CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
A company is planning to consolidate their storage infrastructure to improve performance and centralize storage management. Which networking component would BEST achieve this by facilitating the connection of multiple servers to high-performance storage devices?
Direct-Attached Storage (DAS)
Personal Area Network (PAN)
Network Attached Storage (NAS)
Storage Area Network (SAN)
Answer Description
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is best suited for environments requiring high-performance storage systems that can be accessed and managed centrally. SANs provide dedicated network connectivity to storage pools, ensuring efficient data transfer rates and high availability, which lends itself well to scenarios involving multiple servers requiring access to shared storage resources. It is distinct from NAS devices, which provide file-level storage over networking protocols, and direct-attached storage, which connects storage to a specific server rather than allowing multiple servers to access the storage.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a Storage Area Network (SAN)?
How is a SAN different from Network Attached Storage (NAS)?
Why is SAN better suited than DAS for centralized storage?
A technician is tasked with installing a new high-performance storage device in a gaming PC that supports the latest technologies. The motherboard has multiple expansion slots and supports various storage interfaces. The gaming PC is used to run graphics-intensive games which require quick load times. Which of the following storage interfaces should the technician choose to meet the performance and technology requirements?
Mini-SATA (mSATA)
Non-volatile Memory Express (NVMe)
Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA)
Answer Description
Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe) is the correct choice because it is a communication protocol specifically designed for high-speed flash-based storage that leverages the PCIe bus for the fastest possible data transfer rates, which is ideal for reducing load times in graphics-intensive games. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA) is a common interface but offers significantly lower speeds than NVMe. Mini-SATA (mSATA) is an older and smaller form factor that also uses the slower SATA interface. Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) is a high-performance interface, but it is typically used in enterprise servers and requires a dedicated controller card, making it unsuitable for a consumer gaming PC.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What makes NVMe faster than SATA for storage?
Why is SAS typically not used in gaming PCs?
What is the difference between mSATA and NVMe?
A technician is refurbishing an older workstation which contains a motherboard with only legacy storage interface ports. In the storage archive, the technician identifies an array of newer storage devices, none of which directly match the motherboard's available connectors. What solution should the technician employ to integrate a new storage device into the system utilizing the available ports on the motherboard?
Adjust the setting on the new storage devices to align with the communication protocols used by the legacy ports.
Procure a bridge adapter capable of converting from the legacy connection standard of the motherboard to the modern interface of the drives.
Perform a firmware upgrade on the older motherboard to natively accept the recent standard of the storage devices.
Purchasing a new workstation or motherboard with more modern connections is necessary.
Answer Description
An adapter that bridges the connectivity between the current interface standard of the storage devices and the legacy interface available on the motherboard must be used. Since the new storage devices follow a different, more recent standard and the computer is equipped with a different, earlier specification, an adapter is needed to make the two compatible. The incorrect options suggest either using a direct substitute of cables, which does not address interface incompatibility, altering device configuration that is unrelated to interconnection, or a BIOS update which could not add absence physical connectivity.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are some common legacy storage interface ports?
How does a bridge adapter work to connect incompatible interfaces?
Are there limitations to using a bridge adapter with modern storage devices?
After replacing an old printer with a new one, users in the accounting department report that the printer trays appear to be full, yet documents do not print and an error says paper is not feeding. You have confirmed there is no paper jam and that the paper is loaded correctly according to the manufacturer's specifications. What should you do next to continue troubleshooting?
Replace the printer with another new unit in case of a hardware defect.
Turn off the printer for at least 30 seconds to reset the internal hardware, then power it back on.
Verify that the printer's paper size and media-type settings match the paper loaded in the trays.
Check whether the printer's firmware is outdated and perform an update.
Answer Description
A frequent cause of "paper not feeding" or "load paper" errors is a mismatch between the printer's configured paper size or media type and what is actually loaded. Most modern printers stop the job until the settings match. Verifying and, if necessary, correcting the paper size and type settings is therefore the next logical step before moving on to firmware updates or hardware replacement.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a paper size and media type setting in a printer?
How do you adjust or verify the paper settings on a printer?
Why don't firmware updates or resets fix paper misfeed issues immediately?
A server has experienced a hard drive failure in your data center. The server is utilizing a RAID 6 configuration. How many drives can fail and still avoid data loss?
One drive
Two drives
N-1 drives
No drives
Answer Description
In a RAID 6 configuration, you can lose up to two drives and still maintain fault tolerance. RAID 6 uses two parity blocks distributed across the drives, which allows the system to recover from the simultaneous failure of two drives without data loss. If a third drive fails, the array would lose data integrity.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is RAID 6 and how does it work?
What makes RAID 6 more fault-tolerant than RAID 5?
What happens if a third drive fails in a RAID 6 configuration?
Which cloud deployment model is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization?
Public cloud
Hybrid cloud
Private cloud
Community cloud
Answer Description
The private cloud model dedicates all computing, storage, and networking resources to one organization, providing greater control and security. Hybrid clouds blend private and public (or community) infrastructures, and public clouds are shared among many tenants. Community clouds are shared by several organizations with similar concerns. Therefore, only the private cloud is exclusively single-tenant.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the benefits of a private cloud compared to other cloud models?
How is a private cloud different from a community cloud?
What industries typically use private clouds?
During deployment of a new workstation, the user notices the desktop monitor has a persistent green tint. Swapping to a known-good monitor does not resolve the problem. Which of the following should be investigated NEXT to troubleshoot this color-display issue?
Inspect and, if necessary, replace the video cable
Update the graphics-driver software
Adjust the color-calibration settings in the operating system
Replace the graphics card with a new one
Answer Description
Because replacing the monitor did not eliminate the green tint, the next logical step is to inspect the connection between the PC and display. A loose, damaged, or bent-pin video cable can drop one or more color channels, producing a noticeable tint. Re-seating or replacing the cable is a quick, low-cost step before pursuing driver updates or hardware replacement.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What causes a monitor to display a persistent green tint?
How do video cables affect color display quality?
Why should driver updates or graphics card replacement come after cable inspection?
A technician is working on a PC that utilizes a RAID array. The user of the system has reported that random files are becoming corrupted on creation with no pattern to the activity. One drive in the array is likely failing and causing the read/write failures. Which of the following types of RAID is MOST likely in use?
RAID 0
RAID 10
RAID 5
RAID 1
Answer Description
RAID 0 uses striping and does not use a mirror or parity disk. This means corrupted data cannot be recovered and that an issue on one disk could cause information on other disks to be unreadable.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is RAID 0 and how does it work?
What is the main difference between RAID 0 and RAID 1?
How does RAID 5 differ from RAID 0 in terms of data protection?
Which type of Ethernet switch is designed for true plug-and-play operation and lacks a management interface for capabilities such as VLAN configuration, Quality of Service (QoS), or port monitoring?
Managed switch
Unmanaged switch
Smart (lightly managed) switch
Layer 3 switch
Answer Description
An unmanaged switch immediately begins forwarding traffic after devices are connected. It has no web, CLI, or SNMP interface, so administrators cannot configure features such as VLANs, QoS, or port security. Managed switches, smart (or lightly managed) switches, and Layer 3 switches all provide some level of configuration and monitoring capabilities.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between a managed and unmanaged switch?
What is VLAN and why can't an unmanaged switch configure it?
What does Quality of Service (QoS) mean on a network switch?
Which symptom would likely indicate an issue with capacitor swelling on a motherboard?
The presence of blue screen of death (BSOD) errors
A burning smell coming from the computer case
A visible bulge on the tops or sides of capacitors
The system not powering up at all
Answer Description
Capacitor swelling is characterized by a visible bulge or deformation on the top or sides of the capacitors. This deformation is a result of the capacitor failing or being under undue stress, often from heat or age. It's important to identify this physical change as it can lead to the malfunctioning of the motherboard and potential damage to the system. The presence of a burning smell would usually be related to other types of component damage or electrical short circuits, and the system not powering up could be due to a variety of other factors, not specifically related to capacitor swelling.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why do capacitors swell on motherboards?
How can a damaged capacitor affect my computer?
Can I replace swollen capacitors on a motherboard myself?
While troubleshooting a Bluetooth issue, you observe that a user's smartphone successfully connects to the car's hands-free kit for voice calls, but music playback over the same connection produces no audio. Volume and input settings are confirmed correct. To restore music streaming, which Bluetooth profile must be available on both devices?
Human Interface Device (HID)
Serial Port Profile (SPP)
Advanced Audio Distribution Profile (A2DP)
Hands-Free Profile (HFP)
Answer Description
High-quality stereo audio streaming over Bluetooth relies on the Advanced Audio Distribution Profile (A2DP). The symptoms show that voice calling (handled by the Hands-Free Profile, HFP) works, proving the radio link is functioning, but the stereo audio profile is missing or disabled. Serial Port Profile (SPP) provides a virtual COM port for data, and Human Interface Device (HID) is used for peripherals such as keyboards and mice-neither carries stereo audio. Enabling or adding A2DP support on the phone or the car stereo will allow music playback.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does A2DP specifically do in Bluetooth connections?
Why does HFP work for calls but not for music playback?
How can I enable A2DP on my device if it's not working?
The IT department of a financial firm is tasked with updating their data servers with hard drives that can accommodate frequent transactions and bulk data analysis. To enhance server responsiveness and maintain a modest budget, which spindle speed would be the optimal choice for their spindle-based hard drives?
10,000rpm
0rpm
7,200rpm
15,000rpm
Answer Description
In a server environment that deals with frequent transactions and requires quick access to data, such as in a financial firm, a speed of 10,000rpm for a spindle-based hard drive is typically a good compromise between cost and performance. Such drives are faster than standard 7,200rpm drives and more affordable than the top-tier 15,000rpm drives, thus catering well to the needs of bulk data analysis and consistent transactions while considering budget constraints. The choice of 10,000rpm drives holds true even when keeping in mind the performance capabilities of SSDs, which are not included in the options but would otherwise provide superior response times.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are spindle speeds in hard drives?
Why is 10,000rpm a good compromise for server environments?
How does spindle speed compare to SSD performance?
A user calls in to report that their email client is not able to retrieve mail from the server. They mention the client is set up for non-secure email retrieval. As you inspect their settings, you notice that they may have incorrectly configured the port for their inbound mail server. Which port should be used for the inbound mail server using non-secure IMAP?
Port 25
Port 110
Port 993
Port 143
Answer Description
Non-secure IMAP services typically use port 143. This is the default unencrypted port for IMAP, the protocol that deals with managing and retrieving email. On the other hand, port 993 is used if secure IMAP (IMAP over SSL) is configured. Port 110 is for POP3 (Post Office Protocol), another email retrieval protocol but typically used for downloading emails to the local client. Finally, port 25 is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) for sending emails, not receiving.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is IMAP, and how does it differ from POP3?
Why is port 143 used for non-secure IMAP, and what risks come with using it?
What role does SMTP play compared to IMAP, and why does it use port 25?
Which type of network is typically used by mobile phones to connect to the Internet and make voice calls?
Local area network (LAN)
Metropolitan area network (MAN)
Cellular network
Wide area network (WAN)
Answer Description
Cellular networks are specially designed to enable mobile devices such as smartphones to connect to the Internet and place voice calls when they are within the range of a cell site. Features like handoff and roaming allow uninterrupted connectivity and services as users move between cell sites.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a cellular network?
How does handoff work in cellular networks?
What is the difference between cellular networks and Wi-Fi networks?
A client reports that their laser printer is leaving streaks on printed documents. As an IT technician, you realize that if the printed pages are showing faded streaks or spots, the culprit could be an imaging component within the printer. Which part is most likely the cause and should be checked first to resolve this issue?
Imaging drum
Fuser assembly
Pickup rollers
Toner
Answer Description
If a laser printer is leaving streaks on the output, the most likely culprit is the imaging drum. Over time, the photosensitive drum may become worn or damaged, which could cause issues with image quality, such as streaks or spots. Users should check this part first for any signs of wear or debris. Checking the fuser assembly would be relevant if the toner on the prints is not fusing correctly, meaning it could smear when touched. Replacing the toner or refilling it would be required when prints are consistently faint across the whole page or when the toner is low or empty, not for streaks specifically. The pickup rollers are involved in paper handling, pulling the paper from the tray into the printer—if these fail, one might experience paper jams or multiple sheets being pulled at once, not streaks on the output.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the role of an imaging drum in a laser printer?
How can you identify damage or wear on an imaging drum?
What other components could cause streaks if the imaging drum is not the issue?
A client calls to report that the documents from their high-volume laser printer have started showing faded print on the right side, while the left side is printing normally. The printer was recently serviced and had its toner cartridge replaced. Before considering a hardware replacement, which of the following should be investigated FIRST to address the faded-print issue?
Reinstall or update the printer drivers on the client PC.
Inspect and reseat the toner cartridge, checking for uneven toner distribution or physical defects.
Run the printer's standard maintenance/cleaning cycle again.
Replace the fuser unit.
Answer Description
Uneven or side-specific fading on a laser-printed page often indicates that toner is not being distributed evenly inside the cartridge or that the cartridge is not seated correctly. Manufacturer guidance recommends removing the cartridge, gently rocking it to redistribute toner, and verifying that it locks firmly into place; improper seating or a damaged cartridge can cause one-sided fading. Low-toner or fuser problems usually affect the whole page or cause smearing rather than a consistent fade on only one edge, and driver reinstallation rarely corrects a mechanical print-quality defect.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does uneven toner distribution cause one-sided fading?
How does reseating the toner cartridge fix print quality issues?
How can you differentiate between toner issues and fuser issues in a laser printer?
A user reports that when they press the Y key on their laptop, a Z appears onscreen (and vice-versa). Before disassembling the laptop to inspect or replace the keyboard, which of the following initial steps should the technician perform to troubleshoot the issue?
Update the BIOS firmware to the latest version.
Check the keyboard layout settings in the operating system.
Disassemble the laptop and check the keyboard's ribbon-cable connection.
Press the Num Lock key to see if it resolves the issue.
Answer Description
An initial, non-intrusive step is to verify the keyboard layout selected in the operating system. Accidentally switching from a US-QWERTY to a European QWERTZ layout will swap the Y and Z keys as described. Num Lock typically causes letters to become numbers on laptops with an embedded numeric keypad, not a Y/Z swap, while BIOS updates and hardware disassembly should be reserved until simple software checks are exhausted.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a keyboard layout setting in an operating system?
How can a user accidentally switch their keyboard layout?
Why is checking the Num Lock key not a relevant troubleshooting step for a Y/Z swap?
What is the primary function of a virtual environment when it is utilized as a sandbox?
To test software in a secure, isolated environment without affecting the host system.
To serve as the main operating environment for day-to-day use by the end-user.
To increase the computing power available to an application by sharing resources with the host system.
To allow multiple users to share a single hardware platform simultaneously.
Answer Description
A sandbox is used for safe testing of software or code in an isolated environment that mimics the end operating environment without affecting the host system. This isolation serves as a security measure that prevents potentially harmful software from impacting the host system or other networks.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does a sandbox isolate software from the host system?
What are examples of software or tools used to create a sandbox environment?
Why is a sandbox important for cybersecurity?
Which of the following statements accurately describes the M.2 form factor?
A new standard of host controller interface designed exclusively for hard disk drives and optical drives.
An expanded interface similar to Mini-PCIe, primarily used for storage upgrades on legacy devices due to its backwards compatibility.
A small form factor developed for internally mounted storage expansion cards that provides SATA and PCIe connectivity options.
Another term for DDR4 DIMM used primarily in desktops, signifying its dimensions of 5.25 inches x 1.25 inches.
Answer Description
The M.2 form factor is a small, internally mounted expansion-card format that plugs directly into a dedicated M.2 slot on the motherboard. It was designed to replace older mSATA and Mini-PCIe solutions and can carry several different interfaces, most commonly SATA and PCIe (including NVMe).
One incorrect statement is that M.2 is an expanded Mini-PCIe interface intended primarily for legacy upgrades, which is not true.
Another incorrect statement is that DIMM refers to memory modules with specific dimensions that have no relation to M.2.
Finally, it is also inaccurate to describe M.2 as a host-controller interface designed exclusively for hard-disk or optical drives.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the key differences between M.2 and mSATA storage solutions?
What is the difference between PCIe and NVMe in the context of M.2 storage?
Why is the M.2 form factor preferred for modern storage solutions?
Which of the following statements about NVMe is true?
NVMe is a type of hard-drive connector.
NVMe is a protocol for accessing data.
NVMe must use the M.2 form factor.
NVMe is significantly faster than M.2-based drives.
Answer Description
Non-Volatile Memory Express (NVMe) is a high-performance protocol that defines how a system reads from and writes to non-volatile solid-state storage over PCIe. Because it is a protocol (logical interface), it can be implemented on drives that use various physical form factors and connectors such as M.2, U.2, or add-in PCIe cards. M.2, by contrast, is merely a physical form-factor specification, not a storage protocol, so the two are not directly comparable.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does NVMe do?
How does NVMe differ from M.2?
Why is NVMe faster than older protocols like SATA?
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