CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1202)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1202 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1202
The CompTIA A+ 220-1202 (Core 2) exam is an essential part of the A+ certification, focusing on the software and operational aspects of IT support. Launched in April 2022, this exam tests candidates on a variety of critical topics including operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. The 220-1202 exam comprises 90 questions, featuring a mix of multiple-choice and performance-based questions that simulate real-world IT scenarios. With a 90-minute time limit, candidates must efficiently demonstrate their knowledge and problem-solving skills. The exam is designed to ensure that IT professionals are well-versed in managing and troubleshooting software issues, implementing security measures, and following best practices in IT operations. Successful completion of the 220-1202, alongside the 220-1201, certifies individuals for three years, highlighting their competence and readiness to handle diverse technical challenges in the IT field.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1202 (V15) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Operating SystemsSecuritySoftware TroubleshootingOperational Procedures
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In a scenario where you are managing an organization's asset management system, how should assigned users be documented?
By linking each asset to a unique user identifier, capturing their role and the assignment date.
By summarizing all assigned users in a single document without specific asset details.
By listing the user's name and the total number of assets they have access to.
By providing a general overview of all users without designating specific assets or assignment timelines.
Answer Description
By linking each asset to a unique user identifier, capturing their role and the assignment date - This is correct. Effective asset management requires detailed documentation that links each asset to the specific user responsible for it. Including their role and the assignment date provides traceability and accountability, ensuring assets are tracked over time and are aligned with organizational roles.
By summarizing all assigned users in a single document without specific asset details - This approach lacks the specificity needed for effective asset management. Without tying users to specific assets, it is difficult to track usage, ownership or accountability.
By listing the user's name and the total number of assets they have access to - While listing the total number of assets might provide a general sense of asset allocation, it fails to document specific asset-user relationships, roles or timelines, which are critical for detailed management and accountability.
By providing a general overview of all users without designating specific assets or assignment timelines - A general overview of users does not provide the necessary detail to track assets effectively. This approach is insufficient for ensuring proper asset management.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is it important to link each asset to a unique user identifier in asset management?
What role does capturing the assignment date play in asset management?
How does including a user's role enhance asset management documentation?
A school's IT department needs to manage a fleet of Chromebook devices used by students. Which feature should be utilized to centrally control user access, enforce security policies, and install applications across those devices?
Chrome Remote Desktop
Google Workspace
Chrome Education Upgrade
CloudReady
Answer Description
Chrome Education Upgrade (formerly called a Chromebook management license) unlocks ChromeOS device management in the Google Admin console. With this upgrade applied to each Chromebook, administrators can push or block apps and extensions, apply hundreds of security policies, and restrict or allow user sign-ins.
Incorrect options:
- Google Workspace provides productivity and collaboration apps; it does not on its own grant full ChromeOS device-level management-an upgrade license is still required.
- CloudReady (now ChromeOS Flex) is an operating-system replacement for non-Chromebook hardware and does not itself provide centralized management.
- Chrome Remote Desktop is a remote-access tool, not a fleet-management platform.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the Chrome Education Upgrade?
How does Chrome Education Upgrade differ from Google Workspace?
What are some examples of security policies that can be enforced with the Chrome Education Upgrade?
A software developer needs to test beta software in a safe, isolated environment on a workstation without affecting the host operating system or other applications. Which virtualization approach best meets this requirement?
Run the application inside a Linux container.
Take a snapshot of the existing OS before installing the software.
Configure the PC to dual-boot with another operating system.
Create a sandbox virtual machine on the host.
Answer Description
Creating a sandbox virtual machine provides a completely separate guest OS where the developer can install and test the beta software. Because the VM is isolated, any problems are contained, and the VM can be reverted or discarded without impacting the host. Containers share the host kernel, so a kernel-level fault could still affect the system. Dual-booting offers no runtime isolation, and merely taking a snapshot of the host does not prevent the beta software from changing the live OS while it is running.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a sandbox virtual machine?
How does a virtual machine provide isolation compared to a container?
Why doesn’t dual-booting or taking snapshots provide effective runtime isolation?
A Windows 11 desktop consistently shows a time that drifts several minutes each day while the computer is running. Manually resetting the clock only fixes the problem temporarily. Which of the following actions will provide the MOST reliable long-term solution to this time-drift issue?
Update or reinstall the display adapter driver in Device Manager.
Clear the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) to reset secure-boot keys.
Configure the Windows Time (W32Time) service to synchronise with a reliable external NTP server at shorter polling intervals.
Disable Fast Startup in Windows power-management settings.
Answer Description
Configuring the Windows Time service (W32Time) to poll a reliable external NTP server ensures the operating-system clock is automatically corrected at regular intervals, preventing ongoing drift while the PC is powered on. Replacing display drivers, disabling Fast Startup, or clearing the TPM do not affect timekeeping.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the Windows Time (W32Time) service?
What is an NTP server, and why is it reliable?
Why does the system clock drift occur on a PC?
Which hypervisor type installs directly on bare-metal hardware, eliminating the need for a separate host operating system and offering the most direct access to system resources?
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
Type 2 hypervisor
Type 1 hypervisor
Container runtime engine
Answer Description
Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisors load directly on a computer's hardware without relying on a traditional host OS. This allows virtual machines to run with minimal overhead and typically provides better performance and security isolation. In contrast, Type 2 hypervisors install on top of a host operating system, while container runtimes and VDI are different virtualization technologies altogether.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the main difference between a Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisor?
How does a Type 1 hypervisor improve security compared to a Type 2 hypervisor?
What are some examples of Type 1 hypervisors?
A user is trying to connect a new wireless headset to a smartphone. Bluetooth is enabled on the phone, the headset is fully charged, and the two devices are within a few feet of each other, but the headset does not appear in the phone's list of available Bluetooth devices. Which of the following steps should the technician instruct the user to perform first so the phone can discover the headset?
Enable developer options and USB debugging on the phone
Turn on NFC to allow automatic detection
Put the headset into Bluetooth pairing/discovery mode
Restart the phone in safe mode
Answer Description
Most Bluetooth accessories (such as headsets) are only discoverable while they are in pairing or discovery mode. Until the headset is placed in that mode-often done by holding the power or dedicated Bluetooth button until an LED flashes-it will not broadcast its identifier and will not appear in the phone's device list. Enabling developer options, turning on NFC, or toggling airplane mode do not make the accessory discoverable.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Bluetooth pairing/discovery mode?
Why does a Bluetooth device need to be in discovery mode to connect?
What are common reasons a Bluetooth pairing might fail even if discovery mode is used?
A user reports that a specific application on their smartphone fails to update despite having an active internet connection. What is the BEST step to take first to address this issue?
Check if there is sufficient storage space available on the device
Clear the application cache
Uninstall and reinstall the application
Check for compatibility of the app with the current OS version
Answer Description
Checking for sufficient storage space is the most logical first step in this situation because insufficient storage can prevent applications from updating, despite the presence of an active internet connection. Clearing the app cache, checking app compatibility, or reinstalling the app might address other issues but aren't typically the first steps if the primary issue is just an update failure.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does insufficient storage prevent app updates?
How do I check storage space on a smartphone?
What steps can be taken to free up storage for updates?
What is the maximum amount of physical memory (RAM) supported by the Windows 11 Home edition (64-bit)?
128 GB
4 GB
2 TB
There is no memory limit in a 64-bit OS
Answer Description
Windows 11 Home (64-bit) can address up to 128 GB of physical memory. This cap is imposed by the OS edition, not by the 64-bit architecture itself. Higher editions raise the ceiling: Windows 11 Pro and Education allow up to 2 TB, while Enterprise and Pro for Workstations support as much as 6 TB.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What determines the RAM limits in different editions of Windows 11?
What is the difference between a 32-bit and 64-bit operating system in terms of memory addressing?
Why does Windows 11 Enterprise support more RAM than Windows 11 Home?
Which feature of Windows Defender Firewall allows administrators to regulate how applications can access other network resources based on their network usage?
Connection security rules
Outbound rules
Inbound rules
Network isolation rules
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'Outbound rules', as this feature specifically controls the traffic that is allowed to leave the system based on the application.
In contrast, 'Inbound rules' govern incoming traffic, and 'Connection security rules' focus on defining security for connections rather than individual application traffic. Therefore, the 'Outbound rules' option aligns best with regulating application access for network usage.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are Outbound Rules in Windows Defender Firewall?
How do Inbound Rules differ from Outbound Rules?
What are Connection Security Rules used for in Windows Defender Firewall?
On Windows 10 what tool can be used to configure automate updates or roll back to a previous version?
Control panel > Administrative Tools > Update Settings
Ctrl + Alt + Del > Task Manager > Windows Updates
Windows Settings > Update & Security > Windows Updates
msconfig > Startup and Services > Updates
Answer Description
You can configure and rollback updates in Windows 10 by opening Windows Settings and selecting Update & Security followed by Windows Updates
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How do you roll back a problematic Windows update?
What is the benefit of configuring updates in Windows 10?
Can you pause updates temporarily in Windows 10?
A user reports that their computer is experiencing frequent application crashes and shows low memory warnings. They also mention that they have not installed any new applications recently.
What is the most appropriate initial step to take in this troubleshooting process?
Increase the virtual memory allocation
Reboot the system
Run a system file check
Uninstall the latest applications
Answer Description
Rebooting the system is often one of the first and simplest troubleshooting steps in dealing with performance issues. It can clear temporary memory, stop processes that may be consuming resources, and help reset the application environment.
Other options like uninstalling applications might be premature since the user did not recently install any new software. Running a system file check would also come later, as the first step should focus on clearing the current state of the operating system.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is rebooting the system the first troubleshooting step?
What is virtual memory, and how does it help with low memory issues?
What does running a system file check do, and when should it be used?
A systems administrator is deploying several virtual servers on a new rack-mounted host. To achieve the highest possible performance and remove the overhead of a host operating system, the administrator wants the virtualization layer to run directly on the server hardware. Which of the following technologies best meets this requirement?
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) client
Type 2 hypervisor
Type 1 hypervisor
Container engine
Answer Description
A Type 1 hypervisor (bare-metal hypervisor) installs directly on the physical hardware, giving virtual machines direct access to resources and eliminating the performance overhead of a host OS. Type 2 hypervisors run on top of an existing operating system, so they do not meet the performance requirement. A container engine relies on the host OS kernel, and a VDI client simply accesses a remote desktop, so neither provides the desired virtualization layer.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between a Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisor?
Why is a Type 1 hypervisor better for performance-critical environments?
What is the role of a Type 1 hypervisor in virtualization?
Which of the following items would MOST likely appear on an IT new-user onboarding checklist to be completed before a new employee's first day?
Review last quarter's network performance metrics
Schedule the employee's annual performance appraisal meeting
Create the employee's user accounts and assign the required hardware
Decommission legacy servers that are no longer in use
Answer Description
The IT team must provision the new hire's environment in advance. Creating the employee's user accounts and assigning the required hardware (laptop, peripherals, mobile device, etc.) ensures the person can authenticate to company resources and start work immediately. Tasks such as reviewing network performance metrics, scheduling performance appraisals, or decommissioning servers occur in other processes and are not part of a new-user setup checklist.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the purpose of provisioning user accounts and hardware for new employees?
What are the key components of an IT onboarding checklist?
Why is it important to complete IT onboarding tasks before a new employee's first day?
A technician has installed a PCIe x1 Wi-Fi/Bluetooth combo card in a Windows 11 desktop PC. The system connects to Wi-Fi without issue, but Device Manager does not list a Bluetooth adapter and the Bluetooth toggle is missing from Settings. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to enable Bluetooth functionality?
Disable Secure Boot in UEFI and reboot the system
Move the combo card to the PCIe x16 graphics slot to provide more lanes
Install the manufacturer's Bluetooth driver package for the combo card
Replace the CMOS battery to clear any firmware settings
Answer Description
Windows may load a generic WLAN driver automatically, but many combo cards require a separate Bluetooth driver package. Installing the vendor-supplied Bluetooth driver (or using Windows Update to obtain it) will create the Bluetooth radio entry in Device Manager and allow the OS to activate the radio. Replacing the CMOS battery or disabling Secure Boot will not affect Bluetooth, and changing PCIe slots will not help until the correct driver is installed.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a PCIe x1 slot and why is it important for this scenario?
Why does the system need a separate Bluetooth driver for combo cards?
What role does Device Manager play in troubleshooting hardware issues?
Choose the correct security concept that applies to the following statement:
Users in Team A should not have access to Team B's files because Team A does not need them to complete its assigned tasks.
Principle of Least Privilege
Privacy Restrictions
Shared Account Password Management (SAPM)
Entry Control Roster (ECR)
Answer Description
The Principle of Least Privilege states that every user, process, and device should be granted only the minimum rights and permissions necessary to perform required duties. In practice, Team A would receive access only to the resources it needs, but not to Team B's files.
Why the other options are incorrect:
- Shared Account Password Management (SAPM) focuses on securely storing and rotating shared privileged passwords; it does not address limiting normal user access to files.
- Privacy Restrictions is a vague term, not a formal security model for access control.
- Entry Control Roster (ECR) is a physical-security list of people authorized to enter a restricted area and is unrelated to file permissions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some examples of implementing the Principle of Least Privilege?
How is the Principle of Least Privilege different from Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)?
Why is Shared Account Password Management (SAPM) not applicable to this scenario?
You are carrying several video cards and network cards from a storage area to the workbench where you will install them into several computers. What option should you use to protect the components while moving them between rooms?
Electrostatic Discharge Wristband
Styrofoam protectant case
Antistatic bag
Gloves
Answer Description
Antistatic bags are used to protect sensitive components like motherboards, processors, memory and more from Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). They should be used when moving these types of components around between rooms or when shipping. An ESD wristband can also protect against ESD but not usable when moving around between areas like different rooms, hallways, etc.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is an antistatic bag and how does it protect components?
What is Electrostatic Discharge (ESD), and why is it harmful to components?
When should an Electrostatic Discharge Wristband be used instead of an antistatic bag?
Crucial Technologies wants to give remote employees a complete Windows desktop environment that runs as a virtual machine on servers in the company's data center. Users connect with thin clients over the network; the virtual desktop keeps running on the host even after they log off, and all processing and storage remain centralized. Which desktop-virtualization model best describes this solution?
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
Containerization
Type 2 hypervisor
Application virtualization
Answer Description
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) delivers full, persistent (or non-persistent) desktop operating systems as virtual machines hosted on a hypervisor cluster in the data center. End users connect through a broker over RDP-type protocols, so everything-CPU cycles, memory, and storage-remains on the server. Application virtualization delivers only individual apps, containers package code at the OS-kernel level, and a Type 2 hypervisor runs VMs on top of a client OS rather than on a dedicated host server.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)?
What makes VDI different from Application Virtualization?
Why does the VDI model use a Type 1 hypervisor instead of a Type 2 hypervisor?
During a troubleshooting session with a customer, what is the most professional approach towards handling an incoming personal call?
Take the personal call and keep the troubleshooting session on hold
Share the personal call content with the customer to excuse yourself
Explain to the customer that you need to take a quick personal call
Silence the personal phone or turn it off during the interaction
Answer Description
The correct answer is to silence the personal phone or turn it off during the customer interaction. This approach shows professionalism and respect for the customer's time, ensuring that the focus remains on their issue without any personal distractions. Placing the phone on silent or turning it off prevents interruptions and conveys to the customer that they are a priority. The incorrect answers suggest handling personal calls during a customer interaction or discussing personal matters with customers, which diminishes professionalism and may lead to customer dissatisfaction.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is silencing or turning off a personal phone considered professional during customer interactions?
What are the consequences of handling personal calls during customer troubleshooting sessions?
How can you handle an urgent personal matter during a customer interaction professionally?
You are tasked with testing a new software update in a controlled environment before a full deployment. Which best practice should be conducted to minimize the risk of impacting the production systems?
Directly implement the change in the production environment
Conduct a risk analysis
Perform sandbox testing
Submit a change request form
Answer Description
Sandbox testing involves setting up an isolated environment that replicates the production setup. This allows you to test new updates, changes, or software without affecting the live environment. Using sandbox testing helps ensure that any issues are identified and resolved before implementing changes in the production environment. Other practices, like performing risk analysis and submitting change request forms, are equally important but come into play at different stages of the change management process.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is sandbox testing and how does it work?
Why is sandbox testing preferable over directly implementing changes in production?
How does sandbox testing differ from other stages such as risk analysis or submitting change requests?
In a small office/home office (SOHO) environment, the network administrator is configuring the office wireless router to secure the network against external threats. Which of the following actions would BEST increase the security of the network?
Changing the router's service set identifier (SSID)
Disabling UPnP on the router
Disabling SSID broadcast
Setting up port forwarding/mapping to unspecified services
Answer Description
Disabling Universal Plug and Play (UPnP) on a wireless router can significantly enhance the security of a network. UPnP can be exploited by malware to open ports without a user's knowledge, potentially allowing external threats to penetrate the network. Therefore, disabling it reduces the risks of such vulnerabilities. Changing the SSID does not inherently secure the network—this action just changes the network name. While disabling SSID broadcast may somewhat obscure the network from casual discovery, it is not a robust security measure as SSID can be discovered by more determined attackers using simple tools. Port forwarding/mapping is typically used to allow external devices to access services within the private network and is not a method to enhance network security.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is UPnP, and why can it be a security risk?
Why doesn't changing the SSID improve network security?
What is the difference between disabling SSID broadcast and using encryption to secure a network?
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