CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201)
Use the form below to configure your CompTIA A+ Practice Test (220-1201). The practice test can be configured to only include certain exam objectives and domains. You can choose between 5-100 questions and set a time limit.

CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Information
CompTIA A+ Certification Overview
Exam Versions
The current versions of the CompTIA A+ certification exams are:
- 220-1201 (Core 1)
- 220-1202 (Core 2)
These versions were launched in April 2022 and are expected to retire approximately three years from their release date.
The A+ Certification Test
To earn the CompTIA A+ certification, candidates must pass two separate exams: 220-1201 and 220-1202. Each exam has a separate fee and can be taken in any order. Both exams must be completed before the retirement date and must be from the same set of objectives. The certification is valid for three years from the date of passing the exams.
Exam Details:
- Format: Computer-based tests
- Number of Questions: 90 questions per exam
- Time Limit: 90 minutes per exam
- Result Availability: Immediately after completion, following a short mandatory survey
CompTIA A+ 220-1201
The CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (Core 1) exam is a key component of the A+ certification, designed to validate essential IT skills and knowledge. This exam, launched in April 2022, covers a broad range of topics critical for IT professionals, including mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization and cloud computing, and network troubleshooting. Comprising 90 questions, the test includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions, simulating real-world scenarios to assess the candidate's practical abilities. The 220-1201 exam emphasizes the foundational skills necessary for IT support roles, ensuring that certified individuals are equipped to handle a variety of technical issues. With a 90-minute time limit, the exam challenges candidates to demonstrate their proficiency efficiently, providing immediate results upon completion. The certification remains valid for three years, making it a crucial step for those aiming to establish or advance their careers in IT.
Exam Policies and Procedures
Candidates must agree to CompTIA's exam policies before starting the test. These policies include:
- No Mobile Phones/Devices: Must be left outside the exam room
- Question Review: Candidates can revisit and change answers before submitting the exam
- Submission: Unanswered questions are marked, and a final review is available before submission
Testing Centers
Since July 9, 2012, CompTIA exams are available exclusively through Pearson VUE testing centers. Candidates can book exams online, by phone, or at the testing center. Options include:
- In-Person Testing: At Pearson VUE testing centers
- Online Testing: Through Pearson VUE's online platform
Performance-Based Questions (PBQs)
The A+ exams include Performance-Based Questions (PBQs), which require candidates to perform specific tasks or solve problems in a simulated environment. These questions test real-world skills in areas like command prompts, Windows OS, and networking environments.
Continuing Education (CE) Program
Certifications with the +CE (Continuing Education) suffix, including A+, Network+, and Security+, must be renewed every three years. Renewal options include:
- Retaking the Exam: Passing the latest version of the exam
- Higher-Level Certification: Passing a higher-level CompTIA exam
- CE Program Requirements: Completing CE activities
Lifetime Certifications
Certifications earned on or before December 31, 2010, are valid for life. However, lifetime certifications are no longer available for new candidates.
More reading:

Free CompTIA A+ 220-1201 (V15) Practice Test
- 20 Questions
- Unlimited
- Mobile DevicesNetworkingHardwareVirtualization and Cloud ComputingHardware and Network Troubleshooting
An administrator has a dual-band access point configured for 80 MHz-wide channels on both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands. A warehouse barcode scanner loses connectivity after passing through two cinder-block walls. Which AP adjustment is most likely to extend reliable coverage to the scanner without adding hardware?
Disable the 2.4 GHz radio so all clients use only the 5 GHz band
Change the wireless security from WPA2 to WPA3
Reduce the 2.4 GHz channel width to 20 MHz and connect the scanner to that band
Enable Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) channels on the 5 GHz band
Answer Description
The 2.4 GHz band propagates through walls better than the higher-frequency 5 GHz band. In addition, narrowing the channel width from 80 MHz to the standard 20 MHz reduces noise, increases the signal-to-noise ratio, and generally improves range at the cost of peak throughput-an acceptable trade-off for low-bandwidth devices such as a barcode scanner. Enabling 20 MHz operation on the 2.4 GHz radio therefore gives the scanner a stronger, farther-reaching signal. Enabling DFS channels still keeps the client on 5 GHz, which suffers more attenuation. Disabling 2.4 GHz forces all devices onto 5 GHz, worsening the problem. Changing from WPA2 to WPA3 affects security, not RF coverage.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does the 2.4 GHz band propagate through walls better than the 5 GHz band?
How does reducing the channel width to 20 MHz improve signal reliability?
What is the purpose of Dynamic Frequency Selection (DFS) channels in Wi-Fi?
While performing routine maintenance you notice a faint but distinct burning odor coming from a user's tower PC. The system is still powered on and the user has not complained of performance issues yet. To protect the equipment and yourself, what is the FIRST action you should take?
Shut the PC down immediately and unplug it from the wall outlet before inspecting the hardware.
Download and apply the latest BIOS/UEFI update from the manufacturer's website.
Remove the heat sink, clean off the thermal compound, and apply new thermal paste to the CPU.
Launch the operating system's built-in memory diagnostic tool to rule out RAM errors.
Answer Description
A burning smell indicates that an electrical component-most often the power supply, voltage-regulator circuitry on the motherboard, or a shorted cable-is overheating. Continuing to operate the system risks fire and further damage. The correct first response is to power the computer down and disconnect it from the AC outlet so current can no longer flow. Only after the unit is safely de-energized should you open the case or run diagnostics. Running memory tests, updating firmware, or re-applying thermal paste leave the hazard energized and could worsen damage or cause personal injury.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does a burning smell indicate a potential hardware problem?
What are voltage-regulator circuits, and why are they a common point of failure?
Why is it important to unplug a PC before inspecting hardware with a burning smell?
Which of the following attributes accurately describes the features of the 802.11ac wireless standard?
Operates on a single 20MHz channel for maximum compatibility with other devices.
Operates exclusively in the 5GHz frequency band.
Includes the 2.4GHz and 60GHz frequency bands for improved range and power consumption.
Does not support Multiple Input Multiple Output (MIMO) technology.
Answer Description
802.11ac, also known as Wi-Fi 5, operates exclusively in the 5GHz frequency band. It supports higher data rates compared to previous standards, specifically due to wider channel bandwidths (80 MHz and 160 MHz), more spatial streams, and more efficient data encoding. While it offers improved performance and less interference compared to the 2.4GHz band, it does not include the 60GHz frequency; that band is used by the 802.11ad standard. 802.11ac also supports Multi-User Multiple Input Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) technology, which is an enhancement over the MIMO in previous standards.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is MU-MIMO technology in 802.11ac?
Why does 802.11ac exclusively use the 5GHz frequency band?
How does 802.11ac improve data rates compared to earlier standards?
A user reports that their smartphone frequently becomes extremely hot to the touch, especially during or after charging, and battery life has significantly decreased. Upon inspection, you notice the battery is slightly bulging. Based on the principles of troubleshooting mobile devices, what is the BEST course of action to take to resolve this issue?
Reset the device to its factory settings.
Uninstall the last few apps that were added before the problem started occurring.
Replace the battery.
Let the device cool down and continue monitoring the battery temperature during use.
Answer Description
The correct answer is to replace the battery. A bulging battery indicates that it has undergone physical changes likely due to overcharging, age, or defect, and can pose a safety risk including potential fire hazard. Continuing to use a battery in this condition can cause further damage to the device and is a safety risk. Simply letting the device cool down or resetting the device software won't address the root cause of the overheating and battery bulging.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why does a battery bulge when it is overheating?
How can overcharging damage a smartphone battery?
What are the safety precautions for handling a bulging battery?
Which of the following best describes the role of ports 137 and 139 in a network environment?
Ports 137 and 139 are used for directory services and file sharing over a network.
Port 137 is for NetBIOS name resolution and port 139 is for NetBIOS session service to communicate between computers.
Ports 137 and 139 are designated for remote desktop services to manage network sessions.
Port 137 handles NetBIOS name service and port 139 is reserved for RPC services to serve distributed applications.
Answer Description
Ports 137 and 139 are associated with NetBIOS/NetBT services. Port 137 is used by NetBIOS for name resolution services, allowing machines on a local network to find each other by name, whereas port 139 is used for session services, facilitating communication between computers. Even though port 135 is also used for RPC Endpoint Mapper, it's not directly related to NetBIOS/NetBT services, and 445 is reserved for Microsoft-DS (Directory Services) over SMB, which facilitates file sharing without the NetBIOS layer.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is NetBIOS, and why is it important for networking?
Why are ports 137 and 139 specifically used for NetBIOS functions?
How do ports 139 and 445 differ in use for file sharing?
After replacing an old printer with a new one, users in the accounting department report that the printer trays appear to be full, yet documents do not print and an error says paper is not feeding. You have confirmed there is no paper jam and that the paper is loaded correctly according to the manufacturer's specifications. What should you do next to continue troubleshooting?
Check whether the printer's firmware is outdated and perform an update.
Verify that the printer's paper size and media-type settings match the paper loaded in the trays.
Turn off the printer for at least 30 seconds to reset the internal hardware, then power it back on.
Replace the printer with another new unit in case of a hardware defect.
Answer Description
A frequent cause of "paper not feeding" or "load paper" errors is a mismatch between the printer's configured paper size or media type and what is actually loaded. Most modern printers stop the job until the settings match. Verifying and, if necessary, correcting the paper size and type settings is therefore the next logical step before moving on to firmware updates or hardware replacement.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a paper size and media type setting in a printer?
How do you adjust or verify the paper settings on a printer?
Why don't firmware updates or resets fix paper misfeed issues immediately?
A user reports that their desktop PC no longer shows an additional storage device that contains vital project data. You confirm the device is powered and the internal connections are secure. After a system restart, the device is still not visible within the file explorer. What should be the MOST likely next step to troubleshoot this problem?
Inspect the disk management utility to determine if the device is listed there and to ensure it is properly initialized and assigned a drive letter.
Replace the internal data cables as they might be defective.
Update the drivers for the interface controllers on the system motherboard, then perform another system restart.
Examine all external connectors to confirm that the device isn't erroneously connected via an external interface.
Answer Description
When a storage device is confirmed to be powered and internally connected but not visible in the file explorer, the next step should be to check the disk management utility. It is possible the drive does not have an assigned drive letter, or it is not initialized, which would prevent it from appearing in the file explorer, but it might still be visible within the disk management. The other provided answers are less likely to resolve the issue at this stage. Updating interface controller drivers or replacing the interface data cable would be premature because if these were the issues, the drive typically wouldn't appear in disk management either. Reviewing external connections would not be relevant since the issue is with an internally mounted storage device.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the purpose of the disk management utility?
How do you initialize a disk in disk management?
What does assigning a drive letter do, and how is it done?
Your employer requires all mobile devices have a VPN client installed. The VPN client should be enabled whenever public or otherwise untrusted wireless networks are used. What is the benefit of using a VPN?
VPNs provide an encrypted tunnel that protects data transmitted wireless from being read by malicious actors
VPNs are a client only application that scans network traffic for possible viruses and worms
VPNs provide a packet scanning service that ensures the untrusted wireless network is safe to use
VPNs upgrade any HTTP traffic to HTTPS automatically
Answer Description
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) provides an encrypted tunnel to connect to networks. It can be used to securely connect from a home office to a corporate network or as an additional layer of security when using public wireless networks (e.g. the free WiFi at a coffee shop).
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What does encryption in a VPN do?
How does a VPN protect against public WiFi risks?
What is the difference between a VPN and HTTPS?
Which benefit does client-side virtualization provide for organizations seeking to use outdated applications?
It customizes the user interface of the applications to meet modern design standards.
It increases resource efficiency by allocating exactly what is needed for each user.
It enables the operation of outdated applications within an environment that supports them.
It protects the host system by isolating the outdated applications in a sandboxed environment.
Answer Description
Running legacy software on newer operating systems might lead to compatibility issues; therefore, utilizing virtual machines allows an older operating system to be used, ensuring that the legacy software remains operational. This is dissimilar from sandboxing, which is used to run potentially untrusted programs without risking the host system, and resource efficiency, which addresses the optimization of physical resources but not compatibility with older software. Users refers to the people operating the software, not the software compatibility itself.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is client-side virtualization?
How does a virtual machine ensure compatibility with outdated applications?
How is client-side virtualization different from sandboxing?
A growing company wants to ensure that its cloud computing costs correlate closely with its actual usage to remain budget-efficient as its demand fluctuates throughout the year. Which cloud characteristic should the company prioritize when selecting a cloud service provider?
High availability
File synchronization
Metered utilization
Rapid elasticity
Answer Description
Metered utilization is the correct answer because it allows the company to pay only for the resources it consumes. This characteristic aligns with the company's goal to match costs with actual usage and also provides the flexibility to adjust to changing demands. Rapid elasticity, while related, mainly addresses the speed and agility with which resources can be scaled, rather than the cost alignment aspect. High availability is an important factor for maintaining uptime and accessibility, but does not directly impact the cost aspect as metered usage does. File synchronization is a feature that ensures consistency of files across systems, but it does not affect the billing or the cost structure based on actual usage.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is metered utilization in cloud computing?
How is metered utilization different from rapid elasticity?
Why would a company prioritize metered utilization over high availability?
A small business owner is looking to expand the number of Ethernet ports in the office so additional desktop computers can be connected. They do not need advanced capabilities such as VLANs or network-traffic monitoring and would like to keep costs low. Which type of device would be the BEST solution?
A managed switch
A hub
An unmanaged switch
A router with built-in Ethernet ports
Answer Description
An unmanaged switch is a low-cost, plug-and-play device that immediately begins forwarding traffic without any configuration. Because it lacks features such as VLAN support, SNMP monitoring, or port security, it is less expensive than a managed switch and perfectly suited to simply adding additional Ethernet ports. A managed switch would provide capabilities the business does not need and therefore costs more. A router's main purpose is to connect different networks, not merely to add ports, and consumer routers typically offer only a few LAN ports. A hub is outdated technology that broadcasts every frame out all ports, which reduces performance and raises security concerns.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between a managed switch and an unmanaged switch?
Why is a hub considered outdated compared to a switch?
Why wouldn’t a router with built-in Ethernet ports be a good choice for adding network connections?
While configuring a lightweight status probe that will periodically send a single 32 byte packet to hundreds of network hosts, the technician decides reliability is not critical and wants to minimize bandwidth and CPU overhead. Which transport-layer protocol best meets these requirements, and why?
UDP; it provides built-in flow control to prevent congestion.
TCP; its three-way handshake confirms the connection before data is sent.
TCP; it can broadcast packets without establishing sessions.
UDP; it is connectionless and has minimal header overhead.
Answer Description
The probe needs to push a small, one-way message without establishing or maintaining a session. UDP is a connectionless protocol, so it does not perform the three-way handshake, sequencing, acknowledgments, or flow-control operations that TCP uses. This absence of session management keeps the header small (8 bytes vs. TCP's 20+ bytes) and processing overhead low, making UDP ideal when speed and reduced bandwidth matter more than guaranteed delivery. TCP, on the other hand, is connection-oriented; its handshake, acknowledgments, and retransmission features add latency and additional bytes-unnecessary for a simple, best-effort status message. The option claiming UDP provides built-in flow control is incorrect, as this is a feature of TCP. The option claiming TCP can broadcast packets is also incorrect; TCP is a unicast protocol and does not support broadcasting.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is UDP preferred over TCP for lightweight probes?
What is the purpose of the three-way handshake in TCP?
How does UDP differ from TCP in terms of reliability?
What is the primary function of a switch in a wired network?
To forward data frames based on MAC addresses to connect devices within a network
To connect multiple networks and direct traffic between them
To assign IP addresses to devices on the network
To terminate DSL or cable lines for internet connectivity
Answer Description
The primary function of a switch in a wired network is to connect devices together on the same network by using MAC addresses to forward data frames to the appropriate destination. Unlike a router, a switch does not facilitate the connection between multiple networks or manage IP address assignments. It is not used for terminating a DSL or cable line, which is the typical function of a modem.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the difference between a switch and a router in a network?
How does a switch use MAC addresses to forward data frames?
What is the difference between a managed and an unmanaged switch?
A technician receives a call that a user’s workstation has suddenly stopped responding and the screen is blank. Before investigating potential hardware issues, what should the technician check first to establish a theory of probable cause?
Listen for power-on self-test (POST) beeps to diagnose motherboard or component issues.
Inspect the motherboard for swollen capacitors or other visible signs of hardware failure.
Check the computer for a blue screen of death (BSOD) or other crash screens.
Verify that the monitor is turned on and the cable is securely connected to both the monitor and the workstation.
Answer Description
Verifying that the monitor is turned on and connected properly is a foundational step in troubleshooting display issues. This addresses the simplest cause where the monitor itself might be powered off or disconnected, which would result in a blank screen. If the monitor receives proper power and connection but the screen remains blank, the technician can then proceed to assess more complex hardware components. Checking for POST beeps or proprietary crash screens would not be the initial steps as they would not be present if the monitor is simply turned off. Similarly, inspecting motherboard components would come later in the troubleshooting process once basic external checks are completed.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
Why is it important to check if the monitor is turned on and connected properly first?
What are POST beeps, and why aren’t they checked first in this scenario?
When should a technician inspect the motherboard or hardware components?
A graphic designer reports that the cursor on a laptop jumps unpredictably when they use the built-in trackpad, yet an external USB mouse moves smoothly. There is no sign of physical damage to the trackpad itself. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the erratic cursor behavior?
Touch-based features must be disabled in the OS settings.
The trackpad needs recalibration for sensitivity.
The trackpad drivers are out of date.
There is moisture or dirt on the trackpad surface.
Answer Description
Capacitive trackpads detect very small changes in an electrostatic field. A thin film of moisture, sweat, or dirt can register as additional touches, so the pointer appears to jump or drift. Cleaning and drying the pad usually restores normal tracking.
Out-of-date or corrupted drivers can also cause touchpad-only problems, but those issues usually appear after an operating-system or driver update and are less common than surface contamination. Re-calibrating sensitivity or disabling multi-touch features affects how intentional input is interpreted, not the phantom touches produced by contaminants.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does a capacitive trackpad detect input?
Why does moisture or dirt cause erratic cursor behavior on a trackpad?
What are the typical signs of out-of-date or corrupted trackpad drivers?
As a support specialist, you've been notified that a departmental multi-function printer/scanner is malfunctioning and the executive team needs important paperwork processed immediately. According to CompTIA's best-practice troubleshooting methodology, what should be your FIRST step?
Identify the problem by gathering information from the user and observing the device.
Swap out the multi-function device with a replacement unit immediately.
Consult the organization's troubleshooting and maintenance guidelines before doing anything.
Power-cycle the device repeatedly to see if it resolves itself before escalating.
Answer Description
Step 1 in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology is to identify the problem. Gather information from the user, observe the device, review error messages or logs, and note any recent changes. Only after clearly defining the problem do you proceed to forming a theory, testing, planning a fix, and so forth. While corporate policies must always be considered before making changes, that consideration precedes implementation later in the process, not the initial fact-finding stage.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology?
Why is identifying the problem the first step in troubleshooting?
Why isn’t swapping the device immediately a good first troubleshooting step?
A network printer is producing reports with an inverted page orientation despite the correct portrait setting in multiple users' applications. Which of the following steps is most appropriate to address the issue?
Reinstall the printer on the client machine that was used to create the original report.
Modify the original document properties to rotate the content to match the printer's output.
Directly adjust the printer's control panel settings to correct the page orientation.
Check and modify the default printing preferences on the printer server or within the printer's network settings.
Answer Description
When multiple users experience the same issue of inverted page orientation despite having the correct settings in their applications, this suggests that the problem is at the printer level rather than with individual software configurations. Checking and modifying the default printing preferences in the printer's network settings or on the printer server is a logical next step, as these settings override individual user settings. This action preserves user application settings and alters the orientation for all printed documents from that printer. Directly adjusting the printer's hardware control panel settings could also resolve the issue, but network settings are generally responsible for multiple user issues. Modifying the original document's properties does not address the multiple user symptom, and reinstalling on one client machine would not fix the issue for all users.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What are default printing preferences?
Why do printer server settings affect all users?
How do you access a printer server's settings?
A developer plans to test a major application update inside a virtual machine (VM) before pushing the code to the company's production servers.
Which statement BEST describes how this practice affects the risk of production downtime?
It ensures the application will run with identical hardware drivers and network conditions found in production.
It isolates changes and reduces the likelihood of production downtime, but problems can still appear after deployment.
It guarantees that no performance or stability issues will occur once the update is released to production.
It eliminates the need to create backups because snapshots make recovery unnecessary.
Answer Description
Running the update in a VM allows developers to discover many functional or compatibility problems in an isolated environment and roll back quickly by reverting to a snapshot. This greatly reduces the likelihood that the update will disrupt the live environment, but it does not guarantee zero downtime because some issues-such as differences in hardware drivers, real-world load, or integration with external services-may still surface only after production deployment.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is a virtual machine (VM)?
What is a snapshot in the context of virtual machines?
Why can issues still arise after deploying software tested in a VM?
The act of sharing internet connectivity via the use of a cellular device's internet connection is called:
Docking
Tethering
Transmitting
Splicing
Answer Description
Sharing a device's cellularly connected internet to nearby devices is called tethering.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
How does tethering work?
What is the difference between tethering and a mobile hotspot?
Are there any limitations or costs associated with tethering?
An organization needs the ability to push corporate email settings to employee smartphones and to erase all data on a phone if it is reported lost or stolen. Which of the following solutions BEST meets both of these requirements?
Mobile Device Management (MDM)
POP3 e-mail configuration
WPA3 wireless security
A personal cloud-storage application
Answer Description
Mobile Device Management (MDM) platforms provide centralized control over smartphones and tablets. Through an MDM console, administrators can deploy configuration profiles (including corporate email, Wi-Fi, VPN, and security policies) and send commands such as Remote Wipe to erase a device that is lost or stolen. POP3, personal cloud-storage apps, and wireless security protocols do not provide these management or wipe functions.
Ask Bash
Bash is our AI bot, trained to help you pass your exam. AI Generated Content may display inaccurate information, always double-check anything important.
What is Mobile Device Management (MDM)?
How does Remote Wipe work in MDM systems?
What are configuration profiles in MDM, and what can they include?
Wow!
Looks like that's it! You can go back and review your answers or click the button below to grade your test.