CompTIA CySA+ Practice Test (CS0-003)
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CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 (V3) Information
CompTIA CySA+, short for CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst, is a globally recognized certification designed for IT professionals seeking to specialize in cybersecurity analytics and threat detection. This certification is aimed at individuals who want to enhance their skills in identifying and mitigating security threats within an organization's network. CySA+ certification covers various aspects of cybersecurity, including threat analysis, vulnerability assessment, and incident response. It validates the ability to analyze data and behavior patterns to detect and respond to security incidents effectively. By earning the CompTIA CySA+ certification, professionals demonstrate their proficiency in protecting organizations against evolving cyber threats, making them valuable assets in the field of cybersecurity.

Free CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 (V3) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Security OperationsVulnerability ManagementIncident Response and ManagementReporting and Communication
During a routine vulnerability assessment, a security analyst identifies a critical flaw in a web application server that currently supports high-traffic e-commerce operations. The recommended patch could potentially impact the performance of the application during peak hours. In preparing a vulnerability management report, what information should the analyst prioritize to ensure stakeholders understand the risk without unnecessarily alarming them about potential performance degradation?
Advocate for risk acceptance due to the potential for performance degradation
Focus primarily on the recurrence risk of the same vulnerability in the future
Prioritize detailed risk scores and potential impact to guide decision-making
Recommend immediate implementation of the patch to avert any potential exploit
Answer Description
The analyst should emphasize the risk score associated with the vulnerability and the potential impact of not patching. This provides stakeholders with a clear understanding of the severity and the necessity for action. While not alarming them with immediate performance issues, it still communicates the critical need for a remediation plan that considers performance during peak business operations. Recommending risk acceptance may be frowned upon given the critical nature of the application, and immediate patch implementation without an action plan may disrupt business.
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What is a risk score, and how is it calculated in vulnerability management?
How can potential performance degradation affect the decision to patch a vulnerability?
What are compensating controls, and how could they be used in this scenario?
When prioritizing vulnerabilities during an assessment, which factor is MOST important for identifying a Zero-day vulnerability?
Impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Vendor remediation timeline
Known exploit availability
Lack of current patches or vendor fixes available
Answer Description
The most important factor for identifying a Zero-day vulnerability is whether it has no current patches or vendor fixes available. This is because Zero-day vulnerabilities are by definition unknown or unpatched vulnerabilities that can be actively exploited without available mitigation from the vendor. While factors such as known exploit availability or vendor remediation timelines are important for other types of vulnerabilities, they do not define Zero-day vulnerabilities.
Ask Bash
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What defines a Zero-day vulnerability?
Why is the lack of a patch so critical for Zero-day vulnerabilities?
How should organizations respond to Zero-day vulnerabilities?
During an investigation of potential spear-phishing, a cybersecurity analyst reviews an email's technical details and notices the following in the message header: 'Authentication-Results: example.com; auth=fail'. What does this most likely indicate about the email?
The email contains a reply-to address that does not match the sender address, which is commonly seen in legitimate automated messages.
The email did not meet one or more authentication methods required by the recipient's domain, suggesting potentially fraudulent contents.
The message was sent using a misconfigured Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server, complicating deliverability.
The content of the message is encrypted, but the public key offered does not match the recipient's private key.
Answer Description
When the 'Authentication-Results' in an email header shows 'auth=fail', it means that the email failed to satisfy the authentication checks against the security protocols established by the domain's administrators. This failure could be due to the message not passing the controls like SPF or DKIM, which are used to verify if an email is legitimately coming from the domain it claims to come from. This is a strong indicator that the email might be unauthorized or spoofed, which is a common technique in phishing and spear-phishing attacks.
The other options, despite being related to email security, do not directly interpret the meaning of 'auth=fail' in the header. A reply-to mismatch or an encrypted message with a public key that does not align with the receiver’s could raise suspicions but would not necessarily result in an authentication fail mark in the header. Likewise, a properly configured SMTP server would help with the email's deliverability and traceability but does not directly influence the authentication result mentioned in the header.
Ask Bash
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What are SPF and DKIM in email authentication?
How does 'auth=fail' relate to phishing detection?
What role does DMARC play in email security?
A financial services company is scheduling regular vulnerability scans for their network. They are concerned about performance degradation during work hours and must comply with strict regulatory requirements. Which special consideration should they prioritize when planning their scans?
Schedule scans during non-peak hours to minimize performance impact and ensure business continuity.
Run high-sensitivity scans continually to maximize detection rates.
Disable segmentation to scan all network segments simultaneously for thorough coverage.
Schedule scans randomly to avoid predictable patterns that attackers could exploit.
Answer Description
When scheduling vulnerability scans, it is important to prioritize both the operational impact and regulatory compliance. Scheduling scans during non-peak hours helps to minimize the performance impact on the network and ensures that the business operations are not disrupted. Adhering to regulatory requirements ensures the company remains compliant with industry standards.
Ask Bash
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Why is it important to schedule vulnerability scans during non-peak hours?
What are some key regulatory requirements related to vulnerability scanning?
How can you mitigate the performance impact of vulnerability scans?
Given the following XML snippet from a log ingestion system, identify the username of the user who attempted to log into the system:
<Log>
<Entry>
<Timestamp>2023-10-12T08:30:00Z</Timestamp>
<EventType>LoginAttempt</EventType>
<UserDetail>
<Username>jdoe</Username>
<IPAddress>192.168.1.5</IPAddress>
<Success>false</Success>
</UserDetail>
</Entry>
</Log>
08:30:00Z
192.168.1.5
LoginAttempt
jdoe
Answer Description
The username 'jdoe' appears within the <Username>
tags in the XML snippet, indicating the user who attempted the login. The XML structure encloses data within tags, and recognizing the tags helps in extracting the relevant information.
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What is the purpose of XML in log ingestion systems?
How can I extract specific data, like a username, from an XML snippet?
What is the significance of tags like <Username> and <EventType> in XML?
A cybersecurity analyst is scanning several information sources to gather threat intelligence. Among their sources, they include various blogs and forums. What is a significant risk associated with relying on this type of information?
Blogs and forums lack sufficient validation, increasing the risk of misinformation.
Information on blogs and forums is outdated and not useful for current threat intelligence.
Blogs and forums typically contain information on low-impact threats.
Answer Description
While blogs and forums can provide timely insight into emerging threats and actor behaviors not available in commercial sources, they often lack validation and can spread misinformation. This necessitates cross-referencing with more reliable sources before taking action based on the information obtained from blogs and forums.
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What does 'validation' mean in the context of threat intelligence?
Why are blogs and forums still considered useful despite the risk of misinformation?
What are some reliable sources that can complement blogs and forums in threat intelligence gathering?
Which of the following best describes a buffer overflow vulnerability?
It occurs when input data exceeds the allocated memory buffer, overwriting adjacent memory and potentially allowing code execution.
It results from insufficient randomization of memory addresses, allowing attackers to predict pointer values.
It arises when two processes attempt to access the same memory address concurrently, leading to a race condition.
It refers to encrypting data stored in memory to prevent unauthorized reading.
Answer Description
A buffer overflow occurs when a program writes more data to a fixed-length memory buffer than it is allocated to hold. The excess data overwrites adjacent memory locations, which can cause erratic behavior, crashes, or allow attackers to execute arbitrary code. Recognizing this condition is fundamental to mitigating overflow-based attacks.
Ask Bash
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What is a memory buffer in programming?
How does a buffer overflow lead to code execution?
What is ASLR, and how does it help mitigate buffer overflow attacks?
Your organization is updating its incident response plan. What is the BEST approach to ensure the plan is effective and actionable during an incident?
Conduct routine tabletop exercises to simulate incident response scenarios and validate the plan.
Add new tools to the incident response suite to automate more of the response process.
Implement advanced monitoring solutions to increase detection capabilities.
Provide updated contact lists for all team members and stakeholders involved in incident response.
Answer Description
Routine exercises, such as tabletop exercises, are essential to validate the effectiveness of an incident response plan. They help identify gaps in the plan and ensure that all members of the incident response team are familiar with their roles and responsibilities. Providing updated contact lists or adding new tools to the response suite might be part of preparation, but they do not inherently test the plan's effectiveness. Implementing advanced monitoring alone may improve detection capabilities but does not validate the entire incident response process.
Ask Bash
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What are tabletop exercises in incident response?
Why is updating a contact list alone not enough for incident response preparedness?
How do tabletop exercises differ from real-world penetration testing?
A company's SOC team is looking to reduce the time it takes to investigate and respond to security alerts. They want to automate the gathering of additional context and implementing initial remediation steps based on predefined criteria. Which tool should the team implement to best address this requirement?
Vulnerability scanner
SIEM system
EDR system
SOAR platform
Answer Description
The correct answer is SOAR platform because these platforms are specifically designed to automate and streamline security operations tasks by integrating various security tools and processes. They assist in automating the incident response, evidence collection, and executing predefined response actions, which can significantly reduce the time for initial investigation and remediation. SIEM systems, while instrumental for log collection and event correlation, are less focused on automating response actions. EDR systems are primarily used on endpoints for detection and response but do not orchestrate across different security tools and processes. Vulnerability scanners are used to identify and assess vulnerabilities in systems, which is unrelated to the automation of incident response and remediation.
Ask Bash
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What is a SOAR platform?
How is a SOAR platform different from a SIEM system?
What are predefined criteria in the context of SOAR platforms?
During a post-breach analysis, a cybersecurity analyst discovers that an attacker leveraged scheduled tasks to execute malicious payloads after initial compromise. Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic BEST describes this observed behavior?
Discovery
Credential Access
Persistence
Privilege Escalation
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Persistence'. The MITRE ATT&CK framework includes the 'Persistence' tactic, which encompasses techniques that adversaries use to maintain their foothold on systems across restarts, changed credentials, and other interruptions that could cut off their access. Using scheduled tasks for executing payloads fits within this tactic, as it ensures that the attacker's code will run continuously or at a predefined time. 'Privilege Escalation' involves gaining higher-level permissions on a system or network, 'Credential Access' represents techniques for stealing credentials, and 'Discovery' is focused on exploring the system and network environment. These do not accurately describe the use of scheduled tasks for maintaining access.
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What is the purpose of the MITRE ATT&CK 'Persistence' tactic?
How do scheduled tasks help attackers maintain persistence?
How does 'Persistence' differ from 'Privilege Escalation' in the MITRE ATT&CK framework?
After containing a confirmed security breach, an incident responder is tasked with the remediation process. What should be their FIRST step to ensure a thorough and effective remediation?
Immediately restore all systems from backup to minimize downtime.
Update the firewall rules to prevent future attacks.
Determine the full scope of the intrusion.
Install anti-virus software on all endpoints.
Answer Description
Before any remediation steps such as patching software, updating configurations, or improving security controls can take place, it is essential to understand the full scope of the intrusion. This understanding allows the incident responder to address all affected systems and vulnerabilities exploited by the attacker, preventing partial fixes that might leave the system vulnerable to subsequent attacks.
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Why is determining the full scope of intrusion critical before remediation?
What methods can an incident responder use to determine the full scope of an intrusion?
How does determining the scope prevent recurring breaches?
Which of the following actions is MOST crucial when beginning threat hunting efforts, focusing on the protection of assets vital to the company's core functionality?
Continuously review access logs for all systems to immediately identify unauthorized access to business-critical assets.
Create a comprehensive inventory of all business-critical assets to ensure they are prioritized in hunting activities.
Ensure that all systems are regularly updated to the latest security patches regardless of their business criticality.
Keep regular backups of all systems to quickly restore any compromised business-critical assets.
Answer Description
Creating a comprehensive inventory of business-critical assets is essential to effectively prioritize threat hunting efforts. Without a clear understanding of which assets are critical, it is difficult to allocate resources properly and may lead to inadequate protection of crucial systems. Keeping backups of crucial assets certainly helps in recovery, but it is not directly related to the initial step of threat hunting. Regularly updating all systems is a good security practice, but it does not directly influence the prioritization in threat hunting. Reviewing access logs continuously is important for detecting anomalies but again falls short in terms of prioritizing efforts on business-critical assets.
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Why is creating a comprehensive inventory of business-critical assets so important for threat hunting?
What details should be included in an inventory of business-critical assets?
How does prioritizing business-critical assets differ from general threat hunting practices?
After a security breach, the incident response team is preparing a report for the stakeholders. They need to emphasize the magnitude of adverse effects that the breach has caused to the organization. Which of the following would BEST articulate the impact of the incident in the report?
Quantifying the risk score associated with the breach
Listing the number of affected users
Providing detailed duration of the breach
Classifying the type of data compromised
Answer Description
Risk score provides a quantifiable measure of the potential negative consequences that the security breach might have on the organization. It combines the likelihood of a threat exploiting a vulnerability with the severity of the resulting impact on the organization. This allows stakeholders to understand the severity of the incident in a standardized format, and make informed decisions on the allocation of resources for remediation and future prevention strategies. Other options, like duration or classification, are also important but don't directly articulate the degree of adverse effects on the organization as effectively as the risk score. The number of affected users, while significant, might not always reflect the complete severity of the incident if the actual risk to the organization is low.
Ask Bash
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What is a risk score in cybersecurity?
How is a risk score calculated?
Why does quantifying a risk score help stakeholders?
Your organization has detected a potential security breach, and as the cybersecurity analyst, you are tasked with analyzing the attack. During investigation, you notice the attacker is currently in the process of establishing a backdoor for persistent access to the network. According to the cyber kill chain model, which stage of the attack is currently being executed?
Command and Control (C2)
Reconnaissance
Weaponization
Delivery
Answer Description
In the cyber kill chain model, establishing a backdoor for persistent access falls under the 'Command and Control (C2)' stage. During this stage, attackers establish a method to continuously govern the compromised system or network, often by creating hidden access paths that ensure their continued control. 'Reconnaissance' is incorrect because it is the first stage where attackers gather information before launching an attack. 'Delivery' is also incorrect; it refers to the stage where the attack vector, like a phishing email or a malware-infested file, is delivered to the target. 'Weaponization' is the stage where an attacker combines an exploit with a backdoor into a deliverable payload, which precedes delivery and exploitation.
Ask Bash
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What is the main goal of the Command and Control (C2) stage in the cyber kill chain?
How does a backdoor differ from other forms of malware used in attacks?
How does the cyber kill chain model help improve an organization’s security posture?
During a review of the logs, a cybersecurity analyst notices that the data inputs recorded for a machine learning model used in fraud detection exhibit an unusual pattern that significantly deviates from the expected data format and ranges. The anomaly led to a drop in detection accuracy, and subsequent investigations pointed to external manipulation. What type of vulnerability is most likely being exploited in this scenario?
Data poisoning
Parameter tampering
Buffer overflow
Cross-site request forgery
Answer Description
Data poisoning is a technique where an attacker introduces corrupt or malicious data into a system's data set to manipulate the behavior of a machine learning model, reduce its effectiveness, or cause it to make incorrect predictions. While parameter tampering involves manipulating inputs, data poisoning is the specific term for an attack that corrupts the training or input data for an ML model to degrade its performance. Buffer overflow is a memory corruption vulnerability, and cross-site request forgery is an attack that tricks a user into submitting a malicious request; neither fits the scenario.
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What is data poisoning in machine learning?
How can an organization detect and prevent data poisoning attacks?
How is data poisoning different from adversarial attacks on inputs during inference?
During an incident investigation, a security analyst notices suspicious outbound traffic from a Windows 10 workstation every 15 minutes. The analyst suspects a malicious scheduled task is triggering the activity and examines the Windows Security log. Which of the following Event IDs would BEST confirm that a new scheduled task was created on the system?
4624 - An account was successfully logged on.
4698 - A scheduled task was created.
5156 - The Windows Filtering Platform permitted a connection.
4648 - A logon was attempted using explicit credentials.
Answer Description
Windows logs Event ID 4698 whenever a new scheduled task is created. Monitoring this ID in the Security log helps analysts spot attacker persistence through rogue tasks. The other IDs relate to successful logons (4624), explicit-credential logons (4648), and permitted network connections (5156), none of which specifically confirm task creation.
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What is Event ID 4698?
How can monitoring Event ID 4698 help detect malicious activity?
What tools can be used to monitor Windows Security logs for Event ID 4698?
What characteristic of network traffic would MOST likely suggest irregular peer-to-peer activity, hinting at a possible threat?
Multiple connections to well-known P2P ports
Atypical patterns compared to regular traffic flow
Consistent data transfer during business hours
Decreased latency in peer-to-peer transfers
Answer Description
Peer-to-peer traffic that shows an atypical pattern, such as large volumes of data being transferred at unusual times, indicates potential malicious activities. It could suggest unauthorized file sharing, distribution of malware, or data exfiltration attempts. Regular traffic flow is expected to be more uniform and conform to business hours or well-known application behaviors, making 'Atypical patterns compared to regular traffic flow' the correct answer.
Ask Bash
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What are examples of atypical traffic patterns in a network?
How are peer-to-peer (P2P) networks typically identified in network traffic?
What tools can be used to monitor and detect irregular network traffic patterns?
Which of the following methods is BEST suited for detecting a rogue device before it is connected to your company's network?
Using a Network Access Control (NAC) system to enforce security policies on devices trying to connect to the network.
Implementing MAC address whitelisting to ensure only known devices can access the network.
Monitoring the DHCP server logs to identify any new devices that request an IP address.
Analyzing traffic patterns for anomalies that could suggest the presence of unrecognized devices.
Answer Description
Network Access Control (NAC) systems are best suited for detecting rogue devices because they are specifically designed to control access to a network by enforcing policies that can allow or block devices based on compliance with security protocols. NAC can limit the data a rogue device can access and restrict its ability to move laterally across the network. Analyzing traffic patterns could potentially identify rogue devices but is less direct and efficient. While DHCP monitoring can detect new devices, it does not inherently determine legitimacy. Similarly, MAC address whitelisting is useful, but it is a preventative measure, not a detection method, and might not catch a rogue device impersonating a legitimate MAC address.
Ask Bash
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How does a Network Access Control (NAC) system detect rogue devices?
Why is DHCP monitoring less effective for detecting rogue devices?
What are the limitations of using MAC address whitelisting for network security?
What term is used to describe a vulnerability that is known only to attackers and for which no patch has yet been released?
Vulnerability under review
Unidentified vulnerability
Known issue
Zero-day vulnerability
Answer Description
A zero-day is a software vulnerability that is unknown to the vendor and has no available patch, making it exploitable by attackers before a fix is developed.
Ask Bash
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How are zero-day vulnerabilities different from other types of vulnerabilities?
How do attackers typically exploit zero-day vulnerabilities?
What steps can organizations take to protect against zero-day vulnerabilities?
A cybersecurity analyst discovers that several recently deployed servers in the DMZ are not aligned with the company's security baseline. The servers are missing required patches and have overly permissive firewall rules, introducing significant risk. This deviation was not caught by the quarterly vulnerability scan. Which of the following processes would be MOST effective at preventing this type of issue in the future?
Vulnerability management reporting
Mitigation planning
Configuration management
Risk score analysis
Answer Description
The correct answer is configuration management. This process involves establishing and maintaining consistency in a system's or product's performance and functional attributes throughout its lifecycle. In this scenario, a robust configuration management process would have ensured the new servers were deployed using an approved, secure baseline image and that any subsequent changes were tracked and authorized, preventing the observed deviations. Vulnerability management reporting focuses on communicating discovered vulnerabilities, which is reactive. Mitigation planning deals with fixing known vulnerabilities, not preventing baseline deviations. Risk score analysis is used to prioritize vulnerabilities, not to enforce configurations.
Ask Bash
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What is configuration management in cybersecurity?
How does configuration management differ from vulnerability management?
What happens if configuration management is not implemented correctly?
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