CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1202)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1202 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in March 2025 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1202
The CompTIA A+ 220-1202 (Core 2) exam is an essential part of the A+ certification, focusing on the software and operational aspects of IT support. Launched in April 2022, this exam tests candidates on a variety of critical topics including operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures. The 220-1202 exam comprises 90 questions, featuring a mix of multiple-choice and performance-based questions that simulate real-world IT scenarios. With a 90-minute time limit, candidates must efficiently demonstrate their knowledge and problem-solving skills. The exam is designed to ensure that IT professionals are well-versed in managing and troubleshooting software issues, implementing security measures, and following best practices in IT operations. Successful completion of the 220-1202, alongside the 220-1201, certifies individuals for three years, highlighting their competence and readiness to handle diverse technical challenges in the IT field.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1202 (V15) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Operating SystemsSecuritySoftware TroubleshootingOperational Procedures
Which setting on a firewall would you configure to restrict access to a specific service on a private network?
Port forwarding
Firmware updates
Changing channels
Disabling SSID broadcast
Answer Description
Port forwarding, sometimes referred to as port mapping, allows specific external traffic to be directed to an internal network address based on the port number. By configuring port forwarding, you can control incoming traffic and ensure that it reaches the correct device on your private network while restricting unauthorized access to specific services.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is port forwarding and how does it work?
What is the purpose of restricting access to specific services using port forwarding?
How do ports and port numbers relate to specific services?
A Windows 11 Pro laptop has displayed the stop code "MEMORY_MANAGEMENT" three times this week. The technician wants a quick, graphical timeline that highlights critical errors such as Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) events, application crashes, and other reliability problems without digging through raw Event Viewer logs. Which built-in Windows utility should the technician open to review this historical stability data?
Device Manager
Event Viewer
Performance Monitor
Reliability Monitor
Answer Description
Reliability Monitor (opened from Control Panel > Security and Maintenance > View reliability history or by running perfmon /rel) charts a daily or weekly stability index and lists critical events-including BSODs, application failures, and driver issues-making it an ideal first stop when investigating recurring crashes. Event Viewer also holds the data but is less visual, Device Manager focuses on hardware/driver status, and Performance Monitor tracks real-time resource usage rather than historical crash information.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Reliability Monitor and how does it differ from Event Viewer?
How can you access Reliability Monitor in Windows 11?
What types of issues can be identified using Reliability Monitor?
A team member reports that their laptop does not enter hibernation after a set period of inactivity, even though they set the option is enabled in the settings.
What should you check FIRST to resolve this issue?
Ensure the device is not plugged into a power source while attempting to hibernate.
Inspect the advanced power settings to confirm that hibernation is enabled for the current power plan.
Verify if there are any system updates pending that might affect power management.
Check the display settings to see if there is a timeout configured for sleep mode.
Answer Description
Inspect the advanced power settings to confirm that hibernation is enabled for the current power plan. - This is correct. Advanced power settings allow you to configure specific behaviors for the current power plan, including whether hibernation is enabled. If hibernation is not properly configured, the laptop may not enter this state after the specified period of inactivity.
Further, you should verify what the team member is saying is correct as they could be incorrect about the setting being correctly configured.
Ensure the device is not plugged into a power source while attempting to hibernate. - Hibernation can typically occur whether the device is plugged in or running on battery, depending on how the power plan is configured. Plugging in the device does not inherently prevent hibernation.
Verify if there are any system updates pending that might affect power management. - While pending updates can occasionally cause unexpected system behavior, they are less likely to be the direct cause of hibernation issues. It is better to first confirm the settings in the power plan.
Check the display settings to see if there is a timeout configured for sleep mode. - Display timeout settings are unrelated to hibernation behavior. These settings control when the screen turns off due to inactivity, not when the device enters hibernation.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between sleep mode and hibernation?
What specific option should be checked in advanced power settings for hibernation?
How can a system’s power plan configurations affect hibernation?
A Linux technician needs to provision a new 4 TB internal drive on Ubuntu 22.04 used for video editing. The drive must store single files larger than 4 GB, reduce fragmentation through extent-based allocation, and be fully supported by the Linux kernel without extra drivers. Which filesystem should the technician choose?
ext4
NTFS
ReFS
FAT32
Answer Description
ext4 is the default Linux filesystem and introduces extent-based allocation, which lowers fragmentation and improves performance. It supports volumes up to 1 exabyte and individual files well beyond 4 GB, making it suitable for large video files. FAT32 cannot hold files larger than 4 GB, NTFS requires third-party driver support for full read-write capability on Linux, and Microsoft ReFS is not supported by the Linux kernel at all. Therefore, ext4 best satisfies all stated requirements.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is extent-based allocation important in a filesystem like ext4?
What makes ext4 a better choice over NTFS for Linux systems?
What are the limitations of FAT32 compared to ext4?
You receive an email from an outside party stating that the client computers on your network have been encrypted and that the only way to decrypt them is to send Bitcoin to a hacker calling themselves "Zero Cool." Your company has fallen victim to a/an:
Ransomware attack.
Rootkit attack.
Phishing attack.
Man-in-the-Middle attack.
Answer Description
A ransomware attack is a type of malware that locks or encrypts a victim's data and withholds the decryption key until a ransom-often in cryptocurrency-is paid. This scenario describes exactly that behavior, so ransomware is the correct choice.
- Man-in-the-Middle attacks intercept or alter communications but do not typically encrypt a victim's data for ransom.
- A rootkit conceals privileged access for an attacker rather than announcing itself and demanding payment.
- Phishing is a social-engineering tactic to trick users into giving up credentials or installing malware, but it does not itself encrypt data and demand payment.
Therefore, "Ransomware attack" is the best answer.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What steps can be taken to prevent ransomware attacks?
How does ransomware differ from other types of malware like rootkits and phishing?
Why do ransomware attackers often demand payment in cryptocurrency like Bitcoin?
A user reports that their Windows 10 computer has become extremely slow and is occasionally crashing. The IT technician suspects a corrupted Windows system file is the cause. Which of the following tools should the technician use FIRST to repair the Windows system files?
Disk Cleanup
System Restore
System File Checker (SFC)
Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE)
Answer Description
System File Checker (SFC) is a utility in Windows that allows users to scan for and restore corruptions in Windows system files. It is an ideal first step in troubleshooting a suspected issue with system file integrity, as it can identify and fix problems without impacting user data. If SFC does not resolve the issue, other tools like Windows Recovery Environment or System Restore might be considered for more comprehensive repair actions. Disk Cleanup, while useful for freeing up space and potentially improving performance, is unlikely to fix system file corruption.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the System File Checker (SFC) tool and how does it work?
What makes System File Checker (SFC) different from System Restore?
When should you consider using tools like System Restore or Windows Recovery Environment instead of SFC?
A user reports intermittent periods in which the workstation can access shared folders on the local network but cannot open external websites or cloud applications. No other users are affected, and the workstation is configured to obtain its TCP/IP settings automatically. Which initial troubleshooting step should the technician perform?
Use ipconfig /all to review the current DHCP-assigned address, gateway, and DNS servers, then renew the lease if needed.
Reset the web browser to its default settings.
Add the required web domains to the endpoint security whitelist.
Open the hosts file to check for incorrect static entries.
Answer Description
The first step should be to verify that the workstation is receiving a complete and correct DHCP configuration. Running ipconfig /all lets the technician confirm the IPv4 address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server information. If any of these fields are missing or incorrect, an ipconfig /release followed by ipconfig /renew can request a fresh lease from the DHCP server. Incorrect DNS or gateway settings commonly cause loss of Internet access while local file sharing on the same subnet continues to work. Browser resets, security-suite whitelists, or hosts-file edits will not resolve a faulty network configuration.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does the `ipconfig /all` command do?
What is the purpose of DHCP in a network configuration?
How do incorrect DNS or gateway settings impact network connectivity?
An organization is evaluating an authentication method to centrally manage administrator access to network devices, including routers and switches.
Which of the following protocols is specifically designed for this purpose and provides granular control over authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA)?
RADIUS
Kerberos
LDAP
TACACS+
Answer Description
The correct answer is TACACS+ because it provides centralized authentication for users attempting to access network resources. It allows for fine-grained control over access rights and can handle remote authentication efficiently.
The other options do not focus primarily on network device access management or lack effective centralized control features.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is TACACS+ and why is it used for network device management?
How does TACACS+ differ from RADIUS in managing network device access?
What are the roles of AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) in network security?
During a system-wide upgrade, several support tickets are opened by users in the accounting department. To triage and prioritize these tickets correctly, which piece of information should the technician make sure is documented for each ticket?
The fact that all affected users are in the accounting department
The exact date and time each user first noticed the problem
The usernames and workstation asset tags for the affected users
The severity or business-impact level of the issue
Answer Description
The severity or business-impact level is the most important detail for prioritization because help-desk frameworks (including ITIL) derive ticket priority from urgency and impact. Knowing how badly the problem affects users or core processes allows the technician (or automated rules) to decide whether the ticket is critical, high, medium, or low priority and to escalate or bundle similar high-impact issues.
While usernames/asset tags (device information), timestamps, and department details are useful for troubleshooting, they do not, by themselves, determine how fast the issue must be addressed.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the ITIL framework and how does it relate to ticket prioritization?
How is 'impact' determined when prioritizing support tickets?
Why are severity levels important in incident management?
While onsite, you observe an Android user demonstrate a problem: When they tap Update for a well-known productivity app in Google Play, the status stays at "Downloading…" for several minutes and never progresses. The handset shows a strong Wi-Fi signal, 60 percent battery, and over 4 GB of free internal storage. Before recommending more drastic measures, which action should you try first to resolve the failed update?
Enable Developer options and turn on USB debugging
Disable Wi-Fi and force the update to download over mobile data
Perform a factory reset and restore the device from backup
Clear the Google Play Store cache from App info and relaunch the store
Answer Description
A common cause of Play Store updates getting stuck at "Downloading…" is a corrupted or bloated cache for the Google Play Store app. Clearing only the cache forces the Store to rebuild its temporary files without affecting user data, and often allows the pending update to begin immediately. Switching to mobile data may not help if the problem is local to the Play Store app; enabling developer options is unrelated; and performing a factory reset is far too drastic for an isolated update failure.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does clearing the Google Play Store cache often resolve app download issues?
What is the difference between clearing the cache and clearing data for an app?
How do you clear the cache for the Google Play Store on an Android device?
Which Control Panel utility in Windows 10 allows a user to view a comprehensive list of devices and printers connected to the system, facilitating management tasks such as adding new devices or checking printer statuses?
Hardware and Sound
Network and Sharing Center
Devices and Printers
System
Answer Description
The 'Devices and Printers' utility in the Control Panel of Windows 10 enables users to view and manage all peripheral devices and printers connected to the computer. This single access point allows users to add new printers or devices, check statuses, and troubleshoot issues. 'System' primarily provides information about the computer and its system settings, but does not directly manage peripheral devices. 'Hardware and Sound' is a broader category in the Control Panel that houses multiple utilities, including 'Devices and Printers'. 'Network and Sharing Center' is used for managing network connections and settings and is not related to peripheral devices and printers.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is 'Devices and Printers' preferred over 'Hardware and Sound' for managing printers?
What troubleshooting options are available in 'Devices and Printers'?
How does 'Devices and Printers' simplify adding new devices in Windows 10?
Which of the following methods provides a possession factor that can be used as part of multifactor authentication for user sign-in?
Answering user-chosen security questions
Drawing an unlock pattern on a touch-screen
Typing a username and password
Voice call that delivers or prompts for a one-time passcode to a registered phone number
Answer Description
A voice call places an automated call to a registered phone number and either prompts the user to approve the sign-in or reads a one-time passcode. Because the user must have physical possession of that phone line, the call satisfies the "something you have" factor and can be combined with a password (something you know) to meet MFA requirements. The other options rely only on knowledge factors and do not supply the required second factor.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is multifactor authentication (MFA)?
How does a voice call with a passcode satisfy the 'possession' factor?
Why don't security questions or passwords count as possession factors?
Which Windows command tool allows you to prepare a storage device for use by erasing all existing data and setting up a new file system?
format Answer Description
Format is a Windows command tool that enables users to prepare a storage device, such as a hard drive or USB drive, by erasing all existing data and initializing a new file system, making the device ready for use and storage of new data.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What types of file systems can the 'format' command set up?
How do you use the 'format' command in Windows?
What is the difference between the 'format' command and 'diskpart'?
Which Active Directory feature can be used to apply settings across multiple computers and users within a domain?
Login Script
Organizational Units
Group Policy
Home Folder
Answer Description
Group Policy allows administrators to implement specific configurations for users and computers within an Active Directory environment. It helps in managing system settings, software installation, security options, and more on all member computers automatically. Other features like Login Script and Home Folder serve different purposes like scripting automation tasks during login and providing personal storage respectively.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Active Directory?
How does Group Policy differ from Organizational Units (OUs)?
What kinds of settings can Group Policy manage?
A user sees repeated desktop pop-ups stating that their antivirus definitions are out of date-even though the antivirus console shows that the last update succeeded less than an hour ago. Clicking the pop-up opens a web page that offers to download a different "security" product.
Which of the following BEST describes what is occurring on the system?
Rogue security software (FakeAV/scareware) is generating fraudulent alerts.
The antivirus subscription has expired and needs renewal.
The system clock is incorrect, so the antivirus believes the signatures are old.
The antivirus requires a full system scan before it will clear the alert flag.
Answer Description
The contradictory, unsolicited pop-ups are characteristic of rogue security software (also called FakeAV or scareware). These programs impersonate legitimate security tools and use social-engineering tactics-such as false out-of-date warnings-to trick users into installing or paying for useless or malicious software. Genuine definition-update problems would appear only within the installed antivirus interface, not as random web redirects.
Incorrect options:
- Antivirus license expired: A valid console would show the license status; it would not redirect to an unrelated product.
- Incorrect system clock: A wrong clock can stop updates, but the antivirus GUI would list the error; random web pop-ups would not occur.
- Full scan required: Definition currency is independent of scan schedules and would still show the correct update time.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Rogue Security Software (FakeAV/scareware)?
How can users identify genuine antivirus alerts versus fake ones?
What steps should a user take if they suspect they have rogue security software?
During the initial configuration of several new Windows laptops for a small office, a technician discovers that the built-in account named "Administrator" is still using the manufacturer's default credentials. To MOST effectively reduce the risk that an attacker could use publicly known credentials to gain full control of these systems, which of the following actions should the technician perform FIRST?
Create a separate standard user account for each employee.
Disable SSID broadcast on the office Wi-Fi access point.
Enable Remote Desktop Protocol and open TCP port 3389 in the firewall.
Rename the built-in Administrator account and set a unique, complex password.
Answer Description
Default administrator usernames and passwords are widely published and actively targeted by threat actors. Renaming the default Administrator account and assigning a strong, unique password eliminates an easy, well-known attack vector. Disabling SSID broadcast (B) affects only wireless discovery, not local account credentials. Creating standard user accounts (C) is good practice but does not secure the privileged default account. Enabling Remote Desktop and opening port 3389 (D) actually increases the attack surface. Therefore, option A is correct. [CISA warns that default passwords are easily found and exploited; organizations should change them immediately.]
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is it important to rename the built-in Administrator account?
What makes a password complex and secure?
What risks are associated with keeping default credentials on devices?
Which of the following is the BEST practice to ensure that a third-party vendor responsible for data destruction has followed proper procedures?
Conduct regular in-house inspections.
Rely on random audits of the vendor's facilities.
Obtain a certification of destruction or recycling from the vendor.
Choose a reputable third-party vendor.
Answer Description
Obtaining a certification of destruction or recycling from a third-party vendor ensures that they have properly followed the necessary procedures for secure data destruction or recycling. This certification acts as a formal validation and holds the vendor accountable. While merely choosing a reputable vendor or conducting random audits are beneficial, they do not provide the same level of formal documentation and assurance as a certification.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does a certification of destruction or recycling include?
Why is a certification more reliable than random audits?
How can organizations verify the validity of a certification of destruction?
While working on resolving a user's network connectivity issue, the technician has tested the network cable, verified network settings, and checked for any software updates. What should be included in the progress notes to ensure clear communication for future follow-up?
Tested network cable, verified network settings, checked for software updates.
User's computer was restarted, server status was checked.
User reported the problem, network cable was replaced.
System rebooted, antivirus scan performed, user contacted.
Answer Description
The correct answer includes all the essential steps that the technician has taken to diagnose the issue. This ensures that anyone reviewing the ticket can understand what has been attempted. Details such as the network cable test, network settings verification, and software update checks are vital for continuity and clarity, allowing other technicians to pick up where the original technician left off or to avoid duplicating efforts.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is it important to include detailed notes like 'tested network cable, verified network settings, checked for software updates' in progress notes?
What tools can a technician use to test a network cable?
How does verifying network settings help in resolving connectivity issues?
A user reports that their computer frequently experiences sudden shutdowns and sluggish performance.
What is the most likely underlying issue?
Overheating components due to dust buildup or inadequate cooling
Outdated device drivers
Malware infection affecting system performance
Excessive startup programs
Answer Description
The presence of frequent shutdowns and an overall decrease in system responsiveness often suggests overheating. Overheating can cause the system to shut down unexpectedly to prevent damage.
Other potential issues, such as outdated drivers or excessive background processes, may also lead to sluggishness, but they are less closely correlated with sudden shutdowns. Thus, overheating is a more comprehensive explanation for both symptoms.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are common causes of overheating in computers?
How can you prevent or address overheating in a computer?
What role does thermal paste play in computer cooling?
An organization wants to let traveling executives access a restricted voicemail box by calling in from any phone. The solution must rely on a biometric factor without requiring specialized hardware on the handset or forcing the user to remember additional credentials. Which physical access security control best meets these requirements?
Retina scan
Facial recognition camera
Fingerprint scanner
Voiceprint recognition (voice biometrics)
Answer Description
Voiceprint recognition compares the unique pitch, tone, and cadence patterns in a person's speech against a stored template. Because every telephone already has a microphone, no extra scanning hardware is needed, and the executive does not have to recall additional secrets. Fingerprint, retina, and facial recognition all require specialized readers or cameras that are not available on an ordinary voice-only phone, so they would not meet the stated constraints.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is voiceprint recognition?
How does voiceprint recognition work without specialized hardware?
Why are other biometric methods like fingerprints or retina scans not suitable for this scenario?
Gnarly!
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