network, allowing it to get its own IP address from the LAN's DHCP server or be assigned a static IP within the same subnet. This configuration fulfills the requirement for the VM to be directly accessible by other clients and servers on the corporate LAN.
- NAT (Network Address Translation) is incorrect because it creates a private network for the VM and uses the host's IP address for communication with the external network. Other devices on the LAN cannot directly access services on the VM without special configuration like port forwarding.
- Host-only networking is incorrect as it creates an isolated network that only allows communication between the VM and the host computer. It does not provide connectivity to the corporate LAN.
- Private networking is also incorrect because it creates a virtual network that is isolated to only the VMs running on the host, without connectivity to the host machine or the external physical network.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the key differences between bridged networking and NAT networking in virtualization?
How does a VM obtain an IP address in bridged networking mode?
When would you use host-only networking instead of bridged networking?
During a hardware refresh, a company retires a 1 U rack-mount server that previously stored sensitive PCI-DSS data. Management decides to repurpose the unit for an isolated QA lab instead of sending it to an electronics recycler. According to accepted decommissioning and recycling best practices, which step must be completed before the server is connected to the lab network?
Perform a NIST SP 800-88-compliant wipe of all installed drives (or replace the drives entirely) to remove residual data.
Remove any production VLAN assignments from the switch port that will serve the repurposed server.
Retag the chassis with a new asset number and update the configuration-management database.
Replace the dual 750 W power supplies with lower-wattage units to reduce energy consumption in the lab.
Answer Description
Before any retired server is reused, every internal storage device must be sanitized (or replaced) so no reconstructable remnants of production data remain. NIST SP 800-88 identifies sanitization as mandatory whenever media leave their original security boundary-even for internal transfer or reuse-because residual data can be recovered with forensic tools. Overwriting, cryptographic erase, or drive replacement eliminates that risk and enables the hardware to be safely redeployed. The other actions (swapping power supplies, removing VLAN tags, or updating asset and CMDB records) may be useful later, but they do not mitigate the immediate data-exposure threat that exists as soon as the server is repowered.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is NIST SP 800-88, and why is it important for data sanitization?
What are the acceptable methods for performing a compliant drive wipe under NIST SP 800-88?
Why is it risky to reuse drives without sanitizing them properly?
A systems administrator at a financial institution is decommissioning a server that stored sensitive customer data on several magnetic hard disk drives (HDDs). The company's security policy mandates that the storage media be physically destroyed in a way that reduces them to fragments, ensuring the platters cannot be reassembled or forensically analyzed. Which of the following methods best meets this specific requirement?
Drilling
Shredding
Degaussing
Wiping
Answer Description
The correct answer is shredding. Shredding uses specialized equipment to cut the hard drives, including the platters, into small, irregular fragments. This process directly meets the policy requirement of reducing the media to fragments, making it virtually impossible to reassemble the platters or recover data. Degaussing is incorrect because it is a magnetic sanitization method that erases data but does not physically destroy or fragment the drive. Drilling is a physical destruction method, but it only creates holes in the platters, leaving large sections of the magnetic surface intact and potentially recoverable. Wiping is a software-based data sanitization method that overwrites data and does not physically alter the drive at all.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the main difference between shredding and degaussing when destroying HDDs?
Why is drilling not as effective as shredding for HDD destruction?
Can wiping be used in place of physical destruction for sensitive data, and why not?
An administrator is tasked with deploying dozens of new virtual servers in the cloud. Each server, upon its first boot, must automatically install a baseline set of applications, configure network settings, apply security hardening policies, and enroll in the company's device management system. Which of the following terms BEST describes the script or process used to perform this initial automated configuration?
Bootstrap script
Scheduled task
Failover script
Login script
Answer Description
The correct answer is a bootstrap script. Bootstrapping is the process of using a script to automate the initial configuration of a server when it is first launched. This is a common practice in cloud and virtualized environments to ensure new instances are brought to a desired, consistent state without manual intervention. The script typically handles tasks like installing software, applying security configurations, and registering the server with management systems.
A login script runs when a user logs into a system and is used to configure the user's environment, not the initial state of the server itself. A scheduled task is a script or program configured to run at predetermined times or intervals for ongoing maintenance, not for a one-time initial setup. A failover script is used in a high-availability environment to switch operations to a redundant or standby system in the event of a primary system failure, which is a different purpose from initial server configuration.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a bootstrap script in server configuration?
How does a bootstrap script differ from a login script?
What tools can be used to create and run bootstrap scripts in a cloud environment?
A Windows Server 2022 administrator is creating a PowerShell script that will
- stop a custom service,
- apply a security patch,
- restart the same service.
The script must run automatically every time the server is shut down for scheduled maintenance and must execute with Local System privileges without requiring any ongoing user interaction. Which implementation method best meets these requirements with the least administrative overhead?
Add the script path to the PowerShell
$Profile
of the built-in Administrator account so it executes whenever that user starts a shell.Copy a shortcut to the script into C:\ProgramData\Microsoft\Windows\Start Menu\Programs\Startup so it launches during startup and shutdown.
Create a Scheduled Task that triggers on User Logoff and runs the script with the highest privileges.
Assign the script as a computer Shutdown script in Local (Group) Policy under Computer Configuration > Windows Settings > Scripts (Startup/Shutdown).
Answer Description
Shutdown scripts configured through Local or Domain Group Policy (Computer Configuration > Windows Settings > Scripts - Shutdown) are processed automatically whenever the operating system enters the shutdown phase. Windows executes these scripts in the Local System context, providing the elevated rights needed to stop services, install updates, and restart services without additional credentials. Once linked, no further scheduling or profile changes are required.
A Scheduled Task tied to User Logoff does not fire during a system shutdown that occurs with no interactive user session and therefore would be unreliable. PowerShell profile files run only when the specified user launches a PowerShell session, not during an unattended shutdown. Placing a script in the common Startup folder causes it to execute after boot, not during shutdown, and offers no guarantee of Local System privileges. Hence, the Group Policy shutdown-script mechanism is the most suitable solution.
Ask Bash
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What is a Group Policy Shutdown Script?
Why does a Scheduled Task triggered on User Logoff not work during shutdown?
What is the difference between running a script using PowerShell $Profile and a Group Policy Shutdown Script?
While maintaining Windows Server startup scripts written in VBScript, you discover that a typo in a variable name let the script run with an unintended Variant variable instead of failing. Which single-line directive should you place at the very top of each .vbs file so the script engine forces explicit variable declarations and stops when an undeclared name is used?
Option Strict
Use Strict Variable
Option Explicit
Dim All
Answer Description
VBScript honors the statement "Option Explicit" when it appears before any other code in the file. With this directive enabled, every variable must be declared with Dim, ReDim, or another declaration statement; an undeclared or misspelled identifier causes a compilation error, preventing the silent creation of a Variant. "Option Strict" is a .NET-only directive that VBScript does not recognize, and the phrases "Dim All" and "Use Strict Variable" are not valid VBScript syntax, so they have no effect on variable declaration checking.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is 'Option Explicit' important in VBScript?
What is a Variant variable in VBScript?
How does VBScript differ from VB.NET regarding variable declaration?
A systems administrator is troubleshooting a production server that is exhibiting unusually high network traffic and CPU utilization. However, when the administrator runs standard command-line tools like netstat
and top
, the reported processes and connections do not account for the resource usage. An anti-malware scan of the running operating system completes without detecting any threats. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing these symptoms?
Polymorphic virus
Ransomware
Adware
Rootkit
Answer Description
The correct answer is a rootkit. A rootkit is a type of malicious software designed to gain privileged access to a computer while actively hiding its presence. It often modifies core operating system components or the kernel to conceal its processes, files, and network activity from standard monitoring tools like netstat
or Task Manager. This aligns perfectly with the scenario where resource utilization is high, but the responsible processes are not visible to the administrator.
- A polymorphic virus is incorrect because while it changes its code to evade signature-based antivirus detection, it does not inherently hide its active processes or network connections from OS-level monitoring tools.
- Ransomware's primary goal is to encrypt files and demand a payment, a very overt and noticeable action, rather than hiding its own resource consumption.
- Adware is focused on displaying unwanted advertisements and is typically a nuisance on client machines, not a stealthy, resource-intensive threat on servers.
Ask Bash
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What is a rootkit and how does it work?
How can systems administrators detect and remove rootkits?
What distinguishes a rootkit from other types of malware?
A datacenter team performs a full backup to LTO-9 tape every night.
- Monday-Thursday tapes are overwritten the next week.
- Each Friday tape is kept for five weeks before reuse.
- The last Friday tape of each month is archived for 12 months, and the December copy is stored permanently off-site.
Which tape-media rotation methodology does this schedule implement?
Tower of Hanoi rotation
Grandfather-Father-Son rotation
Reverse incremental rotation
First-in/first-out rotation
Answer Description
The described schedule creates three successive generations of media:
- Daily copies (sons) that are reused the following week.
- Weekly copies (fathers) that are retained for several weeks.
- Monthly and yearly copies (grandfathers) that are archived long-term.
This hierarchy of daily, weekly, monthly, and annual full backups is the hallmark of the Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) rotation scheme.
Tower of Hanoi also reuses tapes but follows a power-of-two interval pattern rather than fixed daily/weekly/monthly sets. First-in/first-out simply overwrites the oldest tape in a fixed pool and lacks long-term archival copies. Reverse incremental is a backup file chaining method, not a tape rotation schedule. Therefore, Grandfather-Father-Son is the only option that matches the scenario.
Ask Bash
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What is the Grandfather-Father-Son (GFS) rotation method?
What are the advantages of using the GFS method?
How does GFS compare to other rotation methods like Tower of Hanoi?
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