CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-009)
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CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (V9) Information
The CompTIA Network+ N10-009 certification exam is a key credential for IT professionals specializing in network technologies and infrastructure. This exam assesses a candidate's ability to design, configure, manage, and troubleshoot wired and wireless network devices. Unlike more specialized certifications, the Network+ offers a broad foundation, making it ideal for early-career network technicians and administrators. It covers emerging technologies like cloud computing and virtualization, while also emphasizing traditional networking concepts and practices. By passing the N10-009 exam, candidates demonstrate their expertise in these areas, proving their readiness for roles such as network administrator, network field technician, and help desk technician.
The exam's content is divided into several key areas. Network architecture forms a significant part, where candidates must understand the design and implementation of functional networks, including network components and their roles in network services. Network security is also crucial, requiring knowledge of security concepts and protocols, as well as the skills to implement security features on network devices. The exam also tests on network operations and troubleshooting, focusing on monitoring tools, network performance optimization, and problem-solving techniques. Moreover, it includes newer areas like cloud computing and virtualization, reflecting the evolving nature of network technology. This wide-ranging scope ensures that professionals holding the Network+ certification are equipped to support and manage modern network environments effectively.
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Free CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (V9) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Networking ConceptsNetwork ImplementationNetwork OperationsNetwork SecurityNetwork Troubleshooting
During a routine network check at an enterprise, the network administrator notices that network performance degrades every day between 3 PM and 5 PM. After some initial checks, they identify that the traffic during this period consistently exceeds the available bandwidth due to high video streaming usage. What is the most effective solution to mitigate this performance issue while maintaining essential services?
Increase the overall bandwidth of the internet connection.
Implement Quality of Service (QoS) to prioritize critical business applications.
Change the work hours to distribute the load more evenly throughout the day.
Completely restrict access to video streaming sites during peak hours.
Answer Description
Implementing Quality of Service (QoS) rules to prioritize essential traffic and limit bandwidth for video streaming ensures that critical applications continue to perform well even during high traffic periods. Increasing bandwidth could solve the problem, but it might not be cost-effective. Restricting access to streaming sites could disrupt users who may need access for legitimate purposes, while changing work schedules is impractical and does not directly address the bandwidth issue.
Ask Bash
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What is Quality of Service (QoS) and how does it work?
Why is increasing bandwidth not always the best solution?
Why is blocking video streaming sites a less effective solution?
What term describes the technique where an attacker gains physical access to a building by following closely behind a person who has legitimate access?
Vishing
Phishing
Tailgating
Dumpster diving
Answer Description
Tailgating is a specific type of social engineering where an unauthorized person follows someone with authorized access into a restricted area without being noticed. This differs from other social-engineering techniques because it requires physical proximity and exploits courteous behavior rather than electronic communication or technical network manipulation.
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What is social engineering in the context of cybersecurity?
What are some common ways to prevent tailgating attacks?
How does tailgating differ from piggybacking in physical security breaches?
Considering a standard Class C network with the address 192.168.15.0, what would be the broadcast address for this network?
192.168.15.255
192.168.255.255
192.168.15.1
192.168.15.0
Answer Description
The broadcast address for any IPv4 subnet is obtained by setting all host bits to 1. For a standard Class C network, the default subnet mask is 255.255.255.0, so the host portion is the final octet. Setting those eight bits to 1 changes 192.168.15.0 to 192.168.15.255, which is the directed broadcast address for that subnet. The incorrect answers either identify the network address, the first usable host address, or the broadcast for a different subnet size.
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What is a broadcast address and why is it important in networking?
How do you calculate the broadcast address for a subnet?
What is the difference between a network address and a broadcast address?
On a managed switch, which port status value indicates that the switch has automatically disabled the port because it detected an error or policy violation (for example, a BPDU guard violation), so the interface cannot send or receive traffic until it is manually or automatically recovered?
Connected
Suspended
Error disabled
Administratively down
Answer Description
When a switch port goes into the "Error disabled" state, the IOS software shuts down the interface after detecting a fault such as a BPDU guard, port-security, or link-flap violation. In this condition the port is administratively up in the configuration but operationally down, and it forwards no traffic until an administrator repairs the cause and re-enables the port or until an errdisable recovery timer brings it back online. Other status values such as "Administratively down" (disabled by configuration), "Suspended" (for example, in an EtherChannel mismatch), or "Connected" (normal forwarding) do not match this behavior.
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What is a BPDU guard violation?
What is an errdisable recovery timer?
How can administrators manually re-enable a port in 'Error disabled' state?
You are assigned the IP address 172.16.0.0/16 and need to create 8 subnets of equal size. What is the new subnet mask for each subnet?
255.255.255.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.224.0
255.255.240.0
Answer Description
The correct subnet mask is 255.255.224.0. Starting with a /16 network, borrowing 3 bits for subnetting (2³=8 subnets) results in a /19 subnet mask, which corresponds to 255.255.224.0. The other options do not provide the appropriate number of subnets or the correct subnet mask for dividing the network into exactly 8 subnets.
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What does the /16 notation mean in the IP address 172.16.0.0/16?
How do you calculate the number of subnets using borrowed bits?
Why is 255.255.224.0 the correct subnet mask for 8 subnets in a /16 network?
A network administrator is setting up a new DNS server that must act as the main, writable source for all DNS records within a company's domain. For redundancy, other DNS servers will replicate their zone data from this server. Which type of DNS zone must the administrator configure on this new server?
Primary zone
Stub zone
Secondary zone
Reverse lookup zone
Answer Description
A primary zone is the correct answer because it contains the master, writable copy of a domain's DNS records. It is the authoritative source from which secondary servers replicate data via zone transfers.
A secondary zone is incorrect because it is a read-only copy of a primary zone. While it provides authoritative answers, it cannot be the original, writable source of the records.
A reverse lookup zone is incorrect because its purpose is to map IP addresses back to domain names, not to serve as the primary source for name-to-IP resolutions.
A stub zone is incorrect because it only contains a partial list of records (NS, SOA, and glue A records) needed to identify the authoritative DNS servers for a zone, not the entire set of records for that zone.
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What is the difference between a primary DNS zone and a secondary DNS zone?
What is the purpose of a reverse lookup zone in DNS?
When would you use a stub zone in DNS configurations?
What is the primary function of port security on network switches?
Limit the number of MAC addresses allowed on a switch port
Encrypt data transmitted from one port to another
Limit the bandwidth usage on a network
Monitor traffic patterns to detect anomalies
Answer Description
Port security is a layer 2 traffic control feature used mainly to limit the number of MAC addresses allowed on a single port. This prevents unauthorized devices from accessing the network and mitigates risks like MAC flooding. Limiting bandwidth does not relate directly to security, and monitoring traffic patterns and transmitting data securely are functions more closely associated with network monitors and encryption protocols, respectively.
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How does port security prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the network?
What is a MAC flooding attack, and how does port security mitigate it?
What are the different actions a switch can take when a port security violation is detected?
A network administrator is tasked with hardening the company's network devices. Which of the following actions BEST aligns with the principle of reducing the attack surface by managing device configurations?
Disable all unused ports on network switches and routers
Implement port mirroring to monitor data flows
Enable additional services for remote management
Encrypt all management traffic to devices
Answer Description
Disabling all unused ports on switches and routers (and similarly disabling unnecessary services) removes unneeded entry points, directly shrinking the device's attack surface. Encrypting management traffic and implementing port mirroring improve confidentiality and monitoring, but they do not eliminate potential targets. Enabling additional remote-management services actually expands the attack surface by exposing more services to possible exploitation.
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Why is disabling unused ports considered a best practice for hardening network devices?
What are some common tools or methods to detect unused ports on network devices?
How does leaving unnecessary services enabled increase the attack surface?
Which term best describes the principle aimed at ensuring data is not altered or tampered with?
Integrity
Availability
Confidentiality
Authentication
Answer Description
The term 'Integrity' is part of the Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability (CIA) triad and specifically refers to the assurance that data is not altered or tampered with in an unauthorized manner. It ensures that information is trustworthy and accurate. 'Confidentiality' focuses on limiting access to information to authorized persons. 'Availability' pertains to ensuring that authorized users have reliable access to information when needed. Although 'Authentication' is critical for security, it primarily deals with verifying the identity of a user or device.
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What is the CIA triad?
How is data integrity maintained?
How does integrity differ from authentication?
Which of the following scenarios best describes a private network infrastructure?
A secure network using VPN to connect remote employees to corporate resources.
An intranet used by company employees for secure document sharing and communication within corporate offices.
A city-wide broadband service providing internet access to all residents within a metropolitan area.
A network infrastructure connecting various departments of a global corporation using encrypted segments over the Internet.
Answer Description
A private network infrastructure is exclusively maintained for the communication needs within an organization, generally isolated from public access to secure sensitive data and operations. An intranet used by company employees is a prime example of such a network. Public networks are designed for public access, thus unfit for internal, sensitive communications. A VPN, although it uses public networks, essentially creates a 'private tunnel' and is mainly used for secure connections over the internet. A metropolitan area network (MAN) typically spans a larger geographic area like a city and can be either public or private, but the scenario describes a public service, making it broader than a single organization's private network.
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What is the difference between an intranet and a public network?
How does a VPN differ from a private network infrastructure?
What is the role of encryption in private networks and VPNs?
The IT team at a large retail company is reviewing its disaster-recovery strategy to meet the organization's requirement for moderate downtime after a disruption. They are considering implementing a warm site. Which of the following best describes the state of a warm site that they should expect?
Lacks any pre-installed hardware and is primarily an empty data center reserved for emergency use.
Fully operational with all services, applications, and data mirrored from the primary site and running in real time.
Equipped only with the physical infrastructure and requires all servers, applications, and data to be restored before operations can resume.
Partially equipped with servers, network connections, and possibly some replicated data, but requires additional configuration before it can become fully operational.
Answer Description
A warm site is a partially equipped recovery facility with pre-installed servers, network connectivity, and other core infrastructure. It usually has some software and configuration in place and may receive periodic-though not real-time-data replication. Because it is not maintained in full sync with the primary data center, the IT staff must perform additional configuration and restore recent data before the site can assume production workloads. This contrasts with a cold site, which has only basic infrastructure and no installed hardware or data, and a hot site, which is fully mirrored and ready for immediate failover.
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What is the key difference between a warm site and a cold site?
How does a warm site compare to a hot site in terms of data replication?
Why might an organization choose a warm site over a hot site for disaster recovery?
Which of the following best describes the concept of configuration drift in network management?
The backup and storage of configuration settings at regular intervals
The manual process of aligning system configurations with compliance requirements
The unintended changes to system configurations over time that result in divergence from initial settings
A strategy to periodically update network devices to the latest firmware versions
Answer Description
Configuration drift occurs when the actual configuration state of a device or system deviates from the desired or documented state-often because of manual, out-of-band, or incomplete changes. This divergence can introduce inconsistencies, reduce reliability, and create security or compliance risks. Effective IaC and automation practices continuously detect and remediate drift to keep infrastructure aligned with its intended configuration.
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What causes configuration drift in network environments?
How can automation help prevent configuration drift?
What are the risks associated with configuration drift?
In a data network, what is a primary effect when the volume of data packets exceeds the carrying capacity of the network segment?
Increased packet delays and potential losses
Automatic rerouting of traffic
Reduced latency
Enhanced throughput
Answer Description
When the volume of data packets exceeds the carrying capacity of a network segment, it primarily results in increased packet delays and potential losses. This is because the network cannot handle the excessive load, leading to buffered or dropped packets. Other options like 'Enhanced throughput' and 'Reduced latency' represent misunderstandings of network congestion effects - higher traffic volumes degrade, rather than improve, performance characteristics. 'Automatic rerouting of traffic', although possible through certain configurations, is not a direct consequence of congestion.
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What happens when packets are dropped in a congested network?
How can network congestion be mitigated?
What is the role of buffering in handling network congestion?
Which of the following scenarios BEST represents the utilization of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?
An organization deploys its data services within its own private cloud, managed internally by enterprise IT
A business uses a suite of office productivity applications hosted entirely by the cloud service provider
A development team uses a platform provided by a third party to develop software products without installing local development tools
A company rents virtual machines and storage from a cloud provider, using their own applications on the rented servers
Answer Description
The correct scenario involves renting virtual machines and storage from a cloud provider, which is a characteristic example of IaaS. IaaS provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, enabling users to run and manage applications without managing the physical cloud infrastructure. The other options, while related to cloud services, do not accurately depict the IaaS model. SaaS provides software applications over the internet, PaaS provides platforms to create software that are managed by third-party providers, and private clouds are about deployment models, not service models like IaaS.
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What is Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)?
How does IaaS differ from PaaS and SaaS?
What are the key benefits of using IaaS?
A network administrator is tasked with updating the network documentation for a recently expanded section of their corporate office. What type of diagram is MOST useful to visually represent the specific physical layout of the new servers/devices?
Cable maps
Physical diagrams
Rack diagrams
Network diagrams
Answer Description
A rack diagram is the most useful type of network documentation for visually representing the physical arrangement of devices within server racks. It provides detailed information about the exact placement of hardware, aiding in both troubleshooting and future expansions or modifications. Physical diagrams show the physical connections between devices, not specifically how they are arranged in racks. Network diagrams provide a broader overview of connections and network topology, which does not detail specific device placements in server racks. Cable maps focus primarily on the routing and organization of cables, not on device placement within racks.
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What is a rack diagram, and how is it used?
How does a rack diagram differ from a physical diagram?
Why are rack diagrams important for troubleshooting?
An administrator is configuring a network to prioritize VoIP traffic over HTTP traffic to ensure call quality during peak hours. Which QoS mechanism should be used to categorize and manage these differing types of traffic effectively?
Class of Service (CoS)
Load balancing
Traffic shaping
Packet sniffing
Answer Description
Class of Service (CoS) is a Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism that operates at Layer 2 to mark frames with a priority level. This allows network devices to categorize traffic and prioritize sensitive data, such as VoIP packets, over less time-sensitive traffic like HTTP. This process is crucial for maintaining call quality during periods of network congestion. Traffic shaping is a different QoS technique focused on controlling the rate of traffic flow rather than prioritizing by type. Packet sniffing is a monitoring tool used to capture and analyze network traffic, not manage it. Load balancing distributes traffic across multiple network paths or servers to improve availability and performance but does not inherently prioritize traffic based on its type.
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What is the difference between Class of Service (CoS) and Traffic Shaping?
How does Class of Service (CoS) prioritize VoIP traffic over HTTP?
Why is Class of Service (CoS) critical for VoIP call quality?
An IT administrator is setting up a web server for a company's internal site where financial reports will be shared. The administrator must ensure encrypted connections for this site. Which protocol and port should be correctly configured on the server to meet this requirement?
SMTP on port 25
HTTPS on port 443
FTP on port 21
HTTP on port 80
Answer Description
HTTPS is the secure version of HTTP, providing encryption and secure identification of the server. It typically runs on port 443 to ensure data sent and received is encrypted, which is essential for handling sensitive information such as financial reports. The other options are incorrect. HTTP on port 80 is for unencrypted web traffic. FTP on port 21 is for file transfers and is unencrypted by default. SMTP on port 25 is for sending email and is also unencrypted by default.
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Why is HTTPS used instead of HTTP for securing web traffic?
What is the role of port 443 in HTTPS communication?
Can other protocols like FTP or SMTP be used for encryption?
A network administrator is setting up separate network segments for IP phones on an access switch. Which switch setting should be given priority to optimize call quality and overall performance for these voice devices?
Adjust the speed and duplex settings
Voice VLAN configuration
Enable 802.1Q tagging
Set up link aggregation
Answer Description
Configuring a dedicated voice VLAN allows the switch to separate and apply Quality of Service (QoS) policies to voice traffic, reducing latency and jitter that can degrade call quality. While 802.1Q tagging identifies frames that belong to different VLANs, it does not by itself ensure that voice traffic receives higher priority. Link aggregation increases bandwidth and redundancy, and speed/duplex settings affect physical-layer performance, but neither directly provides the traffic prioritization required by real-time voice communications.
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What is a Voice VLAN, and why is it important for network performance?
How does Quality of Service (QoS) improve call quality in a network?
What is the purpose of 802.1Q tagging, and why is it insufficient alone for prioritizing voice traffic?
Which scenario best represents a typical use case for implementing VXLAN in an enterprise network?
Extending Layer 2 domains across multiple data centers
Reducing the number of required IP addresses in a small office
Managing Quality of Service (QoS) for streaming media
Encrypting data transmission between two endpoints in the same data center
Answer Description
VXLAN is primarily used for Layer 2 network isolation over a Layer 3 network, allowing for the creation of a large number of isolated Layer 2 networks across geographically dispersed data centers. This technology is essential in scenarios where you need to extend the same Layer 2 domain across different data centers without physical connectivity limitations. Choice 'Extending Layer 2 domains across multiple data centers' directly reflects the capability of VXLAN to extend network segments over a Layer 3 infrastructure, which is crucial for large and distributed network architectures. Other options, while feasible in certain contexts, do not specifically leverage the unique Layer 2 encapsulation capabilities of VXLAN.
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What is VXLAN, and why is it important?
How does VXLAN encapsulation work?
Why is VXLAN better suited for modern data centers compared to traditional VLANs?
Which fiber-optic connector, identifiable by its square housing and push-pull latching mechanism that provides a pull-proof connection, is widely deployed in telecommunications and data-communications networks?
Lucent Connector (LC)
Subscriber Connector (SC)
Straight Tip (ST)
Ferrule Connector (FC)
Answer Description
The Subscriber Connector (SC) is the correct answer because its square form factor and push-pull latch create a pull-proof connection that resists accidental unplugging, making it popular in telecom and data-communications patch panels. LC also uses a push-pull latch but in a smaller form factor; ST relies on a bayonet twist-lock; and FC uses a threaded coupling. These differences make LC, ST, and FC plausible yet incorrect choices here.
Ask Bash
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What is the main difference between SC and LC connectors?
Why is the push-pull latching mechanism important for fiber-optic connectors?
What makes the SC connector ideal for telecommunications and data-communications networks?
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