00:20:00

CompTIA CySA+ Practice Test (CS0-003)

Use the form below to configure your CompTIA CySA+ Practice Test (CS0-003). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

Logo for CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 (V3)
Questions
Number of questions in the practice test
Free users are limited to 20 questions, upgrade to unlimited
Seconds Per Question
Determines how long you have to finish the practice test
Exam Objectives
Which exam objectives should be included in the practice test

CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 (V3) Information

CompTIA CySA+, short for CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst, is a globally recognized certification designed for IT professionals seeking to specialize in cybersecurity analytics and threat detection. This certification is aimed at individuals who want to enhance their skills in identifying and mitigating security threats within an organization's network. CySA+ certification covers various aspects of cybersecurity, including threat analysis, vulnerability assessment, and incident response. It validates the ability to analyze data and behavior patterns to detect and respond to security incidents effectively. By earning the CompTIA CySA+ certification, professionals demonstrate their proficiency in protecting organizations against evolving cyber threats, making them valuable assets in the field of cybersecurity.

CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 (V3) Logo
  • Free CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 (V3) Practice Test

  • 20 Questions
  • Unlimited
  • Security Operations
    Vulnerability Management
    Incident Response and Management
    Reporting and Communication
Question 1 of 20

A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing a vulnerability scan report and notices an entry highlighting a service running an outdated and vulnerable version of SSL. This vulnerability is susceptible to a well-known exploit that allows an attacker to decrypt sensitive information. Given the widespread knowledge and the availability of exploit code for this vulnerability, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the analyst to take?

  • Perform a credentialed scan to confirm the vulnerability's presence.

  • Immediately isolate the server from the production network.

  • Implement a compensating control by adding a rule to the web application firewall (WAF).

  • Prioritize the patching of the affected service.

Question 2 of 20

When analyzing vulnerability management metrics to identify trends, which of the following provides the most valuable insight for tracking improvement over time?

  • Frequency of vulnerability scans

  • Mean time to remediate

  • Number of patches applied monthly

  • Total number of identified vulnerabilities

Question 3 of 20

What is the primary consideration for escalating an incident?

  • Frequency of similar incidents in the past week

  • Number of user reports

  • Potential impact on the organization

  • Detailed incident documentation

Question 4 of 20

When aligning vulnerability management practices with industry frameworks, which of the following is the BEST choice to ensure that an organization's information security management system encompasses a broad set of security controls and risk management?

  • ISO/IEC 27005

  • ISO/IEC 27001

  • ISO/IEC 27032

  • ISO/IEC 27002

Question 5 of 20

During the analysis of a security incident, an endpoint is flagged with several alerts, including unusual process executions and network connections to suspicious external IP addresses. Which of the following responses leverages the full potential of the EDR solution and is the MOST immediate and effective in containing the threat?

  • Performing a full memory dump of the endpoint for a detailed forensic analysis.

  • Initiating an on-demand threat hunt to gather more information about the executing processes and network connections.

  • Escalating the alerts to the organization's cyber incident-response team for further investigation.

  • Isolating the endpoint from the network to prevent further potential data loss or lateral movement.

Question 6 of 20

An organization has recently completed a security risk assessment and discovered multiple critical vulnerabilities. Which approach would BEST ensure that newly released patches are applied quickly while causing the least disruption to day-to-day business operations?

  • Deploy every vendor patch as soon as it is released, without any scheduling.

  • Use an automated patch management solution that schedules deployments during off-peak hours.

  • Require system administrators to install patches manually every two weeks.

  • Apply patches only during the end-of-month maintenance window.

Question 7 of 20

Which phase in the MITRE ATT&CK framework best helps an organization identify the initial access vector an attacker used to infiltrate the network?

  • Execution

  • Impact

  • Exfiltration

  • Initial Access

Question 8 of 20

After remediating an incident that resulted in unauthorized access to customer data, which of the following is the BEST method to communicate the incident's details to the affected customers?

  • Tweet an alert from the company's official account advising customers to change their passwords.

  • Distribute the internal incident report to customers as it contains the most technical details.

  • Send an official notification to affected customers detailing the incident and recommended steps for them to take.

  • Post a detailed description of the incident and its remediation steps on the company blog.

Question 9 of 20

After an incident response, a cybersecurity analyst is tasked with drafting an executive summary. Which element is most crucial to include to ensure that executives understand the impact and necessary actions?

  • Recommendations for technical staff

  • Detailed timeline of events

  • Specific technical details of the incident

  • Impacted systems and data

Question 10 of 20

Which of the following best characterizes a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) signed between two internal departments regarding cybersecurity vulnerability remediation?

  • It documents mutual intent to cooperate but usually does not impose legally enforceable obligations such as fixed remediation deadlines.

  • It is a statutory mandate that compels the organization to notify regulators and remediate all critical vulnerabilities within 24 hours.

  • It serves as an internal audit standard that must be followed when configuring compensating controls for legacy systems.

  • It functions as a service-level agreement that contractually enforces remediation targets and penalties for non-compliance.

Question 11 of 20

A junior SOC analyst captures the beginning of a TLS 1.2 handshake in Wireshark. The Server Hello advertises the cipher suite TLS_DHE_RSA_WITH_AES_128_GCM_SHA256. The lead analyst explains that the three-letter component DHE designates a mechanism that performs an asymmetric key exchange so the client and server can agree on a premaster secret, after which the negotiated AES cipher protects all remaining traffic-providing perfect forward secrecy for the session. Which technique is represented by DHE in this cipher suite?

  • RSA key transport

  • Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (DHE)

  • Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

  • Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman static (ECDH)

Question 12 of 20

Your team is tasked with conducting a security assessment on a proprietary web application. They've decided to use fuzzing to identify potential input validation issues that could lead to security vulnerabilities. Which of the following methods best describes their approach to finding these issues?

  • Using network sniffing tools to intercept and analyze traffic between the client and application server.

  • Scanning the source code with static analysis tools to identify vulnerabilities.

  • Performing legitimate transactions on the application to verify if the responses are as expected.

  • Providing random and malformed data to the application forms to identify handling errors.

Question 13 of 20

Your organization requires a comprehensive vulnerability assessment to identify potential security threats within the network infrastructure. You need a versatile tool that performs both network scanning and exploit testing. Which tool should you employ to accomplish these tasks?

  • Wireshark

  • Nmap

  • Metasploit framework

  • OpenSSL

Question 14 of 20

When preparing a vulnerability management report, which of the following elements should be given the highest priority to communicate effectively with stakeholders?

  • A complete list of all affected hosts and software versions

  • Risk score

  • Historical data showing vulnerability trends over the past year

  • Detailed mitigation steps for all critical vulnerabilities

Question 15 of 20

During a weekend ransomware attack, multiple file servers and an on-prem email cluster were encrypted. By Monday morning, operations are partially restored, and you, as the incident response lead, must submit an executive-level incident report before senior management meets with regulators. The vice president of legal says the board needs to "clearly understand how far the attackers got" before deciding on public disclosure. Given this objective, which single section of the report deserves the greatest level of detail to communicate the incident's scope?

  • Mean time to detect and mean time to respond metrics for the incident

  • Inventory of affected systems, data classifications, and business processes

  • Root cause analysis outlining the initial compromise vector

  • Chronological timeline of containment and recovery actions

Question 16 of 20

During which phase of the incident management life cycle does the response team formally review the incident, document how effective its actions were, capture what went well, and record recommendations for improvement to strengthen future responses?

  • Chain of custody

  • Incident response plan

  • Remediation

  • Lessons learned

Question 17 of 20

During an incident response, the cybersecurity team is required to draft a report for the organization's upper management. Which section of the report should concisely summarize the incident's impact, scope, and initial recommendations without going into technical detail?

  • Executive summary

  • Detailed timeline

  • Technical evidence appendix

  • Root cause analysis

Question 18 of 20

Your organization needs to apply critical security patches to its main database server. You have identified several potential time slots for the maintenance. Which factor is the most important to consider when selecting a maintenance window to apply these patches?

  • A time when the risk exposure is highest

  • A time that allows at least 24-hour notification to all users

  • A time when system usage is at its lowest

  • A time approved by regulatory authorities

Question 19 of 20

What term is used to describe a vulnerability that is known only to attackers and for which no patch has yet been released?

  • Vulnerability under review

  • Unidentified vulnerability

  • Zero-day vulnerability

  • Known issue

Question 20 of 20

When evaluating an organization's incident response plan, which of the following elements is MOST vital in ensuring a structured and successful response to information security incidents?

  • Regularly scheduled tabletop exercises to simulate incident scenarios

  • A comprehensive list of internal contact information for critical personnel

  • An updated inventory of all data backups and their respective recovery procedures

  • Access to state-of-the-art incident response tools and software