CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-009)
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CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (V9) Information
The CompTIA Network+ N10-009 certification exam is a key credential for IT professionals specializing in network technologies and infrastructure. This exam assesses a candidate's ability to design, configure, manage, and troubleshoot wired and wireless network devices. Unlike more specialized certifications, the Network+ offers a broad foundation, making it ideal for early-career network technicians and administrators. It covers emerging technologies like cloud computing and virtualization, while also emphasizing traditional networking concepts and practices. By passing the N10-009 exam, candidates demonstrate their expertise in these areas, proving their readiness for roles such as network administrator, network field technician, and help desk technician.
The exam's content is divided into several key areas. Network architecture forms a significant part, where candidates must understand the design and implementation of functional networks, including network components and their roles in network services. Network security is also crucial, requiring knowledge of security concepts and protocols, as well as the skills to implement security features on network devices. The exam also tests on network operations and troubleshooting, focusing on monitoring tools, network performance optimization, and problem-solving techniques. Moreover, it includes newer areas like cloud computing and virtualization, reflecting the evolving nature of network technology. This wide-ranging scope ensures that professionals holding the Network+ certification are equipped to support and manage modern network environments effectively.
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Free CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (V9) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Networking ConceptsNetwork ImplementationNetwork OperationsNetwork SecurityNetwork Troubleshooting
A network administrator is auditing the hardware inventory to ensure all active devices are covered under the current warranty agreements. During the process, the administrator discovers that several switches used in critical network segments are nearing their warranty expiration. What is the most appropriate immediate action to take?
Ignore the warranty status as long as the devices are functioning normally.
Urgently replace all switches nearing the end of their warranty period.
Increase the frequency of backups for configurations on these switches.
Extend the warranties or renew the support agreements for these switches.
Answer Description
Extending the warranties or renewing the support agreements for the network switches is the recommended action. This ensures that these critical devices remain covered, minimizing the risk of incurring significant replacement or repair costs should they fail after the original warranty period expires. Replacing the switches or conducting more frequent backups might seem like valid strategies, but they do not directly address the issue of ongoing support and potential costs associated with device failures outside the warranty period.
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Why is it important to extend a warranty for critical network equipment?
What is the difference between a warranty and a support agreement?
How does a warranty renewal compare to replacing aging hardware?
A network administrator is setting up a DHCP server for a new subnet. To ensure specific department devices always receive the same IP addresses whenever their devices connect to the network, which DHCP setting should the administrator configure?
Scope
Lease time
Exclusions
Reservations
Answer Description
The correct configuration to ensure a specific device always receives the same IP address is to use reservations. DHCP reservations bind a specific IP address to the MAC address of a device, guaranteeing that this device receives the same IP address each time it connects to the network. In contrast, exclusions are used to prevent certain IP addresses from being assigned from a scope; scope defines the entire range of possible IP addresses that can be assigned to devices; and lease time determines how long a device holds an IP address before it must renew its DHCP configuration.
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How does DHCP reservations work?
What is the difference between a DHCP reservation and exclusion?
Why is lease time important in DHCP configuration?
In a network interface configuration, setting the speed incorrectly can cause performance degradation. What is the potential impact of configuring a gigabit switch port to 100 Mbps when connected devices support gigabit speeds?
It leads to total loss of data transfer between devices
It increases the noise level on the physical medium
It creates a bottleneck, limiting the data rate to less than what the devices are capable of handling
It makes the devices use an outdated protocol for communication
Answer Description
Configuring a switch port speed to 100 Mbps on a connection where the connected devices support gigabit speeds will lead to a significant bottleneck. The port will limit the transmission speed to 100 Mbps, thereby underutilizing the gigabit capability of the connected devices and potentially causing network congestion due to slower data transfer rates. This misconfiguration does not directly involve protocol compatibility or increase noise levels, and it also won't necessarily result in complete data loss unless other factors are at play.
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What does a bottleneck mean in networking?
How does auto-negotiation work for network port speeds?
What is the difference between gigabit and 100 Mbps speeds?
Which cloud connectivity option establishes a private telecommunications circuit between an on-premises data center and a cloud service provider, enhancing performance and security?
Direct Connect
NAT gateway
Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
Access point
Answer Description
Direct Connect is the correct answer as it refers to establishing a dedicated, private link between an on-premises network and a cloud provider, bypassing the public internet to enhance data transfer security and performance. On the other hand, Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) is a configuration within the cloud that isolates and controls resource allocation, not a primary connectivity method between on-premises and the cloud. NAT gateway facilitates IP address translation for instances within a private subnet to access the internet and is not used for direct on-premises to cloud connections. An access point provides local network access for wireless devices and is unrelated to this type of wide-area cloud connectivity.
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What are the benefits of using Direct Connect for cloud connectivity?
How does a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) differ from Direct Connect?
Why is NAT Gateway not suitable for on-premises to cloud connections?
Which IPv4 address is classified as a public IP address?
8.8.4.4
192.168.1.1
10.0.0.1
172.16.254.3
Answer Description
The IP addresses 10.0.0.1, 172.16.254.3, and 192.168.1.1 are all classified as private IP addresses under RFC 1918, which reserves them for internal network use. Conversely, the address 8.8.4.4 is not part of any reserved private range and is routable on the global internet, making it a public IP address.
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What is the difference between public and private IP addresses?
What is RFC 1918, and why is it important?
Why is 8.8.4.4 classified as a public IP address?
A network administrator is tasked with upgrading the cabling of a corporate network to support a new 10GBase-T installation in a cost-effective manner. The current infrastructure uses CAT5e cables. Which type of cable should the administrator select to ensure compatibility with 10GBase-T specifications and optimal network performance over standard infrastructure distances?
CAT3
CAT6a
CAT7
CAT5e
Answer Description
CAT6a (Augmented Category 6) cables are designed to support 10 Gbps speeds up to a 100-meter channel length, which makes them the standard and most suitable choice for a 10GBase-T network deployment. CAT5e, although capable of 1 Gbps speeds, does not officially support 10 Gbps for 10GBase-T, except for very short, non-standard distances. CAT7 cables are capable of 10 Gbps speeds but are more expensive, have stricter installation requirements, and are generally considered overkill for standard 10GBase-T deployments, making CAT6a a more cost-effective option. CAT3 is an obsolete standard primarily used for telephone installations and supports much lower data speeds, making it unsuitable for modern Ethernet networks.
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Why is CAT6a preferred over CAT5e for 10GBase-T networks?
What distinguishes CAT6a from CAT7 cables for network installations?
What are the main differences between CAT6a and CAT3 cables in networking?
Which DNS record type is specifically used to map a fully qualified domain name (FQDN) to its corresponding 32-bit IPv4 address, enabling devices to locate the correct host on an IPv4 network?
CNAME record
AAAA record
A record
MX record
Answer Description
The Address (A) record is the fundamental DNS record used to associate a domain name with a 32-bit IPv4 address. This mapping allows a resolver to translate human-readable names into the numeric IPv4 addresses required for routing traffic on an IPv4 network. The AAAA record performs the same function for IPv6 addresses, CNAME creates an alias that points one name to another canonical name, and MX specifies mail-exchange servers for a domain.
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What is the main purpose of an A record in DNS?
How does an A record differ from an AAAA record?
What happens in DNS if a CNAME record is used instead of an A record?
You are tasked with diagnosing an issue where a server is intermittently unreachable from multiple clients across different subnets. You decide to use a command line tool to trace the path packets take through the network to the server. Which command should you use to identify at which hop in the network path the packets are being dropped?
tracert (Windows) / traceroute (Unix/Linux)
netstat
ping
ipconfig / ifconfig
Answer Description
The tracert
(or traceroute
on Unix/Linux systems) command is used to determine the route taken by packets across an IP network on their way to a specific host. It can identify where packets start to fail to reach the destination, showing each hop in the path and the time taken to get from one node to another. This makes it invaluable for identifying at which hop in the network path packets are potentially being dropped. In contrast, ping
is effective for checking reachability and round-trip times but does not show the path of the packets. netstat
displays protocol statistics and current TCP/IP network connections, which is not suitable for tracing the path of packets. ipconfig
(or ifconfig
in Unix/Linux) is primarily used to display all current TCP/IP network configuration values and refresh DHCP and DNS settings, but isn't useful for tracing packet paths.
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How does tracert/traceroute work to identify network issues?
Why is tracert/traceroute better than ping for diagnosing network paths?
What are common reasons packets might be dropped at a specific hop in a network?
A corporate environment is planning to expand its wireless network across multiple offices. The network manager wants to ensure centralized control over all wireless access points to streamline configurations and management. Which type of access point should be used?
Lightweight access points
Managed switches
Unmanaged switches
Autonomous access points
Answer Description
Lightweight access points are designed for scenarios where centralized control is required. They do not handle all of their processing and rely on a wireless controller to manage their configurations and data traffic, ideal for large environments requiring uniform policies and simplicity in managing multiple devices. Autonomous access points, while capable of independent operation, are more suited to smaller scale or standalone deployments where centralized management is not as critical. Managed and unmanaged switch options do not directly pertain to the control over wireless access points.
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What is a lightweight access point and how does it differ from an autonomous access point?
What is a wireless controller, and why is it essential for lightweight access points?
What are the advantages of using lightweight access points in a corporate environment?
A system administrator needs to configure a server to securely transfer confidential files between corporate offices. What port should the administrator ensure is open on the firewall to allow SFTP traffic?
22
20/21
80
443
Answer Description
The Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) operates over SSH (Secure Shell) and uses TCP port 22 for secure file transfers. To allow this traffic, a firewall must have port 22 open. The other ports listed are for different protocols: ports 20 and 21 are for the insecure File Transfer Protocol (FTP), port 80 is for unencrypted web traffic (HTTP), and port 443 is for secure web traffic (HTTPS).
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Why does SFTP use port 22?
What is the difference between SFTP and FTP?
What is the role of firewalls in network security?
Considering its operational characteristics, why is TFTP typically used in network environments?
To facilitate high-speed data transfer over the internet
To conduct secure transaction-oriented communications
To transfer large multimedia files securely
To transfer small amounts of data such as boot or configuration files
Answer Description
TFTP is typically used for transferring small amounts of data such as boot files or configurations. This makes it popular in scenarios where simple setups and minimal data transfer are required, like PXE booting or loading configurations onto hardware with minimal processing capability. The correct option highlights its primary use in network environments that do not require complex and secure transactions, such as loading initial boot files or firmware updates. Options like transferring large files or secure transactions are more suited for FTP or SFTP due to TFTP's lack of security and robustness.
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What is TFTP, and how does it differ from FTP?
Why is TFTP commonly used in PXE booting?
What are the limitations of TFTP, and when shouldn't it be used?
Which of the following scenarios BEST describes the use of a public network deployment model?
A company using a network only accessible by its employees to share internal documents.
A corporation hosting its website which is accessible to anyone on the internet.
An organization using a virtual private network (VPN) for connecting remote employees to its internal network.
A government agency using a secured network to transmit sensitive data.
Answer Description
A public network deployment model is characterized by its open accessibility to general internet users and is typically used to operate services meant for the general public, such as email services, social media, and public websites. The correct answer best represents this definition as it refers to hosting a website accessible to anyone on the internet, which is one of the most common uses of public networks. The other answers, while plausible, involve scenarios more typical of private or protected environments.
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What is the main difference between a public and private network?
Why are public networks often used for hosting websites?
How does a VPN differ from a public network in terms of access and use cases?
A network technician is configuring monitoring for a critical WAN router. Management requires an immediate, unsolicited notification whenever any of the router's interfaces goes down or comes back up, without relying on constant polling from a management station. Which SNMP feature should the technician enable on the router to BEST meet this requirement?
Enable port mirroring on the affected interfaces
Establish an out-of-band management network for monitoring
Configure SNMP traps on the router
Activate flow export (NetFlow/IPFIX) on the router
Answer Description
SNMP traps are asynchronous messages generated by an SNMP agent and sent to an SNMP manager. Standard traps such as linkDown and linkUp allow the device to notify the manager instantly when an interface status changes, eliminating the need for frequent polling. Port mirroring only copies traffic to another interface, flow export provides statistical data after the fact, and an out-of-band management network offers a separate path for management traffic but does not in itself generate alerts.
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What is an SNMP trap?
How does SNMP differ from NetFlow/IPFIX?
Why doesn't port mirroring replace SNMP traps?
What does the 802.11h wireless standard specifically address to aid in reducing interference in the 5GHz frequency band?
Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) and Transmit Power Control (TPC)
Channel aggregation and traffic prioritization
Extended Service Set Identifications (ESSID) and Band Steering
Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS) and Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
Answer Description
802.11h addresses Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) and Transmit Power Control (TPC), which are crucial for minimizing interference and managing signal power in networks operating in the 5GHz band to comply with regulatory requirements. DFS allows devices to detect radar signals and switch to another channel if interference is detected, while TPC helps in adjusting the transmit power to the minimum needed to reach the intended receiver. This management aids in reducing interference with other devices and networks.
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What is Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) and how does it work?
What is Transmit Power Control (TPC) in wireless networks?
Why does the 5GHz band require special features like DFS and TPC?
A user named Sarah has reported that her ability to access the corporate website fluctuates throughout the working day, with periods during which the website becomes inaccessible. What question should you prioritize to effectively gather initial relevant information and identify potential patterns or causes?
Inquire if the issue happens at specific times and if it's restricted to the corporate site or also affects other websites.
Query whether any of her colleagues are facing similar issues, focusing on possible common variables across users.
Ask directly about any recent changes to her computer system or network settings to correlate the issue to changes in configuration.
Suggest checking Sarah's computer for potential malware or viruses that might be affecting her connectivity.
Answer Description
Asking about the specific times when the issue occurs and whether it pertains specifically to the corporate website or other sites as well sheds light on whether the issue is isolated to a particular domain, potentially indicating a server or hosting issue, or if it's a broader connectivity or network problem. This helps distinguish between local and network-wide issues. Although other questions are relevant in the troubleshooting process, pinpointing the issue's frequency, timing, and scope from the start is most effective for forming an accurate initial assessment.
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Why is it important to know if the issue happens at specific times?
How does identifying if the problem is specific to one website narrow down potential causes?
What are some key follow-ups if the problem is confirmed to be related only to the corporate website?
Which of the following best describes the Ethernet frame size specified under the 802.3 standards?
64 to 1518 bytes
128 to 1024 bytes
1500 to 1522 bytes
100 to 1500 bytes
Answer Description
The standard Ethernet frame size under the IEEE 802.3 specification has a minimum length of 64 bytes and a maximum length of 1518 bytes. This range includes the header and trailer but excludes the Layer 1 preamble and Start Frame Delimiter. The maximum payload, or Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU), is 1500 bytes, and the minimum payload is 46 bytes to meet the 64-byte minimum frame requirement. It is essential for network analysts and administrators to know these details to ensure proper network function and compatibility with various networking devices and protocols. The other answers provided are incorrect as they do not accurately represent the frame sizes specified by the standard.
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What is the significance of the preamble and Start Frame Delimiter (SFD) in an Ethernet frame?
What happens if an Ethernet frame is smaller than 64 bytes or larger than 1518 bytes?
What is the difference between the Ethernet frame size and the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU)?
A network engineer is connecting two branch offices using a traditional T1 leased line. To facilitate this point-to-point connection, a router is placed at each office. Which interface type should the engineer configure on the routers for this type of WAN link?
ISDN
Ethernet
Serial
Fiber Optic
Answer Description
For traditional WAN connections like T1 leased lines, serial interfaces are the correct choice. These interfaces are specifically designed for point-to-point links over long distances, which were common for technologies like T1. Ethernet interfaces are primarily used for Local Area Networks (LANs), although modern WAN services (often called Metro Ethernet) now use Ethernet over fiber. ISDN is an older WAN technology but is not typically used for a dedicated T1 line. Fiber Optic is a Layer 1 physical medium (the cable itself), not a Layer 2 interface type like Serial or Ethernet, which defines the communication protocol and connector.
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What is the role of a serial interface in a network?
How does a T1 line work for WAN connections?
What is the difference between a serial interface and Ethernet for WAN connections?
What is a self-signed certificate primarily used for in network security?
Establishing internal trusts and testing environments
Reducing the operational costs associated with public key infrastructure
Verifying external server identities publicly
Issuing certifications for interoperability with other organizations
Answer Description
A self-signed certificate is primarily used to validate identity and enable encrypted connections without relying on external Certificate Authorities (CAs). Because it is generated and signed by the same organization or individual that uses it, a self-signed certificate is well suited for internal environments or testing scenarios where trust is already established. In public-facing situations, however, these certificates are less reliable because no third-party has verified the certificate holder's identity.
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Why are self-signed certificates not suitable for public-facing environments?
What is the difference between a self-signed certificate and one issued by a Certificate Authority?
What are the main use cases for self-signed certificates?
A network administrator is configuring a subnet for a medium-sized corporate office. Which IPv4 address class should they consider if they need up to 65,000 addresses for host devices with a default subnet mask?
Class A
Class B
Class C
Class D
Answer Description
Class B addresses are used where medium-sized networks are required. The default subnet mask for Class B is 255.255.0.0, enabling up to 65,536 addresses (2^16), which fits the requirement of needing up to 65,000 addresses. Class A is typically too large, offering up to approximately 16 million addresses which can be excessive and inefficient for the scenario. Class C, on the other hand, provides only 256 addresses, which would be insufficient for the requirement.
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Why does Class B have a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0?
What happens if a Class B subnet is divided further?
What is the difference between Class B and Class C in terms of address size?
Which configuration is BEST for enhancing network security by controlling ingress and egress traffic according to predefined security rules?
Configuring a stateful firewall
Utilizing an access control list at the router
Enabling NAT on the network router
Implementing a simple packet filtering firewall
Answer Description
A stateful firewall is optimal for enhancing network security as it not only filters traffic based on state, port, and protocol, but also keeps track of active connections. By monitoring the state of network connections, it can make more informed decisions about which packets to allow or deny, dynamically adjusting to the flow of traffic based on the context of the traffic and sessions. Other options, such as static packet filtering, do not offer the dynamic tracking of connection states, making them less effective in scenarios where comprehensive security and control over both ingress and egress traffic are needed.
Ask Bash
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What does a stateful firewall do?
How is a stateful firewall different from packet filtering?
Why is NAT not sufficient for network security?
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