CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-009)
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CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (V9) Information
The CompTIA Network+ N10-009 certification exam is a key credential for IT professionals specializing in network technologies and infrastructure. This exam assesses a candidate's ability to design, configure, manage, and troubleshoot wired and wireless network devices. Unlike more specialized certifications, the Network+ offers a broad foundation, making it ideal for early-career network technicians and administrators. It covers emerging technologies like cloud computing and virtualization, while also emphasizing traditional networking concepts and practices. By passing the N10-009 exam, candidates demonstrate their expertise in these areas, proving their readiness for roles such as network administrator, network field technician, and help desk technician.
The exam's content is divided into several key areas. Network architecture forms a significant part, where candidates must understand the design and implementation of functional networks, including network components and their roles in network services. Network security is also crucial, requiring knowledge of security concepts and protocols, as well as the skills to implement security features on network devices. The exam also tests on network operations and troubleshooting, focusing on monitoring tools, network performance optimization, and problem-solving techniques. Moreover, it includes newer areas like cloud computing and virtualization, reflecting the evolving nature of network technology. This wide-ranging scope ensures that professionals holding the Network+ certification are equipped to support and manage modern network environments effectively.
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Free CompTIA Network+ N10-009 (V9) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Networking ConceptsNetwork ImplementationNetwork OperationsNetwork SecurityNetwork Troubleshooting
To enhance security by ensuring that domain name resolutions are authenticated and verifiable, which technology should be implemented?
DNS over HTTPS (DoH)
SSL
DNS over TLS (DoT)
DNSSEC
Answer Description
DNSSEC (Domain Name Security Extensions) enhances the security of the domain name system by signing records with public key cryptography. This allows client systems to verify the authenticity and integrity of the response, protecting against certain types of attacks such as cache poisoning. Technologies like DoH and DoT, while providing confidentiality through encryption of requests, do not offer mechanisms for response validation akin to DNSSEC.
Ask Bash
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How does DNSSEC protect against cache poisoning?
How is DNSSEC different from encryption-based technologies like DoH or DoT?
What are some limitations or challenges of implementing DNSSEC?
A network administrator notices that an IP camera, which is PoE-capable, is not powering up despite being connected to a PoE switch. The switch supports 802.3af and the camera is located 115 meters from the switch using a Cat5e cable. What could be the most probable cause?
The switch is not supplying enough power due to a high number of connected devices.
The camera and switch are incompatible with each other's PoE standards.
The camera requires PoE+, which the switch does not support.
The cable used is too long, leading to a voltage drop significant enough to affect power delivery.
Answer Description
Given the scenario, among the listed reasons, the most probable cause for the IP camera not powering up is exceeding the maximum power delivery range for PoE over Cat5e, which is typically recommended up to 100 meters. As the power reaches the limits of its range, voltage drops can occur, leading to insufficient power delivery to the device. Upgrading to a Cat6 cable could help due to its inherently lower resistance per meter, potentially mitigating voltage drop over the same distance. The other options, though possible in different contexts, are less likely in this specific scenario given the details provided (e.g., no mention of incorrect standards or device incompatibility).
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Why is the maximum PoE distance over Cat5e limited to 100 meters?
How does using a Cat6 cable mitigate voltage drop over the same distance?
What are the differences between 802.3af and 802.3at (PoE+)?
A network administrator needs to create a tunnel between two offices so that different Layer 3 protocols (for example, IPv4, IPv6, or routing updates) can traverse the public Internet. The solution should add minimal overhead and does not require built-in encryption or authentication. Which tunneling protocol best meets these requirements?
IPSec
GRE
MPLS
SSL/TLS
Answer Description
Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) can encapsulate a wide variety of OSI Layer-3 passenger protocols inside an IP carrier, letting dissimilar routed protocols move across a single-protocol backbone. GRE itself provides no confidentiality, integrity, or endpoint authentication, so it is often paired with IPsec when those protections are needed. IPsec includes strong encryption and authentication, which violates the "no built-in security" condition. TLS/SSL secures individual application sessions rather than transporting multiple routed protocols, and MPLS is a label-switching technology used mainly by service-provider networks to forward traffic and build VPN services rather than for simple point-to-point tunnels.
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What is the GRE tunneling protocol, and why is it used?
How does GRE differ from IPsec for creating tunnels?
When would GRE be paired with IPsec in a network?
A network administrator needs to configure a DNS record to associate a domain name with a mail server for their organization. Which DNS record type should they use to achieve this?
CNAME (Canonical Name)
A (Address)
MX (Mail Exchange)
TXT (Text)
Answer Description
The MX (Mail Exchange) record is used in DNS to specify the mail servers responsible for receiving email messages on behalf of a domain. This record is essential for directing email traffic correctly to the organization's mail servers. The A record links a domain to an IP address for general queries but is not specific for mail servers. The CNAME record creates an alias for another domain name, not specifically used for mail servers. Lastly, the TXT record is used for providing arbitrary text about a host, commonly for security data like SPF or DKIM, not for mail server specification.
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What are MX records used for in DNS?
How do MX records prioritize mail servers?
How are MX records different from A and CNAME records?
A network engineer needs to segment a network into multiple broadcast domains without using additional hardware. Which Layer 2 technology should be implemented to achieve this?
Routing
NAT
Subnetting
VLAN
Answer Description
VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model and enable a network engineer to create multiple, isolated broadcast domains on a single physical network infrastructure without requiring additional hardware. This allows for improved network segmentation and traffic management. Subnetting operates at Layer 3 by dividing networks based on IP addresses. Routing and NAT (Network Address Translation) are also Layer 3 functions and do not provide Layer 2 segmentation capabilities.
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What is a VLAN and how does it work?
What is the difference between VLAN and Subnetting?
How do VLANs improve network performance?
Which of the following best describes a network that modifies its behavior based on the type of application traffic it detects?
A network with fixed QoS policies that strictly segments bandwidth based on VLAN IDs regardless of traffic type.
A network that prioritizes video streaming over regular browsing to ensure quality service.
A network that employs a standard firewall rule set applied uniformly to all traffic.
A network that uses the same routing protocol for all data packets flowing through it.
Answer Description
The correct answer is the one that defines a network's ability to dynamically adjust its services and priorities based on the recognition and analysis of different types of application traffic, which is central to the concept of being application aware. This involves real-time adaptation to optimize application performance and reliability, differentiating it from static configurations that do not change based on the traffic type.
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What is an application-aware network?
How does application-aware networking differ from traditional QoS policies?
What technologies enable application-aware networks?
A network administrator notices that devices on the local network are unable to access external websites. After verifying that internet services from the ISP are operational and that internal resources are accessible, the administrator suspects an issue with the network's routing configuration. What configuration error is likely causing the devices to fail connecting to external websites?
Incorrect subnet masks are configured on the devices.
The routing table contains incorrect entries for local subnets.
The default gateway is not correctly configured on the router.
ACLs are blocking access to external network addresses.
Answer Description
The likeliest issue in this scenario is that the default gateway is not configured or incorrectly configured on the router. The default gateway provides the necessary routing information for forwarding packets destined for external networks and the internet. If it's missing or incorrect, devices can communicate within the local network but fail to find a route for external addresses. Incorrect entries in the routing table typically only affect specific network segments, and incorrect subnets would largely prevent local communications, not just external communications.
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What is a default gateway in networking?
How is the default gateway configured on a router?
What happens if the default gateway is misconfigured?
A network administrator notices that a switch port, which connects to a server, is no longer active and upon checking, finds that the port has been put into an 'error disabled' state. What is the MOST likely cause for this state?
The switch experienced a temperature anomaly exceeding operational thresholds.
The DHCP server has run out of IP addresses to assign to clients.
The port security settings have been violated, such as exceeding the maximum number of allowed MAC addresses.
There was an incorrect cable type used between the server and the switch.
Answer Description
The correct reason why the port would go into an 'error disabled' state in this scenario is usually due to a violation of port security settings, such as exceeding the maximum allowed MAC addresses. Port security limits the number of valid MAC addresses allowed on a port to prevent unauthorized access. If this number is exceeded, the default action for many switches is to disable the port to prevent possible security breaches. Incorrect cable types or DHCP exhaustion typically do not directly cause ports to be error disabled, and temperature anomalies are more related to hardware malfunctions rather than configurations that trigger port security.
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What is port security?
How does a switch detect a violation in port security?
What steps can a network administrator take to resolve an error-disabled port?
A branch office has deployed an SD-WAN solution that performs deep-packet inspection to recognize individual applications such as VoIP, Office 365, or peer-to-peer traffic. The device can then automatically prioritize latency-sensitive voice traffic, route cloud-SaaS traffic over the best-performing link, or block unauthorized file-sharing flows based on predefined policies. Which SD-WAN capability best describes this behavior?
Application aware
Multitenancy
Zero-touch provisioning
Transport agnostic
Answer Description
The described behavior is application aware networking (often called application-aware routing). The SD-WAN appliance inspects traffic up to Layer 7 to identify the application generating each flow, then applies policies-such as path selection, prioritization, throttling, or blocking-tailored to that application's requirements. Zero-touch provisioning automates initial device onboarding, transport agnostic refers to supporting any underlying WAN medium, and multitenancy refers to isolating different customer or departmental networks on shared infrastructure. None of those terms involve recognizing applications and acting on that information, so they are incorrect choices.
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What does 'application aware' mean in SD-WAN?
What is deep-packet inspection (DPI), and how does it work?
How does application-aware routing differ from transport agnostic routing?
A network administrator is configuring a server to ensure secure file transfers between the server and client machines. The administrator wants to use a protocol that encrypts the data transfer using SSH. Which port should the administrator ensure is open on the firewall?
Port 21
Port 22
Port 23
Port 443
Answer Description
Port 22 is used by SSH (Secure Shell) and by extension, SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol), which uses SSH to securely transfer files. Ensuring that port 22 is open on the firewall allows for encrypted transmissions, providing both security and verification. Port 21 is used by FTP, which is not secure by itself. Port 23, used by Telnet, transmits data in plaintext and is less secure than SFTP/SSH. Port 443 is commonly used by HTTPS, which is secure but meant for secure web traffic, not the type of file server access implied in the scenario.
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What is SSH, and why is it secure?
How does SFTP differ from FTP?
What are the roles of common ports like 22, 21, 23, and 443?
What is typically the goal of an unauthorized server that assigns network configurations to clients?
To increase network efficiency by providing backup configuration services
To monitor network performance and traffic
To filter and secure network traffic
To disrupt network operations by issuing incorrect network information
Answer Description
An unauthorized server that assigns network configurations, such as a rogue DHCP server, often intercepts or disrupts network traffic by providing incorrect configurations to clients. This misdirection can lead to man-in-the-middle attacks or other security breaches, highlighting why understanding this threat is crucial. The incorrect answers do not accurately describe the primary malicious intent of such a server.
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What is a rogue DHCP server?
What is a man-in-the-middle attack?
How can network administrators detect and prevent rogue DHCP servers?
An IT specialist is tasked with configuring a company's new email server. The team wants to ensure that outbound email is encrypted using the method most commonly negotiated on TCP port 587. Which configuration setting should the specialist enable to meet this requirement?
Enable STARTTLS
Configure IMAP to listen on port 587
Use plain SMTP only on port 587
Require implicit SSL/TLS on port 587
Answer Description
Port 587 is reserved for SMTP message submission. By default, it begins as an unencrypted session and should be upgraded to TLS with the STARTTLS command. Enabling STARTTLS on the server (and requiring clients to use it) ensures that each message is encrypted after the initial handshake. Using plain SMTP on port 587 does not guarantee encryption; implicit SSL/TLS requires port 465 instead, and IMAP is a different protocol entirely.
Ask Bash
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What is STARTTLS and why is it important for email encryption?
How does port 587 differ from port 465 in terms of email encryption?
Why is IMAP not suitable for use on port 587?
Your team is tasked with diagnosing intermittent network traffic issues on a high-speed corporate network. You decide to use a network tap to monitor traffic between two critical switches. When installing the tap, what is crucial to ensure effective monitoring and minimal impact on network performance?
Use an active tap
Deploy an extra switch dedicated to monitoring the traffic
Use a passive tap
Implement an additional hub between the switches
Answer Description
Choosing a passive tap is important because it copies traffic without inserting any active electronics into the data path. Passive taps require no external power, introduce virtually zero latency, and will continue to pass production traffic even if the monitoring device or the tap itself loses power. Active taps, by contrast, must be powered to regenerate or multiplex the signal; a loss of power can create a point of failure and even low-latency active taps still add measurable delay. Placing an additional hub or switch in line would introduce active components that can drop, filter, or alter frames and may oversubscribe bandwidth, so these options are not recommended for unbiased, high-speed monitoring.
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What is a passive tap, and why is it important for network monitoring?
How do active taps differ from passive taps in network monitoring?
What issues could arise from using hubs or switches for monitoring traffic?
A network technician is investigating a report that users in the marketing department (VLAN 20) can access servers in the finance department's network segment (VLAN 30). According to security policy, these two segments should be completely isolated from each other. The technician verifies that devices in both departments are receiving correct IP addresses from the DHCP server. What is the most likely cause of this security breach?
A broadcast storm is occurring on the network due to a routing loop.
The default gateway is misconfigured on the marketing department's workstations.
One or more switch ports for the marketing department have been assigned to the finance department's VLAN.
An access control list (ACL) is missing from the core router's configuration.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that one or more switch ports have been assigned to the wrong VLAN. VLANs (Virtual LANs) create logically separate networks on the same physical infrastructure. If a switch port used by a marketing department device is mistakenly assigned to the finance department's VLAN, that device will become part of the finance network segment, bypassing the intended security separation. A misconfigured default gateway or a routing loop would typically cause connectivity failures or performance degradation, not grant unintended access. While a missing access control list (ACL) on a router could also allow unwanted inter-VLAN traffic, the most fundamental cause for a device appearing in the wrong logical segment is an incorrect VLAN assignment on its switch port.
Ask Bash
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What is a VLAN and how does it work?
How can a switch port be assigned to a VLAN?
What is the role of an ACL in networking?
Which of the following best describes the concept of configuration drift in network management?
A strategy to periodically update network devices to the latest firmware versions
The unintended changes to system configurations over time that result in divergence from initial settings
The manual process of aligning system configurations with compliance requirements
The backup and storage of configuration settings at regular intervals
Answer Description
Configuration drift occurs when the actual configuration state of a device or system deviates from the desired or documented state-often because of manual, out-of-band, or incomplete changes. This divergence can introduce inconsistencies, reduce reliability, and create security or compliance risks. Effective IaC and automation practices continuously detect and remediate drift to keep infrastructure aligned with its intended configuration.
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What causes configuration drift in network environments?
How can automation help prevent configuration drift?
What are the risks associated with configuration drift?
An IT technician is tasked with upgrading the network infrastructure of a small business to support higher speed applications such as video conferencing and large file transfers. The current network uses Cat 5e Ethernet cables. Which type of cable should the technician recommend to significantly increase the speed capacity of the network?
Cat 6
Cat 6a
Cat 7
Cat 5e
Answer Description
The correct answer is Cat 6a because it supports speeds up to 10 Gbps over distances up to 100 meters, which is ideal for a modern small business requiring high-speed applications like video conferencing and large file transfers. In contrast, Cat 6 supports 10 Gbps but only up to 55 meters in high crosstalk environments, making it less reliable for consistent high-speed delivery across a business premise. Cat 5e, supporting up to 1 Gbps, currently does not meet the requirements for higher speed applications. Cat 7, although capable of up to 10 Gbps, is typically used for specific cases due to its shielded system and is not a common upgrade path from Cat 5e.
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What is the main difference between Cat 6 and Cat 6a cables?
Why is Cat 7 not a common upgrade from Cat 5e cables?
What does 'crosstalk' mean in terms of network cables?
A network technician is preparing a network diagram that showcases all the physical transmission mediums, including cables and hardware connections, within the company's network infrastructure. Which type of network diagram is MOST appropriate for this purpose?
Logical diagram
Layer 1 diagram
Layer 2 diagram
Layer 3 diagram
Answer Description
A Layer 1 diagram is the best choice because it focuses specifically on the physical aspects of the network-such as cabling, media, and physical ports-which aligns precisely with the requirement to display physical transmission mediums and connections. Layer 2 and Layer 3 diagrams emphasize data-link and network-layer information, while a logical diagram focuses on traffic flow and subnet relationships rather than cabling.
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What is the purpose of a Layer 1 diagram?
How is a Layer 1 diagram different from a Layer 2 diagram?
What is the difference between a physical diagram and a logical diagram?
A network technician suspects that several issues in the network are due to unmarked cables that might be incorrectly patched. What is the BEST tool to use to trace and identify these specific cables within a bundled and unmarked group?
Wi-Fi analyzer
Toner
Wire strippers
Cable tester
Answer Description
A toner, which consists of a tone generator and a probe, is specifically designed for tracing and identifying wires or cables within a group. It works by sending a tone signal down the cable, which the probe can then detect. This is crucial in environments where cables are unmarked or bundled together, allowing a technician to follow the tone to locate the correct cable. A cable tester is primarily used for verifying the functionality and integrity of a cable's connections, not for tracing its physical path. Wire strippers are used to remove the protective coating of wires for termination. A Wi-Fi analyzer is a tool for wireless networks and is not applicable to wired cable tracing.
Ask Bash
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How does a toner work to trace cables?
What is the difference between a toner and a cable tester?
When should a network technician use a Wi-Fi analyzer instead of a toner?
Which of the following best describes a primary function of the OSI model's Session layer?
Encoding and decoding data streams in a network
Ensuring data packets are delivered in sequence and without errors via error recovery features
Routing packets between different networks based on destination IP address
Managing sessions or dialogs between applications, including control over opening and closing connections
Answer Description
The correct answer effectively captures the essence of the Session layer, which is managing sessions or dialogs between applications. This includes opening, closing, and managing sessions between end-user application processes. Dialog control ensures that the session can be set up as simplex or duplex. While the other options relate to sessions, they do not directly reflect the core responsibilities of the Session layer in the OSI model.
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What is the role of the OSI model's Session layer beyond managing sessions?
How does the Session layer differ from the Transport layer?
What protocols operate at the Session layer?
An organization wishes to enforce policies that restrict access to sensitive resources from unauthorized network segments. Which security rule should primarily be configured to manage this access?
Disable unused ports
MAC filtering
Access control list (ACL)
Content filtering
Answer Description
An Access control list (ACL) is the correct answer because it is used to define which users or systems are granted access to specific resources. ACLs can restrict access to network resources based on IP addresses, protocols, or ports, effectively controlling which packets are allowed through a router or firewall. In contrast, MAC filtering is mainly used to allow or deny network access based on hardware addresses, which is less about resource-specific permissions and more about network access. Content filtering manages access to specific types of content rather than securing resources based on network segments. Disabling unused ports is a precautionary security measure to minimize unnecessary network entry points, but it does not involve resource access permissions between network segments.
Ask Bash
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How does an ACL work to control access to network resources?
What is the difference between standard and extended ACLs?
What are the best practices for configuring and managing ACLs?
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