CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
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CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Practice Test
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

- Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
A client's VoIP application is experiencing noticeable latency during calls. To minimize delay and jitter in the media stream, which transport-layer protocol should the network administrator prioritize in the network configuration?
- Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) 
- Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) 
- User Datagram Protocol (UDP) 
- Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) 
Answer Description
VoIP audio and video streams typically ride on the Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP), which in turn uses UDP. UDP is connectionless and does not wait for acknowledgments or retransmit lost packets, so it introduces less overhead, latency, and jitter than TCP. TCP's handshake, sequencing, and retransmission mechanisms improve reliability but add delay, making it unsuitable for real-time voice traffic in most cases. HTTP and ICMP are not used to carry VoIP media, and while TCP can be used, it normally degrades call quality compared with UDP.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is UDP preferred over TCP for VoIP applications?
What is jitter, and why does it matter in VoIP calls?
What is RTP, and how does it interact with UDP in VoIP traffic?
A technician is replacing the speaker on a customer's laptop. After reassembly, the customer reports that the sound is distorted and there's a noticeable buzzing noise when the volume is raised. The technician confirms that the sound issue was not present before the speaker replacement. What is the MOST likely cause of this new sound issue?
- The speaker has not been properly seated or the connectors are not fully attached. 
- The speaker housing does not have a proper seal, causing air to escape and create distortion. 
- There is electromagnetic interference from other internal components affecting speaker performance. 
- The replacement speaker has a different impedance rating, incompatible with the laptop's design. 
Answer Description
Buzzing or crackling that begins immediately after a speaker replacement almost always points to a bad physical connection: the small speaker cable or the driver itself is not fully seated, so the signal intermittently opens or shorts and the cone can vibrate against the chassis. Reseating the cable and mounting the speaker correctly normally restores clear audio. A leaky speaker enclosure can affect frequency response but rarely creates an electrical buzz, electromagnetic interference is typically heard as faint hiss or clicks, and an impedance mismatch can indeed cause distortion-but technicians usually install the manufacturer-specified part, so a loose connection is by far the more likely cause.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the role of a speaker cable and why is proper seating important?
What is impedance, and why is it generally not the issue in this scenario?
Why does electromagnetic interference (EMI) result in faint hiss or clicks, not buzzing?
A company is considering moving their data operations to a cloud-based service. They want to ensure that their costs are correlated with their actual usage of compute, storage, and network resources. Which characteristic of cloud computing best aligns with the company’s requirement?
- Metered utilization 
- Rapid elasticity 
- High availability 
- Shared resources 
Answer Description
Metered utilization is the correct answer because it refers to the characteristic of cloud computing where customers only pay for the resources they use, rather than a flat fee. This means that costs directly reflect actual usage. In comparison, high availability refers to the uptime and reliability of services, rapid elasticity to the ability to scale resources quickly in response to demand, and shared resources to the pooling of resources to serve multiple consumers, but none of these directly correlate cost with usage like metered utilization does.
Ask Bash
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What is metered utilization in cloud computing?
How does metered utilization differ from flat-fee pricing?
What are some examples of resources measured under metered utilization?
Which special keyboard modifier key, found on most laptops, allows manufacturers to reduce keyboard size by layering secondary functions (such as volume or brightness) onto existing keys, making smaller form-factor designs possible?
- Touch screen 
- Mechanical switch keycaps 
- PS/2 port 
- Fn key 
Answer Description
The Fn key (short for "function") is a modifier key that lets laptop makers assign alternate commands-volume, brightness, external-display toggle, and more-to keys that would otherwise have a single purpose. By eliminating the need for dedicated media or hardware-control keys, the Fn key enables a more compact keyboard layout and therefore thinner, lighter laptops.
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How does the Fn key work?
What types of functions can the Fn key control?
Can the Fn key behavior be customized?
A newly installed high-end projector in an executive boardroom is projecting a clear image along the edges but displays a noticeable blur in the center areas during its first use in a presentation. Prior inspection indicates the lens and external components are clean and unobstructed. After ensuring connection integrity, which of the following should be executed next to effectively mitigate this specific issue?
- Clean the lens internally presuming a possible overlooked contamination. 
- Recalibrate lens properties directly via projector settings if adjustable. 
- Decrease the output resolution to reduce strain on projector's lens clarity. 
- Perform a firmware software update for the projector to the latest version. 
Answer Description
Keystone correction is specifically related to adjusting the image output when a projector is not positioned perpendicular to the screen, which can lead to distortion primarily at the sides but could potentially affect focus distribution if severe. Despite feeling intuitive, cleaning the lens or adjusting resolution may not address a central blur when the edges are clear; and updating the software deals with processing but it's uncommon for this to specifically affect focal sharpness. Thus, recalibrating the lens properties such as focus would be a logical step before assuming other hardware or software failures.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does recalibrating lens properties mean in this context?
How does keystone correction differ from lens recalibration?
Why wouldn’t cleaning the lens or updating firmware solve this issue?
During a wireless site survey for a small warehouse, you discover heavy shelving and several concrete support pillars that will obstruct radio signals. Management prefers reliable coverage over maximum throughput and wants to minimize the number of access points that must be installed. Which Wi-Fi frequency band should you recommend for the client devices to use?
- 5 GHz 
- 60 GHz 
- 2.4 GHz 
- 6 GHz 
Answer Description
Lower-frequency signals travel farther and penetrate solid obstacles more effectively than higher-frequency signals because they experience less free-space path loss and better diffraction. The 2.4 GHz band therefore offers the best range and wall penetration, making it the logical choice when coverage is the primary goal. The 5 GHz and 6 GHz bands provide higher data rates but their shorter wavelengths attenuate more quickly and are blocked more easily by shelves and concrete. A 60 GHz millimeter-wave band would have even poorer range indoors and is not part of standard Wi-Fi deployments for warehouse coverage.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does the 2.4 GHz band penetrate obstacles better than higher-frequency bands?
What are the trade-offs of using 2.4 GHz over 5 GHz or 6 GHz?
Why wouldn’t the 60 GHz band be suitable for warehouse Wi-Fi coverage?
Which type of cloud model provides services over the internet and is available to anyone who wishes to pay for them?
- Private cloud 
- Public cloud 
- Hybrid cloud 
- Community cloud 
Answer Description
The public cloud is a model where services are offered over the internet and are available to anyone willing to pay for them. It is managed by third-party providers and offers scalability and flexibility for users.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are the key features of a public cloud?
How does a public cloud differ from a private cloud?
What are some examples of public cloud providers?
Which of the following cloud characteristics makes it possible for an organization to add more servers as needed without the need to purchase additional hardware?
- File synchronization 
- High availability 
- Rapid elasticity 
- Metered utilization 
Answer Description
The cloud computing characteristic rapid elasticity provides the ability to expand or contract resources as the need or lack thereof arises. The biggest advance of this is being able to add resources faster and cheaper than adding additional hardware.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is rapid elasticity in cloud computing?
How does rapid elasticity differ from high availability?
What is the role of metered utilization in cloud services?
A technician is configuring a SOHO router for a small business. Which protocol should the technician configure if they want to automatically assign IP addresses to devices on the network?
- Internet Mail Access Protocol (IMAP) 
- Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) 
- Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) 
- Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) 
Answer Description
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to assign IP addresses to devices on a network automatically. When a device connects to a network, it sends a request to the DHCP server, which then leases an IP address to the device. This protocol simplifies network management by eliminating the need for manual IP configuration. SNMP is used for managing and monitoring network devices but is not responsible for IP assignment. IMAP is used to retrieve emails from a server and also doesn't handle IP addressing. RDP allows remote connection to another computer but does not relate to assigning IP addresses.
Ask Bash
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What are the main differences between DHCP and static IP addressing?
What role does the DHCP lease time play in the network?
How does a device obtain an IP address using DHCP?
An employee's workstation is unable to access network resources and the troubleshooting process reveals the machine has been assigned an address starting with 169.254. Based on this information, what is the most likely cause of the networking issue?
- The workstation’s network mask setting is preventing it from communicating on the local network. 
- Another DHCP server is issuing incorrect settings to network clients. 
- The workstation has been manually set with a static address outside the designated network range. 
- The network’s DHCP service is not available or malfunctioning, leading to the workstation assigning itself an APIPA address. 
Answer Description
When a device is assigned an address that starts with 169.254, it indicates that it has self-assigned an Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) address. This is a fallback mechanism used when a workstation configured to obtain an address automatically is unable to reach a DHCP server to obtain one. This typically points to issues with the DHCP server itself being unreachable or malfunctioning. It is not due to manual static address configuration, incorrect subnet settings, or interference from a rogue DHCP server, as those scenarios would lead to different outcomes such as deliberate network assignment, connectivity issues related to incorrect network segmentation, or invalid network configurations respectively.
Ask Bash
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What is APIPA and when is it used?
What causes a DHCP server to be unavailable?
How does APIPA differ from a DHCP-assigned IP address?
While working as a consultant, a client has asked you for a recommendation on cloud models. They want to completely eliminate their on-premise infrastructure and replace it with a more flexible, ad-hoc computing model. What type of cloud model should you recommend based on this information?
- Public Cloud 
- Community Cloud 
- Hybrid Cloud 
- Private Cloud 
Answer Description
A public cloud model provides infrastructure and services on-demand over the internet, using infrastructure shared by all customers of the cloud provider. Examples include Amazon Web Services (AWS), Google Cloud Platform (GCP), and Microsoft Azure. By using a public cloud model, your client can migrate out of their on-premise data center and use the flexibility and ad-hoc subscription model of a public cloud. A hybrid cloud is incorrect as it involves retaining some on-premise infrastructure. A private cloud is dedicated to a single organization and is less aligned with the client's desire for a flexible, ad-hoc model. A community cloud is a collaborative model for organizations with shared concerns and is not suitable for a single organization's general needs.
Ask Bash
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What is a public cloud model?
How does a public cloud differ from a hybrid cloud?
Why is a private cloud not suitable for ad-hoc computing needs?
While servicing a 2011 handheld barcode scanner, you notice its data-and-charging port is a roughly trapezoidal receptacle about 7 mm wide, with five visible contacts and two slightly beveled top corners. You must order a replacement cable that plugs directly into this port without an adapter. Which connector type should you specify on the parts order?
- USB micro-B connector 
- USB mini-B connector 
- USB Type-C connector 
- Lightning connector 
Answer Description
The trapezoidal, 7 mm-wide, five-pin connector with beveled top corners matches the USB mini-B style that was common on mobile devices prior to the adoption of micro-USB and USB-C. Micro-USB connectors are smaller (about 6.8 mm × 1.8 mm) with a distinct stepped shape, USB-C is a thin symmetrical oval, and Lightning is proprietary to Apple devices-none of which would fit a legacy mini-B receptacle.
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What distinguishes a USB mini-B connector from other USB types?
Why was USB mini-B replaced by newer USB standards like micro-B and Type-C?
What does the five-pin layout in a USB mini-B connector signify?
A user reports that their printouts contain a shadow of the previous image. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
- Separation pads 
- Fuser assembly 
- Pickup assembly 
- Corona wire 
Answer Description
The fuser assembly uses heat and pressure to melt and fuse toner onto the paper. When a fuser assembly is failing, it may not properly bond all the toner, or the cleaning mechanism for its roller might fail. This can cause leftover toner from a previous image to stick to the fuser and be transferred onto the next page, creating a faint, ghosted image. The other components listed cause different issues: faulty separation pads or pickup assemblies lead to paper-feeding problems, while a defective corona wire typically causes faded or blank printing.
Ask Bash
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What is the role of a fuser assembly in a printer?
How does ghosting occur in laser printers?
How do separation pads differ from the fuser assembly in a printer?
What is the port number for connecting to a server using IMAP?
- 110 
- 443 
- 143 
- 25 
Answer Description
IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is a standard email protocol that stores email messages on a mail server and allows the user to view and manipulate them as if they were stored locally on their device's mail client. IMAP operates over port 143, where it maintains a continuous connection to the mail server, allowing users to organize, delete, or mark their email without having to download it first. This continuous connection enables real-time updates of the email status across multiple devices, making it ideal for users who need to access their mail from various locations and devices.
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Why does IMAP use port 143?
What is the difference between IMAP and POP3?
How does IMAP ensure real-time email updates across multiple devices?
What symptom describes an issue where an image or elements of an image become permanently visible on a monitor, regardless of a change in the display content?
- Fuzzy image 
- Dead pixels 
- Incorrect color display 
- Display burn-in 
Answer Description
Display burn-in, also known as screen burn, is the result of displaying the same image or scene for an extended period, leading to some pixels aging differently than others and causing a permanent 'ghost' image. This symptom differs from temporary screen artifacts or image retention, which can usually be corrected by changing the display content or turning the screen off for a while.
Ask Bash
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What causes display burn-in and why is it permanent?
How can display burn-in be prevented on modern screens?
Is display burn-in more common in certain types of screens?
A company's workstation is failing to load the operating system, displaying the message 'Bootable device not found' during startup. This machine uses a mirrored set of two hard drives for redundancy purposes. On inspection, both drives are showing error LEDs. What is the best first step to take in resolving this issue?
- Inspect and ensure that all data and power connections to the hard drives are secure. 
- Format the drives to clear any corrupt partitions that may be preventing boot. 
- Run a software utility to check the integrity of the drives and attempt to recover lost sectors. 
- Swap the current cables for new ones without inspecting the existing setup to determine if the cables are indeed the problem. 
Answer Description
In any case wherein a system can't find the bootable device, especially when dealing with a mirrored set of drives purposed for redundancy, checking the physical connections is a fast and straightforward initial diagnosis to see if the error is related to simple issues such as loose cables. This step may quickly solve the problem since if the system can't properly communicate with the storage devices, it will not be able to boot or recognize either of them.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a mirrored set of hard drives, and why is it used for redundancy?
How can loose or damaged connections to hard drives cause a 'Bootable device not found' error?
What tools can be used to inspect and verify the connections to hard drives?
Your corporation mandates the collection and centralization of logs for auditing and troubleshooting. The network administrators are discussing the implementation of syslog for this purpose. Which port is typically used by syslog servers to receive log messages from network devices?
- 25 
- 514 
- 389 
- 162 
Answer Description
Syslog servers normally listen on UDP port 514 to accept log messages from network devices and operating systems. IT professionals must know common port numbers to configure firewalls, set permissions, and troubleshoot connectivity. Port 389 is reserved for LDAP directory services, port 162 is used for SNMP trap notifications, and port 25 is the default SMTP port for email transfer-none of these handle syslog traffic.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the purpose of syslog in a network?
Why does syslog use UDP port 514 instead of TCP?
What are some common alternatives or enhancements to syslog?
A user complains that he can no longer see any wireless networks, connect to his bluetooth headset, or make phone calls on his Android phone. Which of the following options would best address these issues?
- Ensure the phone is not overheating 
- Disable Airplane Mode 
- Dial *228 
- Try using the phone outdoors 
Answer Description
These symptoms describe a phone that is in airplane mode. The best option available would be to disable airplane mode. On most smart phones you could also re-enable WiFi and keep Airplane mode.
Ask Bash
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What does Airplane Mode do on a smartphone?
How do I disable Airplane Mode on an Android phone?
Why might someone enable Airplane Mode even when not on a flight?
While setting up mobile payments on a new tablet, a user finds that the device cannot establish a connection with the payment terminal even though the terminal is operational. As a technician, which hardware component on the user's tablet should you check first to resolve the issue?
- Ensure the tablet's GPS receiver is activated 
- Test whether the tablet's webcam is operational 
- Confirm that Bluetooth is enabled and searching for devices 
- Verify that the NFC module is installed, enabled, and functioning 
Answer Description
Tap-to-pay mobile payments require the tablet's near-field communication (NFC) radio and antenna to be present and enabled so the device can exchange payment data with the terminal at a range of a few centimeters. If the terminal is working but the tablet cannot connect, the NFC module (antenna/chip) is the most likely point of failure or misconfiguration. A webcam, Bluetooth radio, or GPS receiver are unrelated to the NFC link used for contactless payments.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is NFC and how does it work?
Why is the NFC module critical for contactless payments?
How do you check if an NFC module is enabled and functioning?
A user wants to place paper documents into a network-connected multifunction printer and have the files appear automatically in the company's Google Drive, OneDrive, or Dropbox account-without installing any PC software. Which built-in MFP feature accomplishes this?
- Scan-to-Cloud / Web Services 
- Scan-to-Email (SMTP) 
- Scan-to-Network Folder (SMB/UNC share) 
- Scan-to-USB memory device 
Answer Description
Many MFPs support a Scan-to-Cloud (also called Web Services or Web Connect) feature. After the device is connected to the Internet and the user authenticates, the printer uploads the scanned file directly to the selected cloud-storage account. Other scan destinations such as e-mail, SMB network folders, or USB drives do not perform this direct cloud upload.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Scan-to-Cloud and how does it work?
How does authentication work for Scan-to-Cloud in MFPs?
Are Scan-to-Email or Scan-to-Network Folder similar to Scan-to-Cloud?
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