CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:
Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
Press start when you are ready, or press Change to modify any settings for the practice test.
- Questions: 15
- Time: Unlimited
- Included Topics:Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
What is a primary advantage of implementing virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) in a cloud environment?
Rapid scalability to adjust resources based on demand
Completely eliminates the need for IT management tasks
Inherent improvement in security measures
Lower latency due to proximity of physical hardware on premises
Answer Description
Cloud-hosted VDI can be scaled up or down almost instantly because virtual desktops are provisioned from a large pool of cloud resources. This allows organizations to handle spikes in demand-such as seasonal hiring-without purchasing additional on-premises hardware. Although management overhead is lowered, IT staff must still maintain desktop images, user policies, and application updates, so the need for IT management is not eliminated entirely. Security improvements depend on the provider's controls and customer configuration, and latency is usually higher than with on-premises deployments.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is VDI and how does it work?
What does rapid scalability mean in cloud environments?
How does the security of cloud VDI compare to on-premises solutions?
Your supervisor has asked you to bring her a DE-15 connector. Which of the following is she referring to?
VGA
DVI-D
DVI-A
HDMI
Answer Description
The Video Graphics Array (VGA) video standard uses a 15-pin connector with a D-subminiature shell. The official name for this connector is DE-15. DVI and HDMI use physically different connectors and are incorrect.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a DE-15 connector used for?
What are the differences between VGA, DVI, and HDMI?
Why is VGA still relevant despite newer technologies?
Upon organizational directives to heighten hardware security for workstations that handle extremely confidential data, an IT security technician is configuring options on the new enterprise machines. Which BIOS/UEFI-enabled element must be activated to directly facilitate a hardware root of trust and offering capabilities like secure key generation and storage?
Configuration of advanced Boot options for security layering
Enablement of Virtualization support to enhance data protection mechanisms
Activation of TPM to utilize specialized cryptographic functions
Setup of MultiThreading to improve secure processing capabilities
Answer Description
Activating the TPM (Trusted Platform Module) within the BIOS/UEFI settings establishes a hardware root of trust, handling tasks like secure cryptographic key generation and storage essential for protecting highly sensitive data. Enabling features such as Virtualization support and configuring Boot options help provide data protection and system robustness but they aren't explicitly designed to deliver secure hardware-based key storage and management like TPM.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is TPM and how does it work?
What is the difference between BIOS and UEFI in regard to security features?
How does enabling Virtualization support enhance security?
When planning an on-premises VDI deployment for about 200 office workers, which factor is typically the first sizing constraint that determines how many virtual desktops a single host or cluster can support?
Internet egress bandwidth
Storage I/O performance (IOPS and latency)
Licensing cost
Multifactor authentication policies
Answer Description
Storage I/O performance (measured in available IOPS and latency) is usually the primary bottleneck in an on-premises VDI environment. During boot, logon, antivirus scans and other "I/O storms," hundreds of desktops can generate intense, bursty disk traffic. If the shared storage array cannot deliver enough IOPS with low latency, desktops will feel sluggish no matter how much CPU, RAM or network capacity is available. Adequate LAN bandwidth and strong security are important, but they rarely limit user experience in a local deployment before storage throughput does.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is network bandwidth so important for VDI?
What are the typical hardware requirements for implementing a VDI?
What role do security protocols play in VDI deployment?
A company is looking to reduce its IT costs while ensuring scalability for its seasonal business spikes. Which cloud model would allow them to pay for only the resources they use and scale automatically when demand increases?
Hybrid cloud
Private cloud
Public cloud
Community cloud
Answer Description
Public cloud allows companies to pay for only the resources they use, a feature known as metered utilization. Additionally, it supports rapid elasticity, enabling the system to automatically scale up or down based on demand. On the other hand, private cloud and community cloud models might not provide the same level of cost efficiency and automatic scalability for such varying demands.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a public cloud?
What does metered utilization mean?
What is rapid elasticity in cloud computing?
A corporation wishes to interconnect its offices located in different cities and potentially different countries, allowing for secure communications and resource sharing. Which type of network would be MOST appropriate for this corporation?
MAN
LAN
WAN
SAN
Answer Description
A Wide Area Network (WAN) is the most suitable type of network for connecting multiple sites that are geographically dispersed, such as offices in different cities or countries. It allows for secure communication and resource sharing across wide geographic areas. A Local Area Network (LAN) is limited to a smaller area, typically a single building or campus, and is not designed to cover cities or countries. A Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) covers a city or a metropolitan area and is not intended to connect locations in different cities or countries. A Storage Area Network (SAN) focuses on providing access to consolidated, block-level data storage and is unrelated to geographical connectivity of office locations.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What technologies are commonly used in a WAN?
What are the security considerations for a WAN?
How does a WAN differ from a LAN in terms of performance?
A user reports that their workstation has displayed a blue screen with the message 'IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL.' Which of the following is the MOST likely hardware component to start troubleshooting based on this information?
RAM (Random Access Memory)
Hard drive
Power supply unit
Graphics card
Answer Description
The error 'IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL' typically indicates a problem related to memory access, where a driver or process has attempted to access a memory address without proper access rights. The best initial step in troubleshooting this error is to check the RAM, as faulty or incompatible RAM can often be the cause of this issue. Other options listed may be responsible for other types of crash screens or general system instability, but for the specific IRQL error, the RAM is the most probable cause.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does 'IRQL_NOT_LESS_OR_EQUAL' mean?
How can I check if my RAM is faulty?
What role does RAM play in system stability?
A technician needs to establish a console connection between a new laptop and an older piece of networking hardware, but the interfaces do not match. The networking hardware uses a 9-pin connection for configurations and management. Which type of adapter should the technician select to facilitate the connection using the laptop?
An adapter from the laptop's standard peripheral connection to HDMI
An adapter from the laptop's standard peripheral connection to Ethernet port
An adapter from the laptop's standard peripheral connection to RS-232 serial port
Answer Description
The correct answer is 'An adapter from the laptop's standard peripheral connection to RS-232 serial port'. The DB9 9-pin serial connector was commonly implemented for RS-232 serial ports on older equipment for direct management access. Given that modern laptops typically do not have RS-232 serial ports, an adapter is necessary. Options suggesting an Ethernet or storage interface (e.g., 'An adapter from the laptop's standard peripheral connection to Ethernet port') or an A/V output interface (e.g., 'An adapter from the laptop's standard peripheral connection to HDMI') are incorrect because Ethernet is for networking, HDMI is for audiovisual, and none are used for 9-pin serial communications.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is RS-232 and where is it used?
What is an adapter, and how does it work?
Why can't I use Ethernet or HDMI for this connection?
What is the primary characteristic of an on-premises virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)?
Desktops can only be accessed remotely via the internet.
The desktops are hosted by an external cloud service provider.
The virtual desktops are hosted within the company’s local data center.
Virtual desktop instances are shared between multiple organizations.
Answer Description
An on-premises VDI is a setup where the virtual desktops are hosted within the organization's own data center. This means the servers and storage that manage and deploy the virtual desktops are locally housed, providing the company with full control over the infrastructure and possibly enhanced performance due to the proximity of resources. The option of managing the virtual desktops internally without relying on a third-party service provider is a key characteristic of this type of deployment.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What do you mean by a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)?
What are the advantages of using an on-premises VDI?
How does an on-premises VDI compare to a cloud-based VDI?
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of a Mail Exchanger (MX) record in DNS?
To specify the server(s) responsible for receiving email for a domain
To encrypt email messages in transit between mail servers
To authenticate outgoing email using DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)
To map an IPv4 address to a fully qualified domain name (FQDN)
Answer Description
An MX record specifies the mail servers responsible for receiving email for a domain. Its purpose is to direct email traffic, not to provide security. Email encryption is handled by protocols like TLS (for in-transit) or PGP/S/MIME (for end-to-end), not by DNS records. Mapping an IP address to a domain name is the function of an A record, and DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) uses TXT records for email authentication. Therefore, the correct option accurately describes the MX record's role in specifying email servers.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are MX records and their role in email delivery?
What does DNS stand for, and why is it important?
What are TLS and PGP and their roles in email encryption?
Which of the following best explains why client devices connected to a 5 GHz Wi-Fi access point usually experience less radio-frequency (RF) interference than devices connected to a 2.4 GHz access point?
5 GHz signals have longer wavelengths that bend around obstacles, preventing interference.
Regulatory power limits are significantly higher in the 5 GHz band, so stronger signals overpower any interference.
The 5 GHz band offers many more non-overlapping channels and is shared with far fewer common household devices.
The 5 GHz band uses frequency-hopping spread spectrum, whereas the 2.4 GHz band uses direct-sequence spread spectrum, eliminating interference.
Answer Description
The 5 GHz band provides far more non-overlapping 20 MHz channels (approximately 24-25) and is not shared by common household devices such as microwave ovens, Bluetooth peripherals, cordless phones, and baby monitors that crowd the 2.4 GHz ISM band. This wider, less-congested spectrum greatly reduces co-channel and adjacent-channel interference, so users on 5 GHz networks typically see cleaner signals.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the advantages of using a 5GHz band over a 2.4GHz band?
What types of devices commonly use the 2.4GHz band?
How does the presence of overlapping channels affect Wi-Fi performance?
What type of display technology is most commonly found on eReaders?
LED
E Ink
eNote
LCD
Answer Description
Electronic Ink (also known as Electronic Paper) are used in eReaders as they provide a screen most similar to physical ink and paper.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is E Ink technology?
How does E Ink compare to LCD in terms of battery life?
What are the benefits of using E Ink for reading?
Which of the following hypervisors is classified as a type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor rather than a type 2 (hosted) hypervisor?
Select one answer.
Microsoft Hyper-V
Parallels Desktop
VMware Workstation
Oracle VM VirtualBox
Answer Description
Microsoft Hyper-V is implemented as a bare-metal (type 1) hypervisor that loads below the host operating system and has direct access to hardware resources. Oracle VM VirtualBox, VMware Workstation, and Parallels Desktop are all hosted (type 2) hypervisors that run as applications inside a conventional operating system.
Type 1 example: Hyper-V.
Type 2 examples: VirtualBox, VMware Workstation, Parallels Desktop.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a type 1 hypervisor?
What is a type 2 hypervisor?
What is Hyper-V?
How many pins are present in SATA data and power cables?
8 for data and 12 for power
15 for both power and data
15 for power and 7 for data
40 for data and 4 for power
Answer Description
SATA (Serial Advanced Technology Attachment) has two main connector types. The power connector is larger with 15 pins, while the data connector is 7 pins. Both are an L shape to avoid inserting a connector incorrectly.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does SATA stand for?
What are the data transfer speeds associated with SATA cables?
Why are the SATA connectors designed in an L shape?
Your company has recently deployed a set of wireless IP cameras in the warehouse. The deployment area has legacy equipment that operates on the 2.4GHz band, which seems to be causing interference with the camera signals. Which wireless channel would be the best choice to minimize interference with the legacy equipment?
Channel 9
Channel 3
Channel 13
Channel 11
Answer Description
In the 2.4GHz band, channels 1 through 11 are available for use in North America. To prevent signal overlap and reduce adjacent-channel interference, the best practice is to use channels 1, 6, or 11, as they are spaced far enough apart not to interfere with each other. Channels like 3 and 9 would overlap with this standard three-channel plan, causing potential interference. Channel 13 is not authorized for Wi-Fi use in North America, though it is used in other regions. Therefore, choosing one of the non-overlapping channels is the best strategy, making Channel 11 the correct choice among the given options.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What causes interference in the 2.4GHz band?
Why are channels 1, 6, and 11 recommended for 2.4GHz Wi-Fi?
What is the difference between overlapping and non-overlapping Wi-Fi channels?
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