CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop computer that shuts down suddenly after being used for several hours. The vents, fans and internal casing are free of dust and obstructions. The technician suspects that the computer is experiencing overheating problems. What should the technician check FIRST to address the overheating issue?
Reapply the thermal paste on the CPU after checking its condition and reseating the heatsink.
Measure the ambient room temperature to ensure it is within recommended operating levels.
Update the BIOS firmware to the latest version to ensure optimal system regulation.
Perform a thorough cleaning of the case and ensure all dust is removed.
Answer Description
The technician should first check the thermal paste because it facilitates heat transfer from the CPU to the heatsink. If the thermal paste is old, improperly applied, or missing, the CPU may overheat, leading to sudden shutdowns after prolonged use. The question states the internal components are free of dust and debris, so cleaning does not making sense as a next step. Checking the ambient room temperature is important for overall heat management, but the first point of heat transfer that should be checked is between the CPU and heatsink. BIOS firmware updates could resolve overheating only if the issue is related to improper fan control; this step is typically considered after verifying the physical heat transfer mechanisms.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is thermal paste important for preventing overheating?
How can a technician check if the thermal paste needs reapplying?
What symptoms indicate a CPU might be overheating?
A small office is considering upgrading their wireless network to improve speed and range. The office is currently using wireless access points that operate exclusively on the 2.4GHz band. To optimize both coverage and speed for their network users, which WiFi technology should they employ?
Staying with 2.4GHz access points is recommended for better wall penetration, using WiFi 4 (802.11n) technology to achieve faster speeds.
They should implement additional 2.4GHz access points with Bluetooth technology to enhance the current network range and speed.
They should use access points that support WiFi 5 or WiFi 6 technology for improved performance on the 5GHz band.
Switching to a wired network is the only option to notice a considerable upgrade in both speed and coverage.
Answer Description
The office should upgrade their wireless network to access points supporting WiFi 5 (802.11ac) or WiFi 6 (802.11ax) standards. These technologies provide higher data rates and operate on the 5GHz band which, in comparison to the 2.4GHz band, offers reduced interference and the ability to handle higher bandwidth-intensive tasks. WiFi 5 and WiFi 6 devices typically support multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO), which increases data throughput and connection quality. Furthermore, WiFi 6 supports Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access (OFDMA) enhancing efficiency and capacity of the network.
Ask Bash
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What are the key differences between WiFi 5 and WiFi 6?
Why is the 5GHz band better for speed compared to the 2.4GHz band?
What is MU-MIMO and how does it improve network performance?
A company requires a flexible computing environment that allows them to scale their resources during peak times, such as holiday sales, while keeping their sensitive customer data on-premises due to stringent compliance regulations. Which type of cloud model would best meet this company's needs?
Community cloud
Public cloud
Hybrid cloud
Private cloud
Answer Description
A hybrid cloud model is most suitable for the scenario described as it combines the flexibility and scalability of public clouds with the control and security of a private cloud. The company can scale up using public cloud resources during peak times without moving sensitive data out of their private infrastructure, adhering to compliance regulations.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a hybrid cloud model?
How does a hybrid cloud ensure compliance with regulations?
What are the main differences between private, public, and hybrid clouds?
You are a Network Technician for a large IT Support Company. A client has called in saying that they switched their SOHO network to a fiber connection at the recommendation of their ISP. They have stated that they have not seen a gain in internet performance and that their ISP says it is an issue on the customer's network. What should you do next?
Upgrade the customer's SOHO switch to support 1 Gbps or higher
Help the customer determine the possible bottlenecks in their SOHO network
Inform the customer that internet performance is an issue they must resolve with their ISP
Contact the ISP for more information
Answer Description
You should ask questions to assist the customer in determining their network equipment. The most likely cause of the poor performance is that their network equipment (routers, switches, etc) or devices (wireless or wired NIC) do not support the faster speeds. The only way to solve this issue is to get more information from the customer.
Ask Bash
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What are some examples of network bottlenecks in a SOHO network?
How can I check if a network device supports gigabit speeds?
What steps should a customer take to troubleshoot their network performance?
Which of the following best explains why client devices connected to a 5 GHz Wi-Fi access point usually experience less radio-frequency (RF) interference than devices connected to a 2.4 GHz access point?
5 GHz signals have longer wavelengths that bend around obstacles, preventing interference.
The 5 GHz band offers many more non-overlapping channels and is shared with far fewer common household devices.
Regulatory power limits are significantly higher in the 5 GHz band, so stronger signals overpower any interference.
The 5 GHz band uses frequency-hopping spread spectrum, whereas the 2.4 GHz band uses direct-sequence spread spectrum, eliminating interference.
Answer Description
The 5 GHz band provides far more non-overlapping 20 MHz channels (approximately 24-25) and is not shared by common household devices such as microwave ovens, Bluetooth peripherals, cordless phones, and baby monitors that crowd the 2.4 GHz ISM band. This wider, less-congested spectrum greatly reduces co-channel and adjacent-channel interference, so users on 5 GHz networks typically see cleaner signals.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does the 5 GHz band have more non-overlapping channels than the 2.4 GHz band?
What common household devices cause interference in the 2.4 GHz band?
What are co-channel and adjacent-channel interference, and why are they less common in the 5 GHz band?
A technician is tasked with identifying sources of interference affecting the wireless network performance in a corporate environment. Using a WiFi analyzer, what should the technician specifically look for to BEST address this issue?
Finding unauthorized access points
Identification of overlapping channels with nearby networks
Listing of all Service Set Identifiers (SSIDs) in the corporate environment
Detection of signal strength fluctuations across the facility
Answer Description
The correct answer is the identification of overlapping (adjacent) channels that nearby networks are using. Overlapping channels cause adjacent-channel interference, which corrupts frames and degrades throughput. A WiFi analyzer graphically shows which channels each SSID occupies and how wide they are, enabling the technician to select a non-overlapping channel (such as 1, 6, or 11 in the 2.4 GHz band) or adjust channel width to reduce interference. Monitoring only signal-strength fluctuations relates more to coverage, listing SSIDs does not reveal interference sources, and hunting unauthorized access points is primarily a security task-not the immediate cause of performance-impacting radio interference.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are overlapping channels in WiFi, and why do they cause interference?
How does a WiFi analyzer help identify interference sources?
Why are channels 1, 6, and 11 recommended in the 2.4 GHz band?
A user reports that their desktop PC has started making a loud grinding noise intermittently but becomes especially noticeable during the boot process. What is the MOST likely cause of the noise?
The cooling fan is obstructed or failing
There is an incorrect driver installation causing hardware conflicts
The solid-state drive (SSD) is failing
A mechanical hard drive is beginning to fail
Answer Description
The grinding noise, particularly during boot-up, typically indicates a mechanical problem with a component that has moving parts. In a desktop PC, a failing hard drive or a malfunctioning fan is often the culprit. Because the noise is described as 'loud' and occurs during boot, when hard drives are engaged to load the operating system, a hard drive that is beginning to fail is the most probable cause, as mechanical hard drives contain spinning disks which can produce loud grinding noises when they malfunction. Other options listed, such as a failing solid-state drive or incorrect driver installation, would not typically result in a grinding noise because these components do not contain moving parts capable of producing such a sound.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why do mechanical hard drives produce grinding noises when they begin to fail?
How can I tell if the noise is from a hard drive versus another failing component?
What should I do if my mechanical hard drive is failing?
You are a Desktop Technician in a company's IT Department. You need to find the hardware specifications of a desktop; however, the device does not have an operating system installed. Which of the following options will display this information?
POST
BIOS
MBR
TPM
Answer Description
The BIOS (Basic Input Output System) or UEFI firmware contains a setup utility that displays hardware information such as the CPU, RAM, and detected storage devices. This is accessible before an operating system loads. The Power-On Self-Test (POST) is a diagnostic process that runs at startup to check hardware, but it is not the user interface for viewing detailed specifications. The Master Boot Record (MBR) is a special sector on a storage drive that helps initiate the OS boot process, and a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used for security and encryption.
Ask Bash
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What is the BIOS, and how does it display hardware specifications?
How is BIOS different from UEFI firmware?
What is the difference between BIOS and POST?
Which of the following is a key capability of the USB-C connector, which is characterized by its reversible design and widespread use on modern laptops, smartphones, and docking stations?
Transmitting video signals exclusively.
Carrying power, data, and video signals.
Serving exclusively as a power cable with no data capabilities.
Restricting data transfer rates to those specified in the USB 2.0 standard.
Answer Description
The correct answer is that a USB-C connector can carry power, data, and video signals. This triple-functionality is a hallmark of the USB-C standard, often enabled through protocols like Power Delivery (PD) for charging and Alternate Modes (such as DisplayPort Alt Mode) for video. This versatility distinguishes it from older USB types that were primarily limited to data and lower power.
Ask Bash
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What is USB-C Power Delivery (PD)?
What is DisplayPort Alternate Mode (Alt Mode)?
How does USB-C differ from older USB connectors?
At power-up, a desktop PC emits several short beeps, pauses briefly, and then repeats this pattern in a loop. What does this beep pattern MOST likely indicate?
A successful diagnostic routine indicating the system passed POST.
A hardware error such as a RAM or motherboard fault that prevented POST from completing.
The CPU is overheating after the system has already booted into the OS.
The operating system boot loader cannot be found on the primary drive.
Answer Description
On most BIOS implementations, a repeating series of short beeps signifies that POST detected a critical hardware fault-commonly with RAM, the motherboard's power delivery, or another essential component. It is not an indication of a successful POST; a single short beep (IBM/Award) or a single long beep (AMI) generally signals that no errors were found. Technicians should reference the motherboard or BIOS documentation for exact meanings and begin hardware diagnostics, often starting with reseating or replacing memory modules.
Ask Bash
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What is POST and why is it important?
How can a technician identify the meaning of beep codes?
What are some troubleshooting steps if POST detects a hardware fault?
A user reports that their workstation restarts unexpectedly multiple times throughout the day. Before conducting any troubleshooting steps, what is the first action you should take?
Replace the workstation's power supply unit.
Perform a full backup of the user's hard drive.
Gather information and inquire about any recent user changes.
Update all drivers and the operating system.
Answer Description
When dealing with any problem, especially one involving unexpected behavior such as random restarts, it is important to gather information from the user; this helps narrow down potential causes. Understanding if any changes have been made by the user prior to the occurrence of the issue can be crucial, and often, these changes are the root of the problem. Performing backups before making any changes is also a good practice, but it is typically not the first step unless there is an immediate risk of data loss. Hence, asking about recent changes is a more direct initial approach.
Ask Bash
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Why is gathering information about recent changes important?
What kind of questions should you ask the user when gathering information?
What are other potential causes of random restarts besides user changes?
A technician is tasked with replacing a damaged motherboard in a thin and light laptop. After obtaining a compatible replacement, what is the first step the technician should take before installing the new motherboard?
Begin reassembling the device.
Remove the faulty Motherboard
Test the thermal sensors of the CPU.
Disconnect the internal battery.
Answer Description
Before installing the new motherboard into the laptop, the technician needs to disconnect the battery to prevent any potential short-circuits or electrical damage. This is a safety protocol that must be followed to protect both the technician and the device components during installation. Testing the thermal sensors would not be the immediate concern, as these are part of validation after the motherboard installation. Reassembling the device would be one of the final steps after successfully installing the new motherboard.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is it important to disconnect the internal battery before replacing hardware components in a laptop?
How can a technician ensure the internal battery is fully disconnected during motherboard replacement?
What are some potential risks of skipping the step of disconnecting the battery before hardware replacement?
A technician is locking down a Windows file server with a host-based firewall. The environment still uses NetBIOS sessions for legacy SMB file sharing. After blocking most inbound traffic, users can ping the server but can no longer open its shared folders from remote subnets. Which single TCP port must be opened to restore the NetBIOS session service required for these shares?
TCP 445
UDP 138
TCP 137
TCP 139
Answer Description
NetBIOS over TCP/IP uses three well-known ports. Port 137 (UDP/TCP) provides the NetBIOS name service, port 138 (UDP) handles datagram traffic, and port 139 (TCP) carries the NetBIOS session service that SMB relies on for older Windows file sharing. Because the issue involves establishing a session to access shared folders, opening TCP port 139 resolves the problem. Allowing port 137 or 138 would not re-enable session traffic, and port 445 is used for direct SMB without NetBIOS, which the legacy environment does not yet support.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is TCP port 139 crucial for NetBIOS session service in this scenario?
What is the difference between SMB over NetBIOS and SMB over TCP/IP?
What are the security considerations when allowing TCP port 139 on a firewall?
A technician is replacing the failed motherboard in a workstation that uses an Intel Core i7-12700 processor. To ensure the CPU can be reused without modification, which CPU socket must the new motherboard support?
AM4
LGA1200
TR4
LGA1700
Answer Description
The Intel Core i7-12700 (12th-generation Alder Lake) is designed for the LGA1700 socket. Selecting a motherboard with the same socket allows the technician to reinstall the existing processor. LGA1200 is for 10th/11th-gen Intel CPUs, while AM4 and TR4 are AMD sockets and would not fit an Intel processor.
Ask Bash
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What does LGA mean in CPU sockets?
How do I know which CPU socket I need for my processor?
What are the differences between Intel and AMD CPU sockets?
Which solid-state drive (SSD) form factor is commonly used in ultra-portable devices such as ultrabook laptops and tablets because of its compact dimensions?
PCIe add-in card
M.2
U.2 (SFF-8639)
2.5-inch SATA drive
Answer Description
The M.2 specification (formerly NGFF) defines a very small printed-circuit-board form factor-typically 22 mm wide and 30 to 110 mm long-allowing SSDs to be mounted directly on a motherboard without cables. This space-saving design makes M.2 drives the standard choice for thin laptops and tablets. By contrast, 2.5-inch SATA drives and U.2 drives are bulkier, while PCIe add-in cards are intended for desktops.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What makes M.2 SSDs more suitable for ultrabooks and tablets compared to other SSD form factors?
What is the difference between M.2 and 2.5-inch SATA drives?
What is the difference between the M.2 and U.2 (SFF-8639) interfaces?
A user reports that every page produced by a laser printer contains scattered speckles of toner. Following CompTIA A+ printer-troubleshooting best practices, which component should you examine first to resolve the issue?
Inspect the toner cartridge for leaks or a damaged drum.
Vacuum the paper path with a toner-rated vacuum to remove debris.
Run the printer's built-in cleaning cycle and inspect the fuser assembly.
Update or reinstall the printer driver on the computer.
Answer Description
Random speckles are usually caused by loose toner escaping from a faulty cartridge or by damage to the photosensitive drum that allows toner to attach where it should not. Inspecting the toner cartridge (and its integrated drum, if present) for leaks, scratches, or other defects is therefore the first and most effective step. Cleaning cycles, fuser inspections, and driver updates can help other print-quality problems but are not the primary cause of toner speckles.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the role of a toner cartridge in a laser printer?
What is a photosensitive drum, and why is it important?
How does the fuser assembly affect print quality?
Your company recently implemented a VDI solution to manage remote workstations effectively. Which of the following benefits specifically relates to using VDI on premises rather than VDI in the cloud?
Greater control over data security and compliance
Enhanced accessibility from any location in the world
Automatic scalability to handle variable workloads
Lower initial hardware costs due to shared resources
Answer Description
Using an on-premises VDI allows for greater control over data security and compliance with regulatory standards. This setup can provide the organization with the ability to safeguard sensitive information better as it is stored and managed internally, instead of relying on third-party cloud services where data control is less direct.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is VDI and how does it work?
What makes on-premises VDI more secure than cloud-based VDI?
What are the common use cases for on-premises VDI?
Which of the following scenarios will provide the BEST memory performance enhancement in a system that supports dual-channel architecture?
Installing two identical RAM modules in the appropriate paired slots as specified in the motherboard manual
Deploying two RAM modules of different sizes in paired slots
Having a single larger RAM module in any slot available on the motherboard
Distributing RAM modules of the same size but different speeds across alternate slots, not pairs
Answer Description
For a system to operate using dual-channel memory, the RAM modules must be of equal size and speed and installed in the paired slots designated by the motherboard. Typically, the paired slots are color-coded on the motherboard, which is integral in assisting with the proper placement of the RAM sticks. Hence, placing two identical RAM modules in the appropriate slots will activate dual-channel mode leading to better performance.
Ask Bash
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What is dual-channel memory architecture?
Why do RAM modules need to be identical for dual-channel to work?
What happens if RAM is installed in the wrong slots for dual-channel?
Upon booting a workstation, it emits a series of long beeps, but nothing is displayed on the monitor. The beeping pattern repeats indefinitely. What is the MOST likely cause?
The monitor cable is unplugged or is faulty
No OS was found
The RAM modules are not properly seated or have failed.
The graphics driver has failed and needs updating
Answer Description
The presence of long, repeated beep codes during startup is indicative of a hardware issue related to the motherboard POST process. Of the given answers, the POST beeps are likely from RAM that is not properly seated. It could also be another hardware component like the CPU or a video card having issues. POST codes indicate unrecoverable hardware issues within internal components of a computer during boot up.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is POST in reference to computer hardware?
How do beep codes help diagnose hardware issues?
What should you do if the RAM modules are not properly seated?
On older devices, which of the following provides constant power to a motherboard, allowing it to retain configuration data for the BIOS?
CMOS Battery
UPS
AC Power Supply
Southbridge
Answer Description
On older devices the BIOS configuration data is retained by using a small battery, called the CMOS battery, as a power source when the power supply is not on. The data is saved in the nonvolatile BIOS memory (also called CMOS RAM) and will be lost if the CMOS battery dies or is removed. If the data is lost the BIOS will revert to default settings.
Newer devices often use small solid state storage to store BIOS configuration data, which is retained even without any power.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What exactly is the CMOS battery, and why is it important?
What is the difference between BIOS and CMOS?
Why do newer devices not rely on a CMOS battery for BIOS data?
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