CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-009)
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CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (V9) Information
The CompTIA Network+ N10-009 certification exam is a key credential for IT professionals specializing in network technologies and infrastructure. This exam assesses a candidate's ability to design, configure, manage, and troubleshoot wired and wireless network devices. Unlike more specialized certifications, the Network+ offers a broad foundation, making it ideal for early-career network technicians and administrators. It covers emerging technologies like cloud computing and virtualization, while also emphasizing traditional networking concepts and practices. By passing the N10-009 exam, candidates demonstrate their expertise in these areas, proving their readiness for roles such as network administrator, network field technician, and help desk technician.
The exam's content is divided into several key areas. Network architecture forms a significant part, where candidates must understand the design and implementation of functional networks, including network components and their roles in network services. Network security is also crucial, requiring knowledge of security concepts and protocols, as well as the skills to implement security features on network devices. The exam also tests on network operations and troubleshooting, focusing on monitoring tools, network performance optimization, and problem-solving techniques. Moreover, it includes newer areas like cloud computing and virtualization, reflecting the evolving nature of network technology. This wide-ranging scope ensures that professionals holding the Network+ certification are equipped to support and manage modern network environments effectively.
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Free CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (V9) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Networking ConceptsNetwork ImplementationNetwork OperationsNetwork SecurityNetwork Troubleshooting
Which type of disaster recovery site provides only the basic facility infrastructure-such as building space, power, cooling, and network cabling-but has no pre-installed IT hardware, applications, or real-time data replication, resulting in the longest recovery time when activated after a disaster?
Cloud-based DR site
Cold site
Hot site
Warm site
Answer Description
The correct answer is Cold site. A cold site supplies an empty but prepared facility with essential utilities (power, HVAC, cabling) where an organization can bring in its own equipment after a disaster. Because no servers, applications, or synchronized data are ready beforehand, significant time is required to install hardware, restore backups, and resume normal operations. Hot sites and warm sites already contain at least some operational hardware and more current data, enabling faster recovery, while cloud-based DR solutions typically host virtualized resources that can be brought online more quickly than a cold site.
Ask Bash
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What are the main differences between a hot site, warm site, and cold site?
What are the key challenges with using a cold site for disaster recovery?
Why might an organization choose a cold site over other options like a hot site?
A network technician is experiencing user complaints about intermittent wireless connectivity in a newly expanded office area. Upon initial inspection using a Wi-Fi analyzer, the technician observes fluctuations in signal strength. What is the most likely cause of these fluctuations?
Inactive wireless SSID broadcast by the access point
Interference from other electronic devices or competing wireless networks
Faulty network card in the wireless access point
Exceeding the maximum bandwidth capacity allowed by the wireless network
Answer Description
The observed fluctuations in signal strength depicted by the Wi-Fi analyzer are most likely due to interference. Interference can be caused by numerous factors such as other wireless signals, electronic devices, or even physical barriers that disrupt or weaken the wireless signal. Choosing a less crowded channel or relocating the wireless access points can often reduce such interference. Incorrect answers include 'Faulty network card,' which would likely cause persistent, not fluctuating issues, and 'Inactive wireless SSID,' which would result in no connectivity rather than fluctuating signals. 'Exceeding bandwidth capacity' causes slow performance but does not cause signal strength fluctuations.
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What are common sources of wireless interference?
How does a Wi-Fi analyzer help detect issues?
What is the difference between signal interference and low bandwidth capacity?
Which IPv4 address class is designated for multicast communications?
Class B
Class A
Class E
Class D
Answer Description
Class D is used exclusively for multicast communications. Class A, B, and C are primarily used for unicast addresses which represent single network interfaces, making them unsuitable for multicast purposes. Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes, also not intended for general multicast traffic.
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What is multicast communication?
What is the range of Class D IP addresses?
How does Class D differ from Class E addresses?
During an ARP poisoning (also called ARP spoofing) attack on a local area network, what action by the attacker enables interception of traffic that is intended for another host or the default gateway?
The attacker disables port security to allow unauthorized devices to connect to switch ports.
The attacker maps their own MAC address to the IP address of a legitimate host, causing that host's traffic to be sent to the attacker first.
The attacker encrypts all packets on the wire to prevent anyone else from reading them.
The attacker overwhelms the switch with thousands of fake MAC addresses until the CAM table overflows.
Answer Description
ARP poisoning is performed by repeatedly sending forged ARP replies that bind the attacker's MAC address to the IP address of another device (commonly the gateway). Once the false mapping is cached, frames destined for that IP are delivered to the attacker, who can forward, modify, or drop them-creating a man-in-the-middle condition. MAC flooding (CAM-table overflow) overwhelms a switch with bogus MAC entries, encryption protects data rather than redirects it, and port-security configurations restrict device access; none of these describe how ARP poisoning functions.
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What is ARP and why is it important in networking?
How does ARP poisoning work and why is it dangerous?
How can ARP poisoning attacks be mitigated?
A network administrator is setting up a DHCP server for a new subnet. To ensure specific department devices always receive the same IP addresses whenever their devices connect to the network, which DHCP setting should the administrator configure?
Exclusions
Scope
Reservations
Lease time
Answer Description
The correct configuration to ensure a specific device always receives the same IP address is to use reservations. DHCP reservations bind a specific IP address to the MAC address of a device, guaranteeing that this device receives the same IP address each time it connects to the network. In contrast, exclusions are used to prevent certain IP addresses from being assigned from a scope; scope defines the entire range of possible IP addresses that can be assigned to devices; and lease time determines how long a device holds an IP address before it must renew its DHCP configuration.
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How does DHCP reservations work?
What is the difference between a DHCP reservation and exclusion?
Why is lease time important in DHCP configuration?
A network engineer is setting up a routed network where multiple routers need to operate together within an enterprise network. What is the primary purpose of a router operating at the network layer in this scenario?
To act as a DHCP server distributing IP addresses on the network.
To determine the best path for data packet traversal across different networks based on IP addresses.
To connect multiple network segments at different physical locations.
To assign IP addresses to devices within the network.
Answer Description
A router's primary purpose at the network layer is to determine the best path for data packets to travel from one network to another based on the destination IP address. This involves examining each packet's header, determining where to send it next, and forwarding it toward its destination. Routers create routing tables that list routes to various network destinations and use protocols such as OSPF or EIGRP to dynamically exchange route information with other routers, adapting to changes in the network. While connecting different network segments, assigning IP addresses, or acting as a DHCP server might be functions associated with routers or other devices, these are not its primary roles at the network layer.
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What is a routing table, and how does it help a router determine the best path?
How do protocols like OSPF and EIGRP work in routing data?
What happens if a router cannot find a path to the destination in its routing table?
A network administrator needs to configure a DNS record to associate a domain name with a mail server for their organization. Which DNS record type should they use to achieve this?
TXT (Text)
A (Address)
MX (Mail Exchange)
CNAME (Canonical Name)
Answer Description
The MX (Mail Exchange) record is used in DNS to specify the mail servers responsible for receiving email messages on behalf of a domain. This record is essential for directing email traffic correctly to the organization's mail servers. The A record links a domain to an IP address for general queries but is not specific for mail servers. The CNAME record creates an alias for another domain name, not specifically used for mail servers. Lastly, the TXT record is used for providing arbitrary text about a host, commonly for security data like SPF or DKIM, not for mail server specification.
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What are MX records used for in DNS?
How do MX records prioritize mail servers?
How are MX records different from A and CNAME records?
Which configuration is the BEST to allow a multilayer switch to route traffic between different VLANs?
Create an SVI for each VLAN and assign appropriate IP addresses.
Configure an IP helper address on the switch.
Assign an IP address to each switch physical interface.
Set the native VLAN on a trunk link.
Answer Description
An SVI must be configured for each VLAN to enable routing between them. This requires assigning an IP address to each SVI that acts as the default gateway for the VLAN associated with it. Configuring an IP helper address, while useful for forwarding DHCP requests across networks, isn't specifically for routing between VLANs. Assigning an IP address to each physical interface or setting a native VLAN on a trunk link does not enable inter-VLAN routing.
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What is an SVI, and why is it important for VLAN routing?
What is the difference between an SVI and a physical interface on a switch?
How does configuring a native VLAN on a trunk link differ from enabling inter-VLAN routing?
A network technician needs to install a cable in a factory environment with a high concentration of heavy machinery, which generates significant electromagnetic interference (EMI). To ensure the highest level of data integrity and prevent signal degradation, which of the following cable types should be used?
Coaxial
Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
Optical fiber
Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
Answer Description
Optical fiber cable is the best choice for this environment because it transmits data using pulses of light, making it completely immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) is highly susceptible to EMI. While Coaxial and Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) offer more protection against EMI than UTP, they are still copper-based and not fully immune. Therefore, optical fiber provides the most reliable performance in high-EMI environments.
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Why is optical fiber immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
How does Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) reduce EMI compared to Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)?
What are some other advantages of optical fiber besides EMI immunity?
You are a network administrator tasked with updating the network infrastructure at your company. During the audit, you notice outdated cable maps that do not reflect current network layouts. What is the primary reason for updating these cable maps?
To prepare documentation for an upcoming software license audit.
To ensure network documentation reflects the current layout for efficient troubleshooting and maintenance.
To comply with cabling safety and standards documentation requirements (e.g., ANSI/TIA-568).
To reduce paper consumption and storage costs by eliminating old drawings.
Answer Description
Accurate cable maps are crucial for efficient troubleshooting and management of the network. They assist in quick identification of connection points and paths, thereby reducing downtime and simplifying maintenance tasks. Incorrect maps can lead to confusion, increased troubleshooting times, and potential errors during network upgrades or repairs.
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Why are accurate cable maps important for troubleshooting?
What happens if cable maps are outdated?
How does updating cable maps impact network maintenance?
Which statement BEST describes how a directional antenna differs from an omnidirectional antenna in a Wi-Fi deployment?
It concentrates RF energy into a narrow beam, extending range in that direction and limiting interference from other directions.
It radiates RF energy equally in every horizontal direction, providing wide coverage but limited range.
It is intended mainly for mobile client devices that change orientation frequently.
It always requires higher transmitter power because antenna gain is lower than that of an omnidirectional antenna.
Answer Description
A directional antenna focuses radio-frequency energy into a narrower beam (higher gain), so more of the transmitted power is delivered in the desired direction. This increases usable range and helps reduce the impact of interference coming from, or leaking to, other directions. An omnidirectional antenna spreads its energy in all horizontal directions (roughly 360 °), providing broad area coverage but at a lower gain per direction.
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What is antenna gain, and how does it relate to directional and omnidirectional antennas?
What are common scenarios where directional antennas are used in Wi-Fi networks?
How does interference reduction work with directional antennas compared to omnidirectional antennas?
What does the 802.11h wireless standard specifically address to aid in reducing interference in the 5GHz frequency band?
Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) and Transmit Power Control (TPC)
Extended Service Set Identifications (ESSID) and Band Steering
Channel aggregation and traffic prioritization
Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS) and Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
Answer Description
802.11h addresses Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) and Transmit Power Control (TPC), which are crucial for minimizing interference and managing signal power in networks operating in the 5GHz band to comply with regulatory requirements. DFS allows devices to detect radar signals and switch to another channel if interference is detected, while TPC helps in adjusting the transmit power to the minimum needed to reach the intended receiver. This management aids in reducing interference with other devices and networks.
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What is Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) and how does it work?
What is Transmit Power Control (TPC) in wireless networks?
Why does the 5GHz band require special features like DFS and TPC?
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of BGP in network implementations?
To increase the internal switching speed within an individual network
To manage the exchange of routing information between autonomous systems
To encrypt data transferred over the Internet
To assign IP addresses to devices within a local network
Answer Description
BGP is primarily used to manage how packets are routed across the Internet through the exchange of routing and reachability information among edge routers. This protocol enables ASs (autonomous systems) to determine the best route paths for inter-domain traffic, which enhances the efficiency and stability of the network. The incorrect answers mention concepts not directly related to the core functionality of BGP.
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What is an Autonomous System (AS) in networking?
How does BGP determine the best route for traffic?
How is BGP different from interior gateway protocols like OSPF?
What describes the reduction in signal strength as it travels through a cable?
Interference
Attenuation
Echo
Collision
Answer Description
Attenuation refers to the loss of signal strength over distance, which is common in various networking scenarios-especially when long cable runs are involved. Recognizing attenuation allows technicians to identify when repeaters, higher-grade cabling, or shorter cable runs are needed, while ruling out other issues such as interference, collisions, or echo that have different causes and solutions.
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What factors contribute to attenuation in cables?
How can attenuation be mitigated in network setups?
How does attenuation differ between copper and fiber-optic cables?
A network administrator has recently applied several configurations to a core router to enhance its security setup. To ensure these configurations are properly applied and active on the router, which command should the administrator use?
show mac-address-table
show config
show power
show interface
Answer Description
The command show config is used specifically to display the current configuration of a network device, making it the correct choice for verifying changes. This command outputs the entire or parts of the current running configuration, which is essential in auditing and troubleshooting practices. Alternatives like show interface or show mac-address-table target specific data that, while useful for other troubleshooting aspects, do not provide comprehensive configuration details necessary for verifying entire device settings.
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What does the 'show config' command display?
How is 'show interface' different from 'show config'?
When would you use 'show mac-address-table'?
Your company's network frequently faces problems with clients being unable to access websites by name using the primary name resolution server, set to query other servers for this information if it doesn't already have it. What is the most likely cause of these connectivity problems?
Security protocols on domain querying were activated, blocking all external name requests
The presence of a rogue configuration protocol server is disrupting name query processes
The connectivity issues stem from having the caching feature disabled on the name resolution server
The name resolution server can't reach external servers because of incorrect firewall configurations
Answer Description
In situations where a server that provides name lookups is set to pass queries to other name servers, issues can arise if it cannot reach these external servers due to incorrect network configurations, such as improperly set firewall rules. These servers attempt to obtain name resolution from up-chain servers, and if isolated by network barriers, clients will experience domain lookup failures. Incorrect answers include: Disabling cache impacts performance by not storing lookup results, but doesn't inherently prevent lookups; issues caused by a rogue configuration protocol server affect network addressing, not name querying directly; enabling security extensions secures query responses and does not generally block outgoing queries unless misconfigured.
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What is a name resolution server?
How do firewalls affect name resolution server operations?
What is the role of caching in DNS servers?
A telecommunications provider wants to upgrade its core network infrastructure to improve scalability and reduce operational expenses associated with physical network devices. The solution should enable dynamic management of network services such as VPNs and intrusion prevention systems. Which technology would best fulfill these requirements?
Software-defined Networking (SDN)
Network Functions Virtualization (NFV)
Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)
Answer Description
Network Functions Virtualization (NFV) is the correct answer because it provides the ability to manage network functions like VPNs and intrusion prevention systems as virtual services rather than through physical hardware. This technology directly addresses the need for scalability and reduction in operational expenses by allowing for the dynamic deployment and management of virtual network services. While SDN facilitates centralized management and efficiency, and MPLS optimizes data flow across the network, neither provides the functionality to virtualize network services in the manner that NFV does.
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What exactly is Network Functions Virtualization (NFV)?
How does NFV differ from Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?
What are the key benefits of using NFV in a modern network infrastructure?
A DevOps network team is introducing Infrastructure as Code (IaC) to automate switch and firewall deployments across several branch offices. Which technology should they implement first to track every proposed configuration change, maintain a history of revisions, and enable rapid rollbacks when errors are detected?
A source control (version-control) system to manage configuration files
A next-generation firewall and IDS cluster for added security
A high-performance Layer 3 switch to lower network latency
A remote power-cycling console to physically manage devices
Answer Description
Version-control repositories such as Git store each revision of configuration files, record who made the change and when, and support branching, merging, and rollbacks. This collaborative history prevents accidental overwrites and provides an auditable trail-capabilities the other choices do not offer.
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What are some popular source control systems, and how are they used in network configuration?
Why is version control critical in collaborative network environments?
How does using source control improve auditing and compliance efforts in network management?
Which type of DNS zone is responsible for mapping an IP address back to its associated domain name?
Forward zone
Reverse zone
Security zone
Redirection zone
Answer Description
A Reverse lookup zone is responsible for mapping IP addresses to their corresponding domain names, which is the opposite of a forward lookup zone that maps domain names to IP addresses. This functionality is critical for various network tasks, including network troubleshooting, logging, and verifying the authenticity of email servers to help filter spam.
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What is the difference between a reverse DNS zone and a forward DNS zone?
Why is reverse DNS important for email validation?
What tools can be used to query reverse DNS records?
An IT administrator at a financial services firm is enhancing the security policy related to user authentication on their network. The goal is to ensure only authorized users can access sensitive financial data. The administrator decides to implement an additional layer of security that involves something the user knows and something the user has. Which of the following authentication methods is the administrator planning to implement?
Biometric authentication
Single-factor authentication
Multifactor authentication (MFA)
Hardware token only
Answer Description
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is the correct choice because it requires two or more independent authentication factors. In this case, combining something the user knows (such as a password) with something the user has (such as a hardware token or a mobile device receiving a code) satisfies the MFA definition. Single-factor authentication uses only one factor, making it less secure. Biometric authentication typically involves only something the user is (such as a fingerprint) unless combined with an additional factor. Using a hardware token alone is still single-factor because it relies solely on something the user has.
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What are the three factors of authentication in MFA?
Why is single-factor authentication considered less secure than MFA?
How does a hardware token work in MFA?
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