CompTIA Server+ Practice Test (SK0-005)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA Server+ Practice Test (SK0-005). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Information
The CompTIA Server+ (SK0‑005) certification is tailored for IT professionals aiming to validate their proficiency in installing, managing, securing, and troubleshooting server systems across data center, on‑premises, and hybrid environments. Launched in May 2021, this mid‑level exam comprises up to 90 multiple‑choice and performance‑based questions, to be completed in 90 minutes, and requires a passing score of 750 on a 100–900 scale. Candidates are expected to have approximately two years of hands‑on experience in server environments and should possess foundational knowledge equivalent to CompTIA A+ certification.
The exam covers four core domains: Server Hardware Installation and Management (18%), Server Administration (30%), Security and Disaster Recovery (24%), and Troubleshooting (28%).
The hardware domain includes tasks like racking servers, managing power and network cabling, configuring RAID, and maintaining various drive types, from SSDs to hybrid systems.
The administration domain focuses on OS installation (GUI, core, virtualized, or scripted), network configuration, server roles and virtualization, scripting basics, asset documentation, backup of configurations, and licensing concepts .
Security and disaster recovery encompass server hardening techniques, physical and data security, identity and access management, backup strategies (full, incremental, snapshot), and recovery planning including hot, warm, cold, and cloud-based site setup .
The troubleshooting domain emphasizes systematic problem-solving across hardware, storage, OS and software, network connectivity, and security issues, involving techniques such as diagnostics, log analysis, reseating components, and resolving boot errors or DHCP/DNS issues .
Aspiring candidates should follow a structured preparation plan using official exam objectives to guide their study. Practical experience and familiarity with real-world scenarios—especially using hands-on labs, performance-based exercises, scripting tasks, RAID configuration, virtualization, and disaster recovery setups—can significantly enhance readiness. This targeted strategy helps ensure both technical competence and confidence when tackling the SK0-005 Server+ exam.

Free CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Server Hardware Installation and ManagementServer AdministrationSecurity and Disaster RecoveryTroubleshooting
You are cabling a new 2U application server that has two hot-swappable power supplies. The rack is in a Tier III colocation facility that offers two completely independent UPS systems:
- UPS-A - powered by Utility Company #1
- UPS-B - powered by Utility Company #2
Every rack has an A-side PDU wired only to UPS-A and a B-side PDU wired only to UPS-B. The customer's service-level agreement demands that the server remain online even if one utility provider suffers a total outage. Which cabling practice BEST satisfies this requirement?
Plug both power supplies into two different outlets on the A-side PDU to balance the load across phases.
Feed a rack-mount static transfer switch from the B-side PDU only and connect both server power supplies to the switch.
Connect one power supply to a receptacle on the A-side PDU (UPS-A) and the other power supply to a receptacle on the B-side PDU (UPS-B).
Attach the first power supply to the A-side PDU and leave the second power supply disconnected for future maintenance use.
Answer Description
For maximum availability the two power supplies must follow different electrical paths all the way back to separate utility feeds. Plugging one PSU into the PDU that is fed by UPS-A and the other into the PDU fed by UPS-B creates two independent (2N) power paths. If Utility #1, UPS-A, or PDU-A fails, the server continues to draw power through Utility #2, UPS-B, and PDU-B, meeting the SLA. The other options leave both PSUs on the same power chain or leave one supply unused; a single failure in that chain would still drop the server, so they do not meet the requirement.
Ask Bash
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What is a Tier III colocation facility?
What does 'hot-swappable power supply' mean?
What is a service-level agreement (SLA)?
A server administrator is tasked with adding a new hard drive to a rack-mount server to expand its storage capacity. The server's backplane is connected to a SATA controller, and all existing drives are 4TB SATA HDDs. The administrator finds a spare 4TB SAS drive and inserts it into an empty bay. The drive's activity light does not illuminate, and the operating system does not detect the new drive. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
The server's SATA controller is not compatible with SAS drives.
The SAS drive requires a different power connector than what the SATA backplane provides.
The drive must be formatted with a specific file system before the server can recognize it.
The new drive's capacity exceeds the maximum supported by the SATA controller.
Answer Description
The correct answer explains that a SAS drive cannot function when connected to a SATA-only controller. While SAS controllers are backward-compatible with SATA drives, the reverse is not true. SATA controllers lack the necessary components and protocol support (the SCSI command set) to communicate with SAS drives.
- The option suggesting a different power connector is incorrect. While the connectors have slight physical differences, they are designed to be mechanically compatible in a way that allows SATA drives to connect to SAS backplanes, and the power delivery is standardized. The issue is electronic and protocol-based, not a power connector mismatch.
- The option regarding drive capacity is incorrect because the server already supports other drives of the same 4TB capacity, making a controller limit at that size highly improbable.
- The option about file system formatting is incorrect because drive detection by the server's firmware (BIOS/UEFI) and the operating system's storage controller is a prerequisite for formatting. A drive must be recognized as a hardware device before it can be partitioned and formatted.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why are SAS drives not compatible with SATA-only controllers?
What is the difference between a SAS and SATA controller?
Can you explain how SAS controllers are backward-compatible with SATA drives?
While hardening a portable backup script, a systems administrator needs the script to rotate logs only when the current log volume (in MB) stored in variable SIZE exceeds the configured maximum stored in MAX. The existing Bourne-shell code is:
if [ "$SIZE" > "$MAX" ]; then
/usr/local/bin/rotate_logs
fi
During testing, the shell treats the > symbol as an output-redirection operator and the comparison fails. The script must stay POSIX-compliant and run under /bin/sh. Which replacement will correctly perform the numeric comparison?
Escape the operator:
if [ "$SIZE" \> "$MAX" ]; thenReplace the condition with
if [ "$SIZE" -gt "$MAX" ]; thenUse arithmetic evaluation:
if (( SIZE > MAX )); thenReplace the condition with
if [ "$SIZE" -ge "$MAX" ]; then
Answer Description
Inside the single-bracket test command ([ ]) a numeric comparison must use the arithmetic primaries defined by POSIX. The operator -gt evaluates whether the first integer is greater than the second, matching the requirement that the size "exceeds" the limit. -ge would also allow the values to be equal, which is not requested. Escaping > still leaves a lexicographical string comparison, not a numeric one. The double-parentheses form (( SIZE > MAX )) is a Bash extension and is not guaranteed to work in a strictly POSIX /bin/sh script. Therefore, changing the line to if [ "$SIZE" -gt "$MAX" ]; then is the only portable fix.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does POSIX-compliant mean?
What is the difference between `-gt` and `>` in shell scripting?
Why can't we use `(( SIZE > MAX ))` in this case?
During an overnight maintenance window you must replace a failed DIMM in a rack-mounted application server. The host is already powered down and its AC cords have been removed from the PDU. After you put on a wired anti-static wrist strap, which action with the strap will provide continuous electrostatic-discharge protection while you handle the memory module inside the chassis?
Snap the strap onto the powder-coated rack rail that supports the server.
Plug the strap into a grounding lug on the facility UPS while leaving the server connected to mains power.
Clip the strap's lead to an unpainted chassis screw on the server after the power cords have been unplugged.
Attach the strap to the outside of the static-shielding bag that contains the replacement DIMM.
Answer Description
A wired wrist strap must bond the technician to the same electrical potential as the equipment being serviced. Clipping the strap's lead to an unpainted, conductive part of the server chassis places the body and the memory sockets at the same potential, so any static charge on the technician is safely bled away through the strap's built-in 1 MΩ resistor. Doing this after the power cords are unplugged eliminates shock hazards while still using the chassis as the common point ground.
The other choices do not create a safe, reliable path:
- The outside of a shielding bag is deliberately conductive but is not referenced to the server, so charge can still jump to the DIMM.
- Powder-coated rack rails are insulated; the paint prevents an electrical connection.
- Connecting the strap to a facility UPS while the server remains on mains power bonds the technician to a different ground and violates ESD and electrical-safety best practice.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is it important to clip the anti-static wrist strap to an unpainted chassis screw?
What role does the wrist strap's built-in resistor play?
Why aren't powder-coated surfaces or shielding bags effective alternatives for grounding?
After applying routine updates to a CentOS 7 application server, a systems administrator attempts to start a custom service that was compiled to interact with PostgreSQL. The service immediately fails and the journal records:
error while loading shared libraries: libpq.so.5: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory
Which of the following actions will MOST likely resolve the problem?
Rebuild the initramfs image and reboot the server to load updated kernel modules.
Run ldconfig to rebuild the shared‐library cache and then restart the service.
Install the package that provides libpq.so.5 (postgresql-libs) with the system's package manager.
Open TCP port 5432 in the host firewall and reload firewalld.
Answer Description
The message indicates that the dynamic linker cannot find libpq.so.5, a shared object supplied by the postgresql-libs package. Installing that package places the library in /usr/lib64 (and registers it with ldconfig), allowing the binary to load all required objects and start. Re-running ldconfig alone will not help when the library is completely absent. Firewall ports and kernel-module initramfs rebuilding are unrelated to user-space shared-library resolution, so those actions would not correct the failure.
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What is libpq.so.5, and why is it important?
What does ldconfig do, and why does it not solve the problem in this case?
What does opening TCP port 5432 in the firewall have to do with PostgreSQL?
A systems administrator is tasked with deploying 25 identical virtual machines (VMs) to a hypervisor cluster. Each VM must have a specific server operating system, a pre-configured web server application, and all current security patches. The primary goal is to minimize deployment time and ensure consistency across all VMs.
Which of the following installation methods is the MOST efficient for this task?
P2V (Physical to Virtual) conversion
Template deployment
Unattended installation using a network source
Bare-metal installation
Answer Description
The correct answer is Template deployment. This method involves creating a master or "golden" virtual machine with the operating system, applications, and all configurations already installed and set up. This template is then used to rapidly create multiple identical clones, which is the most efficient and consistent way to deploy a large number of identical VMs. An unattended installation automates the OS installation process but typically does not include pre-configured applications, making it less efficient for this scenario. A bare-metal installation is incorrect because it refers to installing an OS directly on physical hardware, not creating VMs. P2V conversion is the process of migrating an existing physical server to a virtual one, which is not applicable to deploying new VMs.
Ask Bash
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What is a VM template in virtualization?
How does template deployment differ from an unattended installation?
What is P2V conversion, and why is it not applicable in this scenario?
While re-cabling a server row, a technician and a coworker must move a 70 lb (32 kg) 2U UPS from its shipping pallet onto the rails in the bottom 4U of a 42U cabinet. According to recommended proper lifting techniques, which action should they take to minimize the risk of musculoskeletal injury?
Squat by bending your knees and hips, keep your back straight, hold the UPS close to your torso, and lift smoothly with your legs while the coworker stabilizes the chassis.
Keep your knees locked, bend at the waist, and straighten your back quickly to raise the UPS before sliding it into the rack.
Hoist the UPS above shoulder level first so it clears the rack posts, then lower it into place.
Stand an arm's length from the cabinet, grasp the UPS handles, and swing the unit sideways to align it with the rails in one motion.
Answer Description
Safe-lifting guidance from OSHA and industry ergonomics references states that heavy objects should be kept as close to the body as possible, the spine should stay neutral, the knees and hips should be bent in a squat, and the weight should be raised smoothly with the legs. Twisting, lifting with a straight back, extending the load away from the torso, or raising it above shoulder height all increase the moment arm on the spine and greatly raise the chance of strains. Therefore the only option that follows accepted technique is the one that keeps the UPS close, maintains a straight back, and uses the legs for the lift.
Ask Bash
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What is a 2U UPS and why is it used in a server rack?
Why is using proper lifting techniques critical for heavy equipment like a 70 lb UPS?
What are the risks of lifting heavy objects incorrectly, such as bending from the waist or twisting?
A systems administrator is troubleshooting a Linux file server following an unexpected datacenter-wide power outage. The server boots, but an application is unable to access its data directory. When attempting to list the contents of the /srv/app_data directory, the administrator receives an "Input/output error". Other directories on the same logical volume are accessible, but some files appear to be missing. System logs from the boot process show multiple errors related to inconsistencies in the filesystem structure. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of these issues?
A corrupt filesystem table
Multiple drive failure
Loose connectors
Cache battery failure
Answer Description
The correct answer is a corrupt filesystem table. The combination of symptoms after a sudden power outage-including 'Input/output' errors on specific directories, missing files, and log entries about filesystem inconsistencies-points directly to logical corruption of the filesystem's metadata. A RAID cache battery failure is a potential underlying cause for the corruption if write-back caching was enabled, but the immediate problem causing the errors is the corruption itself. Multiple drive failure or loose connectors would more likely cause the entire logical volume to be inaccessible, not just produce errors on specific directories.
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What is a filesystem table?
How does a RAID cache battery impact write operations?
What are logical volume errors versus physical drive failures?
While automating a build pipeline, a systems administrator is writing a PowerShell script that must email an HTML report. The body of the email has to span multiple lines, preserve the HTML exactly as typed, and include the value of the $ServerName variable inside the markup. Which line correctly declares the string so that the variable is expanded at runtime?
$body = @'
Server $ServerName is ready.'@$body = @"
Server $ServerName is ready."@$body = @"
Server `$ServerName is ready."@$body = 'Server $ServerName is ready.'
Answer Description
PowerShell performs variable expansion only in double-quoted strings. A double-quoted here-string (opened with @" and closed with "@ on a new line) behaves like a multi-line double-quoted string, so any $Variable inside it is replaced with the variable's value. A single-quoted here-string (@' ... '@) and a single-quoted string (' ... ') are literal, so \(ServerName would appear verbatim. Escaping the dollar sign with a backtick (`\)) also prevents expansion. Therefore, the only option that meets all three requirements-multi-line, exact formatting, and variable substitution-is the double-quoted here-string.
Ask Bash
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What is a PowerShell here-string?
Why does PowerShell perform variable expansion only in double-quoted strings?
How does escaping characters work in PowerShell strings?
After installing Windows Server 2022 Datacenter on a new rack-mounted server, loading vendor RAID drivers, applying the latest updates, and installing monitoring agents, an administrator plans to use a standalone disk-to-disk hardware duplicator to create physical clones of the system drive for nine identical servers that will be deployed later today. Each target chassis has the same motherboard, storage controller, and firmware settings as the source. To avoid security identifier (SID) conflicts, activation errors, or other duplication problems when the clones first boot on the production network, what action should the administrator take on the reference server immediately before powering it down for cloning?
Convert the NVMe system disk from GPT to MBR so the boot record copies identically.
Disable Secure Boot in UEFI firmware so the duplicated drives will boot in legacy BIOS mode.
Install Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) and capture the server into a WIM image instead of using the disk duplicator.
Execute Sysprep with the /generalize and /shutdown options to reseal the OS, then power the server off.
Answer Description
Running Sysprep with the /generalize switch removes computer-specific data-including the machine SID, event-log history, and activation identifiers-so that every cloned instance generates unique values during its first boot (OOBE). This procedure is Microsoft's supported method for preparing a Windows installation that will be captured or physically duplicated. Converting the disk to MBR, disabling Secure Boot, or replacing the hardware duplicator with MDT imaging does not address duplicate SID or activation issues and therefore will not prevent the cloning problems described.
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What does the /generalize switch in Sysprep do?
Why is it important to avoid SID conflicts in a Windows environment?
How does Sysprep differ from imaging tools like MDT?
A server administrator is investigating user complaints about slow performance on a critical, internally-hosted application. To validate whether the current performance is within the formally agreed-upon parameters, which document should the administrator consult to find the specific, guaranteed metrics for uptime and response time?
Network infrastructure diagram
Server configuration baseline
Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Answer Description
The correct answer is the Service Level Agreement (SLA). An SLA is a formal contract between a service provider (like an IT department) and a customer (like a user department) that defines the level of service to be provided. It specifies measurable metrics such as uptime, availability, and response times. Consulting the SLA is the proper first step to determine if the application's current performance constitutes a breach of the agreed-upon standards.
- A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is incorrect because it is used to identify critical business functions and the potential effects of their disruption. While the BIA informs the requirements of an SLA, it does not contain the specific performance metrics itself.
- A server configuration baseline is incorrect as it documents a system's standard, approved configuration at a point in time to manage changes and prevent configuration drift. It does not define service guarantees to end-users.
- A network infrastructure diagram is also incorrect. This document provides a visual map of the network's physical and logical layout, which is useful for troubleshooting connectivity but does not contain contractually obligated performance metrics.
Ask Bash
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What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)?
How does an SLA differ from a Business Impact Analysis (BIA)?
Why doesn't a server configuration baseline help address performance issues?
A systems administrator is called to investigate a physical server that has become unresponsive. The administrator is forced to perform a hard reboot to bring the system back online. While reviewing the server's baseboard management controller (BMC) hardware logs, the administrator finds several critical entries from just before the crash indicating that 'CPU 1 temperature has exceeded the shutdown threshold.' No other hardware errors were logged at that time. What is the MOST likely cause of this system crash?
A failing power supply unit (PSU)
A faulty memory module
Corrupted system files
CPU overheating
Answer Description
The correct answer is CPU overheating. The key piece of evidence from the baseboard management controller (BMC) logs is the specific alert that the CPU temperature exceeded the shutdown threshold right before the system crashed. Modern servers and CPUs have built-in thermal protection that will automatically shut down the system to prevent permanent hardware damage from excessive heat.
A faulty memory module typically causes different symptoms, such as a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD), kernel panic, or specific memory-related errors in the logs, not a temperature warning. Corrupted system files are a software issue, not a hardware failure, and would likely result in boot errors or application-level problems rather than a hardware-level shutdown preceded by a temperature alert. A failing PSU would cause an abrupt loss of power but would not generate a CPU-specific temperature warning in the hardware logs before the event.
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What is a baseboard management controller (BMC)?
How does thermal protection in CPUs work?
What are common reasons for CPU overheating in physical servers?
A systems administrator is selecting hot-swap drives for a mission-critical OLTP server. The requirements are:
- Sustained throughput of at least 10 Gb/s per drive
- Dual-ported drives so the OS can use multipath I/O across redundant HBAs
- Compatibility with the server's 12 Gb/s four-lane backplane that connects to a PCIe storage HBA
Which drive interface type will satisfy all of these requirements?
USB 3.2 Gen 2 (10 Gb/s) external/removable SSD
12 Gb/s Serial Attached SCSI (SAS-3)
Serial ATA III 6 Gb/s (SATA 6G)
SDXC UHS-II flash memory card
Answer Description
Only 12 Gb/s Serial Attached SCSI (SAS-3) drives meet every stated need. SAS-3 provides a per-lane throughput of 12 Gb/s and is full-duplex. Enterprise SAS drives include two independent ports, allowing each disk to be cabled to separate host bus adapters so the operating system can establish redundant, multipath access.
Serial ATA III is limited to 6 Gb/s, is half-duplex, and exposes only a single port per drive, so it cannot provide simultaneous redundant paths. USB 3.2 Gen 2 offers 10 Gb/s signaling but is designed for removable devices, is single-ported, and lacks the dual-path capability expected in enterprise backplanes. SDXC UHS-II media peaks around 312 MB/s (≈2.5 Gb/s), far below the required bandwidth and with no dual-port feature. Therefore, 12 Gb/s SAS-3 is the correct choice, while the other interfaces fail on speed, redundancy, or both.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is SAS-3 and why is it suitable for enterprise storage?
What is multipath I/O, and why is it important for enterprise storage?
How does the 12 Gb/s backplane connect with PCIe storage HBAs?
A server that hosts a write-intensive SQL database uses eight 10 K RPM SAS disks on a hardware RAID controller with 1 GB of battery-backed cache. According to the build book, the volume should deliver the highest possible write throughput while still surviving the loss of one disk in each mirrored pair. After a recent controller replacement and array rebuild, administrators notice that large batch inserts now take three times longer and the controller dashboard shows constant parity-calculation activity. The logical drive is currently defined as RAID 50 with a 256 KB stripe size. Which change would BEST correct the improper RAID configuration and restore the expected write performance without sacrificing fault tolerance?
Convert the array to RAID 6 and add a global hot spare.
Keep RAID 50 but reduce the stripe size from 256 KB to 32 KB.
Recreate the logical drive as RAID 10 across all eight disks.
Enable read-ahead caching on the controller and retain the current RAID 50 layout.
Answer Description
RAID 10 (striped mirrors) has no parity overhead, so write I/O is limited only by the spindle count and controller cache; it still tolerates one disk failure per mirrored pair. RAID 50, RAID 6, and other parity-based levels must read old parity, recalculate it, and write new parity on every write, introducing significant latency-exactly the behaviour now seen on the controller. Simply changing stripe size or enabling read-ahead does not remove the parity penalty, and RAID 6 adds even more write overhead. Re-creating the volume as RAID 10 therefore resolves the performance issue while maintaining redundancy.
Ask Bash
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What is the main difference between RAID 10 and RAID 50 configurations?
Why does RAID 10 perform better than RAID 50 for write-intensive workloads?
What role does the stripe size play in RAID configurations, and why wouldn’t changing it improve performance in this scenario?
A systems administrator is contributing to the design of a new data center that will house business-critical servers. The key requirements for fire protection are to extinguish a fire rapidly, cause no damage to the sensitive electronic equipment, and pose no harm to personnel. Which of the following fire suppression systems BEST meets all of these requirements?
Pre-action sprinkler system
Clean agent suppression system
Wet pipe sprinkler system
Carbon dioxide (CO2) suppression system
Answer Description
The correct answer is a clean agent suppression system. These systems use gaseous agents, such as HFC-227ea (FM-200) or inert gas mixtures (like Inergen), that extinguish fires without leaving residue, conducting electricity, or causing water damage to electronic components. They are also considered safe for use in occupied spaces.
A carbon dioxide (CO2) system is incorrect because, while it is a gas and leaves no residue, it extinguishes fires by displacing oxygen to levels that are lethal to humans, failing the personnel safety requirement.
A pre-action sprinkler system is a plausible but incorrect choice. While it is the safest type of water-based system for a data center because it requires a dual-trigger (e.g., smoke detection and sprinkler head activation) to release water, it ultimately still uses water, which would damage the electronic equipment.
A wet pipe sprinkler system is incorrect as it keeps water in the pipes at all times, posing a significant and constant risk of leaks and accidental discharge that could destroy server hardware.
Ask Bash
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What are the primary advantages of a clean agent suppression system?
How does a clean agent suppression system work in extinguishing fires?
Why is a CO2 suppression system unsuitable for occupied spaces?
A financial services company is decommissioning several servers that were used to process and store sensitive customer data. The company's IT staff is small and fully committed to a critical cloud migration project. Management's primary concern is ensuring a fully compliant and auditable disposal of the assets, including guaranteed data destruction, to avoid regulatory penalties and reputational damage. Which of the following is the MOST significant advantage of using an external, certified electronics recycling vendor in this scenario?
It enables the company to salvage and repurpose viable server components for use in development labs or other non-production environments.
It allows the internal IT staff to remain focused on the high-priority cloud migration project without being diverted to decommissioning tasks.
It provides a certificate of destruction and a clear chain of custody, which transfers liability and ensures regulatory compliance.
It lowers the total out-of-pocket cost associated with asset disposal compared to using internal resources for the same tasks.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that an external, certified vendor provides auditable proof of destruction and assumes liability. Financial services companies are subject to strict regulations like the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA), which mandates the protection of customer information. A certified vendor specializing in IT Asset Disposition (ITAD), such as one with R2 or e-Stewards certification, provides a Certificate of Destruction. This document serves as a legal and auditable record that data has been destroyed in a compliant manner, transferring the liability from the company to the vendor.
- Allowing the internal team to focus on core projects is a benefit, but it is secondary to the primary driver of compliance and liability mitigation.
- Repurposing components internally is an advantage of internal recycling, not external, and it may conflict with the stringent data destruction requirements for a financial firm.
- Using an external vendor typically incurs higher direct costs than handling disposal internally, making the claim of lower out-of-pocket costs incorrect.
Ask Bash
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What is a Certificate of Destruction?
What does R2 or e-Stewards certification mean?
Why is regulatory compliance critical for financial services companies?
A CentOS file server also hosts an internal web application from /var/www/html. A junior administrator recently copied user-supplied files into that directory with the command cp -a /home/upload/*.pdf /var/www/html/. Immediately afterward, the application began returning HTTP 403 Forbidden when those PDFs are requested. The Apache error log shows "Permission denied," and /var/log/audit/audit.log contains AVC messages in which httpd_t is denied read access to objects labeled user_home_t. No traditional POSIX permissions were changed.
Which action should you take first to restore user access while keeping SELinux protections in place?
Recursively change ownership of the files to
apache:apacheand set permissions to 755.Temporarily disable SELinux enforcement with
setenforce 0, verify access, and re-enable it after testing.Add
Require all grantedto the Apache virtual-host configuration and reload the httpd service.Run
restorecon -R /var/www/htmlto reset the files and directories to their default SELinux contexts.
Answer Description
Copying files with the -a (archive) option preserves all attributes, including SELinux labels. As a result, the PDFs carried the user_home_t type from the users' home directories into /var/www/html. By default the httpd_t domain is not allowed to read objects of type user_home_t, so SELinux blocks the access and the web server returns HTTP 403.
The supported fix is to relabel the affected path so that it regains the default httpd_sys_content_t type. The restorecon -R command consults the active policy and recursively applies the correct label to every item under /var/www/html, restoring normal access without weakening SELinux. Disabling SELinux (setenforce 0) would work but removes the protection entirely. Changing Apache directives or file ownership does not address the label mismatch, so access would still fail until the contexts are corrected.
Ask Bash
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What is SELinux and why are contexts important?
What does the `restorecon` command do in SELinux?
Why is `setenforce 0` not the best solution in this scenario?
A systems administrator installs two newer-stepping Intel Xeon processors in a three-year-old dual-socket rack server. When the system is powered on, POST halts with the message:
"Unsupported processor detected - BIOS does not contain required microcode for installed CPU. System halted."
An identical pair of processors works normally in a newer chassis of the same server model. Which action is the MOST appropriate first step to bring the upgraded server online?
Download and apply the latest BIOS/UEFI firmware package from the server vendor.
Replace the power supply with a higher-wattage unit that provides a larger 12 V rail.
Increase the CPU core voltage in the firmware setup utility to match the new processors' specification.
Clear the motherboard's CMOS to reset all firmware settings to their factory defaults.
Answer Description
The POST message indicates that the system firmware (BIOS/UEFI) lacks the microcode needed to initialize the newer-stepping CPUs. Updating the server's BIOS/UEFI to the latest revision supplied by the manufacturer loads the correct microcode and resolves the incompatibility. Adjusting voltages, replacing the power supply, or clearing the CMOS will not add the missing microcode, so those steps will not allow the system to boot with the new processors.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a BIOS/UEFI firmware package, and why is it important for hardware compatibility?
What is microcode, and what role does it play in CPU and firmware interaction?
Why does updating the BIOS/UEFI firmware resolve this specific processor compatibility issue?
A server administrator is leading a decommissioning project for 20 servers being removed from a data center. The servers have been powered down and disconnected. The administrator must now address the associated power cables that run from the rack's Power Distribution Units (PDUs) to the decommissioned hardware. Which of the following is the BEST practice for power cable remediation in this scenario?
Leave the power cables connected to the PDU, coil them neatly, and secure them inside the rack for future use.
Tag the power cables at both ends as 'abandoned' and disconnect them only from the server.
Cut the server-end connectors off the power cables and leave the remaining cable in the rack.
Completely remove the power cables from the PDU to the server and recycle them.
Answer Description
The correct action is to completely remove the power cables from the PDU to the server and then properly recycle them. According to the National Electrical Code (NEC), accessible portions of abandoned cables must be removed unless they are tagged for future use. Leaving abandoned cables, including power cables, in place can create safety hazards, impede airflow needed for cooling active equipment, and complicate future cable management. This removal process is often referred to as cable remediation or cable mining.
Leaving cables coiled in the rack, even if neat, contributes to a 'spaghetti' environment, blocks critical airflow, and can be mistaken for live cables. Cutting the ends off the cables is dangerous as the other end may still be connected to a live PDU, creating a serious electrical hazard. Tagging cables as 'abandoned' while leaving them connected to the PDU does not resolve the physical obstruction or potential safety issues and goes against best practices, which favor complete removal.
Ask Bash
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What is cable remediation and why is it important?
What are the risks of leaving abandoned cables in a data center?
What does the National Electrical Code (NEC) require for abandoned cables?
During a bare-metal installation of Windows Server 2022 on a new rack server, Setup shows only 2 TB of a 4 TB SAS drive as available for the system volume and leaves the rest of the space unusable. The server is shipped with legacy BIOS firmware enabled by default, but it also supports UEFI mode. You must be able to boot from this same 4 TB disk and make its full capacity available to the operating system. Which preparatory action will achieve this goal before rerunning the installation?
Change the server firmware to UEFI mode and initialize the drive with a GPT partition table before starting Windows Setup.
Create the system volume as a dynamic MBR disk during Setup and extend it past 2 TB once Windows is running.
Enable NTFS compression during installation so the 4 TB drive can be addressed as a single 2 TB-equivalent partition.
Keep the firmware in BIOS mode and re-format the partition as ReFS after installation to unlock the extra space.
Answer Description
MBR-partitioned disks that boot from legacy BIOS firmware are limited to addressing about 2 TB. Converting the disk to the GUID Partition Table (GPT) removes that size ceiling, but Windows can only boot from a GPT disk when the server firmware is set to UEFI mode. Switching the firmware to UEFI and initializing the disk as GPT therefore lets Windows Server use and boot from the entire 4 TB drive.
ReFS formatting, dynamic disks, or NTFS compression do not bypass the 2 TB barrier imposed by an MBR boot disk, so they would still leave part of the drive inaccessible or unbootable.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does MBR have a 2 TB limitation?
What is the difference between Legacy BIOS and UEFI?
What steps are required to convert a drive to GPT?
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